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  • How to create custom pages (Drupal 6.x)

    - by jc70
    In the template.php file I inserted the code below: I found a tutorial online that gives the code, but I'm confused on how to get it to work. I copied the code below and inserted it into the template.php from the theme HTML5_base. I duplicated the page.tpl.php file and created custom pages -- page-gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. I inserted some text to the files just see that I've navigated to the pages w/ the changes. It looks like Drupal is not recognizing gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. In the template.php there are the following functions: html5_base_preprocess_page() html5_base_preprocess_node() html5_base_preprocess_block() In the tutorial it uses these functions: phptemplate_preprocess_page() phptemplate_preprocess_block() phptemplate_preprocess_node() function phptemplate_preprocess_page(&$vars) { //code block from the Drupal handbook //the path module is required and must be activated if(module_exists('path')) { //gets the "clean" URL of the current page $alias = drupal_get_path_alias($_GET['q']); $suggestions = array(); $template_filename = 'page'; foreach(explode('/', $alias) as $path_part) { $template_filename = $template_filename.'-'.$path_part; $suggestions[] = $template_filename; } $vars['template_files'] = $suggestions; } } function phptemplate_preprocess_node(&$vars) { //default template suggestions for all nodes $vars['template_files'] = array(); $vars['template_files'][] = 'node'; //individual node being displayed if($vars['page']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-page'; } //multiple nodes being displayed on one page in either teaser //or full view else { //template suggestions for nodes in general $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid; //template suggestions for nodes in teaser view //more granular control if($vars['teaser']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-teaser'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-teaser'; } } } function phptemplate_preprocess_block(&$vars) { //the "cleaned-up" block title to be used for suggestion file name $subject = str_replace(" ", "-", strtolower($vars['block']->subject)); $vars['template_files'] = array('block', 'block-'.$vars['block']->delta, 'block-'.$subject); }

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  • High Runtime for Dictionary.Add for a large amount of items

    - by aaginor
    Hi folks, I have a C#-Application that stores data from a TextFile in a Dictionary-Object. The amount of data to be stored can be rather large, so it takes a lot of time inserting the entries. With many items in the Dictionary it gets even worse, because of the resizing of internal array, that stores the data for the Dictionary. So I initialized the Dictionary with the amount of items that will be added, but this has no impact on speed. Here is my function: private Dictionary<IdPair, Edge> AddEdgesToExistingNodes(HashSet<NodeConnection> connections) { Dictionary<IdPair, Edge> resultSet = new Dictionary<IdPair, Edge>(connections.Count); foreach (NodeConnection con in connections) { ... resultSet.Add(nodeIdPair, newEdge); } return resultSet; } In my tests, I insert ~300k items. I checked the running time with ANTS Performance Profiler and found, that the Average time for resultSet.Add(...) doesn't change when I initialize the Dictionary with the needed size. It is the same as when I initialize the Dictionary with new Dictionary(); (about 0.256 ms on average for each Add). This is definitely caused by the amount of data in the Dictionary (ALTHOUGH I initialized it with the desired size). For the first 20k items, the average time for Add is 0.03 ms for each item. Any idea, how to make the add-operation faster? Thanks in advance, Frank

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  • How to retrieve the Description property from SettingsProperty?

    - by BadNinja
    For each item in my application's settings, I've added text to its Description Property which I want to retrieve at runtime. I'm sure I'm missing some basic logical nuance here, but everything I've tried has failed. Clearly, my understanding of what value needs to be passed to the Attributes property of the SettingsProperty class is wrong. I'm further confused by the fact that when I iterate through all they keys returned by SettingsProperty.Attributes.Keys, I can see "System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute", but when I pass that string in as the key to the Attributes property, null is returned. Any insight into how to properly retrieve the value Description Property would be very much appreciated. Thanks. :) public void MyMethod() { SettingsPropertyCollection MyAppProperties = Properties.Settings.Default.Properties; IEnumerator enumerator = MyAppProperties.GetEnumerator(); // Iterate through all the keys to see what we have.... while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; ICollection myKeys = property.Attributes.Keys; foreach (object theKey in myKeys) System.Diagnostics.Debug.Print(theKey.ToString()); // One of the keys returned is: System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute } enumerator.Reset(); while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; string propertyValue = property.DefaultValue.ToString(); // This fails: Null Reference string propertyDescription = property.Attributes["System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute"].ToString(); // Do stuff with strings... } }

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  • Call method immediately after object construction in LINQ query

    - by Steffen
    I've got some objects which implement this interface: public interface IRow { void Fill(DataRow dr); } Usually when I select something out of db, I go: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRows { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); foreach (DataRow dr in table.Rows) { IRow row = new MySQLRow(); // Disregard the MySQLRow type, it's not important row.Fill(dr); yield return row; } } Now with .Net 4, I'd like to use AsParallel, and thus LINQ. I've done some testing on it, and it speeds up things alot (IRow.Fill uses Reflection, so it's hard on the CPU) Anyway my problem is, how do I go about creating a LINQ query, which calls Fills as part of the query, so it's properly parallelized? For testing performance I created a constructor which took the DataRow as argument, however I'd really love to avoid this if somehow possible. With the constructor in place, it's obviously simple enough: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRowsParallel { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); return from DataRow dr in table.Rows.AsParallel() select new MySQLRow(dr); } However like I said, I'd really love to be able to just stuff my Fill method into the LINQ query, and thus not need the constructor overload.

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  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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  • C# - Referencing a type in a dynamically generated assembly

    - by Ashley
    I'm trying to figure out if it's possible when you are dynamically generating assemblies, to reference a type in a previously dynamically generated assembly. For example: using System; using System.CodeDom.Compiler; using System.Reflection; using Microsoft.CSharp; CodeDomProvider provider = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); parameters.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results = provider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, @" namespace Dynamic { public class A { } } "); Assembly assem = results.CompiledAssembly; CodeDomProvider provider2 = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters parameters2 = new CompilerParameters(); parameters2.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(assem.FullName); parameters2.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results2 = provider2.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, @" namespace Dynamic { public class B : A { } } "); if (results2.Errors.HasErrors) { foreach (CompilerError error in results2.Errors) { Console.WriteLine(error.ErrorText); } } else { Assembly assem2 = results2.CompiledAssembly; } This code prints the following on the console: The type or namespace name 'A' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I've tried it lots of different ways, but nothing seems to be working. Am I missing something? Is this even possible?

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  • How do you pass a BitmapImage from a background thread to the UI thread in WPF?

    - by DanM
    I have a background thread that generates a series of BitmapImage objects. Each time the background thread finishes generating a bitmap, I would like to show this bitmap to the user. The problem is figuring out how to pass the BitmapImage from the background thread to the UI thread. This is an MVVM project, so my view has an Image element: <Image Source="{Binding GeneratedImage}" /> My view-model has a property GeneratedImage: private BitmapImage _generatedImage; public BitmapImage GeneratedImage { get { return _generatedImage; } set { if (value == _generatedImage) return; _generatedImage= value; RaisePropertyChanged("GeneratedImage"); } } My view-model also has the code that creates the background thread: public void InitiateGenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { ThreadStart generatorThreadStarter = delegate { GenerateImages(coordinates); }; var generatorThread = new Thread(generatorThreadStarter); generatorThread.ApartmentState = ApartmentState.STA; generatorThread.IsBackground = true; generatorThread.Start(); } private void GenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { foreach (var coordinate in coordinates) { var backgroundThreadImage = GenerateImage(coordinate); // I'm stuