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• How to Watch Youtube Videos on PSP with iMoviesoft FLV Converter

  - by user312417

  Do you have worried about it? You can not watch Youtube videos anytime, anywhere.It is so boring on the way to work and home.How you want to be able to enjoy the wonderful Youtube Video on PSP that you can watch them on the way to home, home on bus. This artice will tell you about how to convert Youtube VIdeos to PSP Player, take "Alice.in.Wonderland" as an example, We can use iMoviesoft FLV Converter to convert it to PSP video file. iMoviesoft FLV Converter is a powerful FLV Converter which can convert FLV and YouTube Videos to almost any video formats, with excellent conversion speed and quality, such as converting FLV to MP4, FLV to AVI, FLV to WMV, FLV to MPEG etc. Furthermore, it can also easily convert video files to some popular audio formats, such as WMA, MP3, M4A, AAC, etc. You can convert FLV and YouTube videos to PSP, iPod, iPhone, Zune video player and other portable video players. After easy and wonderful conversion, you can fully enjoy videos on your PSP, iPod, iPhone and some other portable video players. Besides, you can also use it to join videos. Merge several videos into one output PSP video and enjoy them conveniently. You can also trim your favarite clips or remove the video black edges by [iMoviesoft FLV Converter. Hope to help every Video Enthusiasts.

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• Display Special Characters (Korean Letters) in RichTextBox

  - by Peter Lee

  Hi, My question might be a little bit confusing, but I think it's still worth of paying some attention. Basically I'm designing a program to display all printable Unicode characters in a RichTextBox. I'm using VC# 2010 Express Edition. However, the RichTextBox has a critical problem: some special characters cannot be displayed correctly. For example, some Korean Characters (??????????????????????????????), can be displayed correctly in Microsoft Word. After I copy to the RichTextBox, the characters cannot be displayed correctly. However, when I copy back to Microsoft Word, it can be displayed correctly. Therefore, it's a display problem (the characters themselves are correct). I guess it might be a font problem. Some related property info: RichTextBox.Font.GdiChaSet RichTextBox.Font How can I solve it? So that all printable Unicode characters can be displayed correctly (using different fonts for different CharSets are acceptable). Actually, I need further assistance about removing all formatting when pasting rtbxFileContent.Paste(DataFormats.GetFormat(DataFormats.Text)); // DataFormats.UnicodeText I still need to have all printable characters to be displayed correctly, but without any formatting (except font). Thanks. Hope I made myself understood.

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• SubmitChanges doesn't save but removes inserts from change set, no errors

  - by winston schröder

  Hi Everybody, I have a deeper question regarding debug functionality of Linq to Sql SubmitChanges() Function. I want to save a record in a table of a locally cached db (localdbcache: server SqlExpress 2008 client SqlCE). Before calling SubmitChanges I can find the new item via DataContext.GetChangeSet(). After calling Submit Changes, the items to insert have been removed from the ChangeSet. (That's what this function is supposed to do.) There are no Changes Conflicts and no error in the db's log output. No Exception at all. The table's Count stays at the same value. if ((e.Parameter == null) || (!e.Parameter.GetType().Equals(typeof(LibDB.Client.Vehicles)))) return; LibDB.Client.Vehicles tmp = e.Parameter as LibDB.Client.Vehicles; try { ChangeSet cs = this._dc.GetChangeSet(); if ((tmp == null) || (this._dc == null)) return; if (this._dc.Vehicles.Where(veh => veh.Vin == tmp.Vin).Count() == 0) this._dc.Vehicles.InsertOnSubmit(tmp); else if (this._dc.Vehicles.Where(veh => veh.Vin == tmp.Vin).Count() == 1) this._dc.Vehicles.Attach(tmp, true); else return; using (TransactionScope ts = new TransactionScope()) { try { this._dc.SubmitChanges(); //this._dc.Refresh(RefreshMode.OverwriteCurrentValues, this._dc.Vehicles); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } if (this._dc.Vehicles.Where(veh => veh.Vin == tmp.Vin).Count() == 1) MessageBox.Show("Vehicle not saved."); this.vehSelector.ResetLayout(); } I would appreciate any help since I'm loosing hope to find any error, Thanks in Advance Winston

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• Deploying software on compromised machines

  - by Martin

  I've been involved in a discussion about how to build internet voting software for a general election. We've reached a general consensus that there exist plenty of secure methods for two way authentication and communication. However, someone came along and pointed out that in a general election some of the machines being used are almost certainly going to be compromised. To quote: Let me be an evil electoral fraudster. I want to sample peoples votes as they vote and hope I get something scandalous. I hire a bot-net from some really shady dudes who control 1000 compromised machines in the UK just for election day. I capture the voting habits of 1000 voters on election day. I notice 5 of them have voted BNP. I look these users up and check out their machines, I look through their documents on their machine and find out their names and addresses. I find out one of them is the wife of a tory MP. I leak 'wife of tory mp is a fascist!' to some blogger I know. It hits the internet and goes viral, swings an election. That's a serious problem! So, what are the best techniques for running software where user interactions with the software must be kept secret, on a machine which is possibly compromised?

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• flex and jsf access the same instance of bean

  - by David

  i integrate a flex app in a jsf-icefaces app (in a jspx site with the ice:outputmedia-tag) and want to access the same instance of a bean from flex by remote, that jsf inject. i already connect with blazeds to a java-bean. this bean - like all other beans - get other beans by injection of jsf, but when i access the bean by remote from flex it doesnt hold the injected beans (like localizer and accesmanager, both session scoped) and i can't connect to the jsf session (FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() is null). this is because flex create a new instance of the bean and it’s not the same current instance, that jsf inject, i think. i can connect from flex to the database by create a new entity manager in the java bean, but that's not what i want, because it's again another entity manager...i want persist and get data over the accessmanager-bean. i know exadel fiji and flamingo, but i couldn't work with fiji, because my jsf app include the icefaces components and then it doesn't work with richfaces which fiji needs. and flamingo work only with jboss seam and spring. is it right? i also read about the spring-flex-integration, but the jsf application did not create with spring and i don't want to integrate spring in such a large jsf app. yesterday i read about the FlexFactory interface. this interface i have to implement in my own Factory and set it in the service-config.xml of blazeds as a factory read this. i still implement my own factory but i only get application scoped beans over the servlet context which i get over FlexContext.getServletContext().getAttribute("Bean"); and not session scoped beans... i hope there is a chance to connect throw flex and jsf... thanks!

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• Problem with creation of scheduled task from IIS6 on SR2003

  - by Morten Louw Nielsen

  Hi, I am writing a webapplication using .NET. The webapp creates scheduled tasks using the System.Diagnostics.Process class, calling SCHTASKS.EXE with parameters. I have changed the identity on the app pool, to a specific domain user. The domain-user is local administrator on all the four webservers. From webserver01 I am creating tasks on webserver01 to webserver04. It works perfect for 3-5 days, but then it breaks. It gives me the following errormessage in a messagebox: "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142). Click on OK to terminate the application." If I have the system in the broken state, and I change the identity of the app pool to Domain administrator, it works. As I change it back to my domain-user, it breaks again. If I reboot the server, it works again for the same amount of days, but will break again. It seems like a permission-related problem. I just don't understand why it works sometimes, and sometimes doesn't. I hope someone outthere has seen this problem! Looking forward to hear from you! Kind regards, Morten, Denmark

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• help with grouping and sorting for TreeView in xaml

  - by danhotb

  I am having problems getting my head around grouping and sorting in xaml and hope someone can get me straightened out! I have creaed an xml file from a tree of files and folders (just like windows explorer) that can be serveral levels deep. I have bound a TreeView control to an xml datasource and it works great! It sorts everything alphabetically but ... I would like it to sort all folders first then all files, rather than folders listed with files, as it does now. the xml : if you load this to a treeviw it will display the two files before the folder because they are first in alpha-order. here is my code: <!-- This will contain the XML-data. --> <XmlDataProvider x:Key="xmlDP" XPath="*"> <x:XData> <Select_Project /> </x:XData> </XmlDataProvider> <!-- This HierarchicalDataTemplate will visualize all XML-nodes --> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="project" ItemsSource ="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding XPath=@name}" /> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="folder" ItemsSource ="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding XPath=@name}" /> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="file" ItemsSource ="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding XPath=@name}" /> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="projectView" Source="{StaticResource xmlDP}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <!-- ADD SORT DESCRIPTION HERE --> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> <TreeView Margin="11,79.992,18,19.089" Name="tvProject" BorderThickness="1" FontSize="12" FontFamily="Verdana"> <TreeViewItem ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource xmlDP}, XPath=*}" Header="Project"/> </TreeView>

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• Design/Architecture Advice Needed

  - by Rachel

  Summary: I have different components on homepage and each components shows some promotion to the user. I have Cart as one Component and depending upon content of the cart promotion are show. I have to track user online activities and send that information to Omniture for Report Generation. Now my components are loaded asynchronously basically are loaded when AjaxRequest is fired up and so there is not fix pattern or rather information on when components will appear on the webpages. Now in order to pass information to Omniture I need to call track function on $(document).(ready) and append information for each components(7 parameters are required by Omniture for each component). So in the init:config function of each component am calling Omniture and passing paramters but now no. of Omniture calls is directly proportional to no. of Components on the webpage but this is not acceptable as each call to Omniture is very expensive. Now I am looking for a way where in I can club the information about 7 parameters and than make one Call to Omniture wherein I pass those information. Points to note is that I do not know when the components are loaded and so there is no pre-defined time or no. of components that would be loaded. The thing is am calling track function when document is ready but components are loaded after call to Omniture has been made and so my question is Q: How can I collect the information for all the components and than just make one call to Omniture to send those information ? As mentioned, I do not know when the components are loaded as they are done on the Ajax Request. Hope I am able to explain my challenge and would appreciate if some one can provide from Design/Architect Solutions for the Challenge.

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• TDD - testing business rules/validation in ASP.NET MVC

  - by csetzkorn

  Hi, I am using the sharp architecture so I can easily use mocks etc. in my unit tests and/or during TDD. I have quite complicated business rules and would like to test them at the controller level. I am just wondering how other people do this? For me validation tests business rules at three levels: (1) Property level (e.g. property is required) (2) Intra property level (e.g. start date < end date) (3) Persistence level (e.g. name is unique, parent cannot be child of child) My validation framework also assigns errors to properties. I am just wondering what other people do? Do you write a test for each business rule and check whether the correct error message is assigned to the correct property (i.e. looking at the ASP.MVC ModelState)? I hope my question makes sense. Thanks a lot! Best wishes, Christian

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• WPF Usercontrol interaction with parent view / viewmodel

  - by obaylis

  Hi I have a mainView window which has its dataContext set to it's own viewModel. On that viewModel is a DateTime property which in turn is bound to a datepicker on my main view using 2 way binding. <toolkit:DatePicker DateSelected="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" /> This is all fine so far. On the change of my datetime property I create a list which is then bound to a datagrid elsewhere on the mainview. This all works fine. My question is to do with a usercontrol I want to add to the main view. I want this usercontrol to be self contained so have created it with it's own viewmodel but it does also need access to mainDateTimeProperty I thought that best way to go would be to create a dependencyProperty on the usercontrol and when I create my control in the main view I bind the dp to the datetime as follows. <uc:MyNewUserControl DateProperty="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty}" /> Trouble is how do I have the usercontrol maintain datacontext with it's viewmodel and yet still have the dependency property bound to a property on the main view model? Hope this is clear. Can post some more code if necessary. Looking for a best practice approach if possible. Thanks very much for any advice.

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• Compare NSDate for Today or Yesterday

  - by elementsense

  Hi Well I guess this has been asked a thousand times, but for some reason the answeres dont really work or had other problems,.... Anyway here is what I have "working" : NSCalendar *calendar = [NSCalendar currentCalendar]; NSDate *currentDate = [NSDate date]; NSDateComponents *comps = [[NSDateComponents alloc] init]; // set tomorrow (0: today, -1: yesterday) [comps setDay:0]; NSDate *dateToday = [calendar dateByAddingComponents:comps toDate:currentDate options:0]; [comps setDay:-1]; NSDate *dateYesterday = [calendar dateByAddingComponents:comps toDate:currentDate options:0]; [comps release]; NSString *todayString = [self.dateFormatter stringFromDate:dateToday] ; NSString *yesterdayString = [self.dateFormatter stringFromDate:dateYesterday] ; NSString *refDateString = [self.dateFormatter stringFromDate:info.date]; if ([refDateString isEqualToString:todayString]) { cell.title.text = @"Today"; } else if ([refDateString isEqualToString:yesterdayString]) { cell.title.text = @"Yesterday"; } else { cell.title.text = [self.dateFormatter stringFromDate:info.date]; } Now to the problem(s) : That seems to be an awefull lot of code for just a date comparinson, is there an easier way ? And the most important question is the release of all the objects. As might have guessed, I use this in a UITableViewController. I also have these lines in my code : //[calendar release]; //[currentDate release]; //[dateToday release]; //[dateYesterday release]; //[todayString release]; //[yesterdayString release]; //[refDateString release]; The problem is that as soon that I uncomment one of these lines, my app crashes and I have no idea why ?! I hope someone can enlighten me here. Thanks lot.

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• T-SQL Right Joins to ALL Entries inc Selected Column

  - by Pace

  Hi Experts, I have the following Query which produces the output below; SELECT TBLUSERS.USERID, TBLUSERS.ADusername, TBLACCESSLEVELS.ACCESSLEVELID, TBLACCESSLEVELS.AccessLevelName FROM TBLACCESSLEVELS INNER JOIN TBLACCESSRIGHTS ON TBLACCESSLEVELS.ACCESSLEVELID = TBLACCESSRIGHTS.ACCESSLEVELID INNER JOIN TBLUSERS ON TBLACCESSRIGHTS.USERID = TBLUSERS.USERID The output is this; 29 administrator 1 AllUsers 29 administrator 2 JobQueue 29 administrator 3 Telephone Directory Admin 29 administrator 4 Jobqueueadmin 29 administrator 5 UserAdmin 29 administrator 6 Product System 27 alan 1 AllUsers 97 andy 1 AllUsers 26 barry 1 AllUsers 26 barry 2 JobQueue 26 barry 3 Telephone Directory Admin 26 barry 4 Jobqueueadmin 26 barry 5 UserAdmin 26 barry 6 Product System 26 barry 7 Newseditor 26 barry 8 GreetingBoard What I would like to do is modify the query so I get all Access Levels regardless of weather there is an entry for that user. What I would also like to do is some sort of exist case so that I get output like the following; 29 administrator 1 AllUsers True 29 administrator 2 JobQueue True 29 administrator 3 Telephone Directory Admin True 29 administrator 4 Jobqueueadmin True 29 administrator 5 UserAdmin True 29 administrator 6 Product System True 29 administrator 7 Newseditor False 29 administrator 8 GreetingBoard False 27 alan 1 AllUsers True 27 alan 2 JobQueue False 27 alan 3 Telephone Directory Admin False 27 alan 4 Jobqueueadmin False 27 alan 5 UserAdmin False 27 alan 6 Product System False 27 alan 7 Newseditor False 27 alan 8 GreetingBoard False 97 andy 1 AllUsers True 97 andy 2 JobQueue False 97 andy 3 Telephone Directory Admin False 97 andy 4 Jobqueueadmin False 97 andy 5 UserAdmin False 97 andy 6 Product System False 97 andy 7 Newseditor False 97 andy 8 GreetingBoard False 26 Barry 1 AllUsers True 26 Barry 2 JobQueue True 26 Barry 3 Telephone Directory Admin True 26 Barry 4 Jobqueueadmin True 26 Barry 5 UserAdmin True 26 Barry 6 Product System True 26 Barry 7 Newseditor True 26 Barry 8 GreetingBoard True ......................................... So the rules are ALWAYS show ALL Entries for ACCESSLEVELS and where EXISTS in ACCESSRIGHTS produce a true / false to show this. I hope this makes sense and hopefully you dont need the table definitions as everything I need to work with is in the original Query. I just need a way of manipulating it slightly and getting the join in the right place. Thank you. Pace

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• How do I encapsulate form/post/validation[/redirect] in ViewUserControl in ASP.Net MVC 2

  - by paul

  What I am trying to achieve: encapsulate a Login (or any) Form to be reused across site post to self when Login/validation fails, show original page with Validation Summary (some might argue to just post to Login Page and show Validation Summary there; if what I'm trying to achieve isn't possible, I will just go that route) when Login succeeds, redirect to /App/Home/Index also, want to: stick to PRG principles avoid ajax keep Login Form (UserController.Login()) as encapsulated as possible; avoid having to implement HomeController.Login() since the Login Form might appear elsewhere All but the redirect works. My approach thus far has been: Home/Index includes Login Form: <%Html.RenderAction("Login","User");%> User/Login ViewUserControl<UserLoginViewModel> includes: <%=Html.ValidationSummary("") % using(Html.BeginForm()){} includes hidden form field "userlogin"="1" public class UserController : BaseController { ... [AcceptPostWhenFieldExists(FieldName = "userlogin")] public ActionResult Login(UserLoginViewModel model, FormCollection form){ if (ModelState.IsValid) { if(checkUserCredentials()) { setUserCredentials() return this.RedirectToAction<Areas.App.Controllers.HomeController>(x = x.Index()); } else { return View(); } } ... } Works great when: ModelState or User Credentials fail -- return View() does yield to Home/Index and displays appropriate validation summary. (I have a Register Form on the same page, using the same structure. Each form's validation summary only shows when that form is submitted.) Fails when: ModelState and User Credentials valid -- RedirectToAction<>() gives following error: "Child actions are not allowed to perform redirect actions." It seems like in the Classic ASP days, this would've been solved with Response.Buffer=True. Is there an equivalent setting or workaround now? Btw, running: ASP.Net 4, MVC 2, VS 2010, Dev/Debugging Web Server I hope all of that makes sense. So, what are my options? Or where am I going wrong in my approach? tia!

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• Make Iframe to fit 100% of container's remaining height

  - by Darkthread

  I want to design a web page with a banner and a iframe. I hope the iframe can fill all the remaining page height and be resized automatically as browser resizing. Is it possible to get it done without writing Javascript code, only with CSS? I tried set height:100% on iframe, the result is quite close but the iframe tried to fill the whole page height, including the 30px height of banner div element, so I got unneccessary vertical scrollbar. It's not perfect. Update Notes: Excute me for not describing the question well, I tried CSS margin, padding attribute on DIV to occupy the whole remining height of a web page successfully, but the trick didn't work on iframe. <body> <div style="width:100%; height:30px; background-color:#cccccc;">Banner</div> <iframe src="http: //www.google.com.tw" style="width:100%; height:100%;"></iframe> </body> Any idea is appreciated.

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• Is background tasks the solution for this problem?

  - by Trinca

  Hi. I need to develop an enterprise app that monitors the network traffic. Basically it detects if the user is in wi-fi or cellular data and save the amount of bytes was sent and received in a period of time. I saw an App at the AppStore that do exactly this job. Detecting wi-fi or cellular data is quite simple using the Reachability Sample provided by Apple. My problem is to keep monitoring the bytes sent and received while the app is in background. As it is an enterprise App, I used UIBackgroundModes "voip" to avoid the app to be terminated. I also installed the setKeepAliveTimeout method and I'm able to see the logs each 10 minutes, BUT only for 10 seconds after the method runs. I mean, setKeepAliveTimeout brings my App to run a Timer for 10 seconds each 1o minutes. I'm thinking wether or not a task in background is the best solution for my problem. I'll appreciate any comments. EDIT: Ok guys. Thats the perfect way to do it. First of all you must read this: http://www.christian-fries.de/blog/files/tag-ios.html I tried this and it works really fine. All we need to do is to create a second thread detached from the main one. This way we have a continuos threading running forever. You must see the GCD docs at Apple's website also. Second thing you should consider for an enterprise App is to set it up as a voip App, this way iOS will put your App running even after a reboot. It's a special behavior iOS has to keep voip Apps running. Thats it guys. I hope it can help you.

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• loading content from php file with jQuery

  - by Billa

  The following code fetch all data (by clicking a.info link) from a php file "info.php" and prints in the #content div. The problem is that it prints everything from info.php file. Can I possibly select only some part of data from info.php file to load in #content? The reason to ask this question is that, I want to load different data from the same php file for the different links. $("a.info").click(function(){ var id=$(this).attr("id"); $("#box").slideDown("slow"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "info.php", success: function(html){ $("#content").html(html); } }); }); Html where content is loading: <div id="box"> <div id="content"></div> </div> info.php paragraph1. paragraph2. For example, In the above info.php file, i only want to load paragraph1 in the #content. I hope my question is clear. Any help will be appreciated.

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• iPhone SDK 3.2 Universal App issue with .xib files

  - by Wesley

  Hello! So I am finding this process of universalizing my iPhone app to be a big headache! Am I alone in this? I sure hope not. Anyway, my question is regarding the .xib files for my universal application. I had my iPhone OS 3.1 running app all ready to make the universal switch. I went up to Project/Upgrade Current Target for iPad/Universal Application and it supposedly made my app have all the necessary iPad settings... So when I went to test it in 3.2 SDk, the screen was big, meaning the toolbar was sized correctly for the iPad, but the image that was being displayed was for the OS 3.1, meaning it was way small. So I then went to the iPad Source folder, changed the name of my MainViewController.xib file to MainViewController-iPad.xib, and inserted the bigger image I had prepared for the iPad, and it still didn't work correctly. Then, I went into my MainViewController.m file and changed the nib reference from MainViewController to MainViewController-iPad, and it worked! My only concern is that being that I had to "hard-code" it in, or force it to read from my -iPad file, is that going to present issues for the OS3.1 version? I can't go back and test the 3.1 version now for some reason, the option was removed from the Active SDK menu... If there is anyone out there that has experienced this, or has insight into what I am doing wrong, your help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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• rails use counts in diferent views

  - by Oluf Nielsen

  Hello i guess this is going to be pretty noob question.. But.. I have an scaffold called list, which has_many :wishes. And with that information in my model, I can in my list view use this code <%=h @list.wishes.count % well now I have made an controller called statusboard.. And in that' I have 3 functions.. Or how to say it.. but it is Index, loggedin, loggedout.. And .. In loggedin and in the file #app/views/statusboard/loggedin.html.erb i want to display this.. Howdy {Username}, you have made {count lists} lists, and {count wishes} wishes here is that i figured i should write in my file.. Howdy {Username}, you have made <%=h @user.list.count % lists, and <%=h @user.wishes.count % wishes my list model is like this = class List < ActiveRecord::Base   attr_accessible :user_id, :name, :description   belongs_to :users   has_many :wishes end and my wish model is like this = class Wish < ActiveRecord::Base   attr_accessible :list_id, :name, :price, :link, :rating, :comment   belongs_to :list end and last my user model is like this = class User < ActiveRecord::Base   # Include default devise modules. Others available are:   # :token_authenticatable, :lockable and :timeoutable   devise :database_authenticatable, :registerable,# :confirmable,              :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable   # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model   attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation   has_many :lists end i hope someone can help me :-)! / Oluf Nielsen

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• Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

  - by Cragly

  I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

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• Java performance problem with LinkedBlockingQueue

  - by lofthouses

  Hello, this is my first post on stackoverflow...i hope someone can help me i have a big performance regression with Java 6 LinkedBlockingQueue. In the first thread i generate some objects which i push in to the queue In the second thread i pull these objects out. The performance regression occurs when the take() method of the LinkedBlockingQueue is called frequently. I monitored the whole program and the take() method claimed the most time overall. And the throughput goes from ~58Mb/s to 0.9Mb/s... the queue pop and take methods ar called with a static method from this class public class C_myMessageQueue { private static final LinkedBlockingQueue<C_myMessageObject> x_queue = new LinkedBlockingQueue<C_myMessageObject>( 50000 ); /** * @param message * @throws InterruptedException * @throws NullPointerException */ public static void addMyMessage( C_myMessageObject message ) throws InterruptedException, NullPointerException { x_queue.put( message ); } /** * @return Die erste message der MesseageQueue * @throws InterruptedException */ public static C_myMessageObject getMyMessage() throws InterruptedException { return x_queue.take(); } } how can i tune the take() method to accomplish at least 25Mb/s, or is there a other class i can use which will block when the "queue" is full or empty. kind regards Bart P.S.: sorry for my bad english, i'm from germany ;)

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• Google App Engine application instance recycling and response times...

  - by Konrad

  Hi, I posted this on GAE for Java group, but I hope to get some answers here quicker :) I decided to do some long-run performance tests on my application. I created some small client hitting app every 5-30 minutes and I run 3-5 of threads with such client. I noticed huge differenced in response times and started to investigate issue. I found reason very quick. I am experiencing same issues as described in following topics: Uneven response time between connection to server to first byte sent Application instances seem to be too aggressively recycled Getting 'Request was aborted after waiting too long to attempt to service your request.' after application idle I am using Springframework, it tkes around 18-20s to start app instance, which is causing response times to take from 1s (when requests hits running app - very rare) to 22s when fresh application is created. Is there any solution for this? I was thinking about creating most basic servlet performing critical tasks (serving API call) and leave UI as is. But then I would loose all benefits of Springframework. Is there any solution for this? After solving (hacking) numerous constrains of App Engine which I hit while developing my app that is the one I think will make me move out of App Engine... that's simply to much to all the time think how to win with GAE problems than how to solve my application problems... Any help? Regards Konrad

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• Adapt beginner C# SQL Server INSERT example to work with my database

  - by Mike Bertelsen

  I have read TONS of tutorials, articles and whatever regarding my issue and honestly, due to my lack of experience I can't twist my fingers around this one so I hope some of you guys can help me out :) I am working on a project (simply to learn how to program so it's probably very basic), but I have this "News" page where I can update and delete data using a GridView. Now I would like to INSERT something into my database using 3 textboxes and 1 submit button. I have 3 rows that has to be inserted: Headline Date Content/the news itself. Which are stored under NyhedTB from the connectionstring: BoligStjernenConnectionString My query looks like this: INSERT INTO [NyhedTB] ([NyhedDato], [NyhedTitel], [NyhedTekst]) VALUES (@NyhedDato, @NyhedTitel, @NyhedTekst) I read on the internet that this code should do the magic for me (I will have to insert my own values ofc.): static void Insert() { try { string connectionString = "server=.;" + "initial catalog=employee;" + "user id=sa;" + "password=sa123"; using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO EmployeeDetails VALUES(" + "@Id, @Name, @Address)", conn)) { cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Id", 1); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Name", "Amal Hashim"); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Address", "Bangalore"); int rows = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); //rows number of record got inserted } } } catch (SqlException ex) { //Log exception //Display Error message } } I looked at this code and thought it should be easy enough but really, I can't figure it out.

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• Dreamweaver and GZIP files

  - by Vian Esterhuizen

  Hi, I've recently tried to optimize my site for speed and brandwith. Amongst many other techniques, I've used GZIP on my .css and .js files. Using PuTTY I compressed the files on my site and then used: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP:Accept-encoding} gzip RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Konqueror RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}.gz -f RewriteRule ^(.*)\.css$ $1.css.gz [QSA,L] RewriteRule ^(.*)\.js$ $1.js.gz [QSA,L] <FilesMatch \.css\.gz$> ForceType text/css </FilesMatch> <FilesMatch \.js\.gz$> ForceType text/javascript </FilesMatch> </IfModule> <IfModule mod_mime.c> AddEncoding gzip .gz </IfModule> in my .htaccess file so that they get served properly because all my links are without the ".gz". My problem is, I cant work on the GZIP file in Dreamweaver. Is there a plugin or extension of somesort that allows Dreamweaver to temporarily uncompress thses files so it can read them? Or is there a way that I can work on my local copies as regular files, and server side they automatically get compressed when they are uploaded. Or is there a different code editor I should be using that would completely get around this? Or a just a different technique to doing this? I hope this question makes sense, Thanks

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• SQL - Count grouped entries and then get the max values grouped by date

  - by Marcus

  hello, I am out of any logic how to write the right sql statment. I've got a sqlite table holding every played track in a row with played date/time Now I will count the plays of all artists, grouped by day and then find the artist with the max playcount per day. I used this Query SELECT COUNT(ARTISTID) AS artistcount, ARTIST AS artistname,strftime('%Y-%m-%d', playtime) AS day_played FROM playcount GROUP BY artistname to get this result "93"|"The Skygreen Leopards"|"2010-06-16" "2" |"Arcade Fire" |"2010-06-15" "2" |"Dead Kennedys" |"2010-06-15" "2" |"Wolf People" |"2010-06-15" "3" |"16 Horsepower" |"2010-06-15" "3" |"Alela Diane" |"2010-06-15" "46"|"Motorama" |"2010-06-15" "1" |"Ariel Pink's Haunted" |"2010-06-14" I tried then to query this virtual table but I always get false results in artistname. SELECT MAX(artistcount), artistname , day_played FROM ( SELECT COUNT(ARTISTID) AS artistcount, ARTIST AS artistname,strftime('%Y-%m-%d', playtime) AS day_played FROM playcount GROUP BY artistname ) GROUP BY strftime('%Y-%m-%d',day_played) result in this "93"|"lilium" |"2010-06-16" "46"|"Wolf People"|"2010-06-15" "30"|"of Montreal"|"2010-06-14" but the artist name is false. I think through the grouping by day, it just use the last artist, or so. I tested stuff like INNER JOIN or GROUP BY ... HAVING in trial and error, I read examples of similar issues but always get lost in columnnames and stuff (I am a bit burned out) I hope someone can give me a hint. thanks m

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• [FLASH CS4] Button acting as a scroll with mouse event in AS3?

  - by Ivan

  Hi all! I'm new here, just found these forums on Google. First of all, I want to appologise if there is some topics like this, but I searched whole forums and didn't find any that finishes my problem. Now the important one. As I stated in topic title, I need an AS3 code that's doing the thing. This is what I want to accomplish. I have a MC(image) in the center of my screen, and have two buttons, one on right and one on left side of that MC. I want to scroll (image is like a menu) that MC left or right on mouse events, down or over. So, I just want to change MCs X value while holding mouse button on buttons or just hovering over them. I have managed to do that, but it's only moving by one value I have entered after a mouse event. Here's a piece of code I did. buttonL1_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, buttonL1Pressed); function buttonL1Pressed(event:MouseEvent):void{ var temp:int = 0; var temp1:int = 0; temp = paleta1_mc.x; temp1 = temp - 5; paleta1_mc.x = temp1; trace(temp1); } I hope you understood me, and have a clue how to help me with this. Thank you very much in advance! Cheers, Ivan

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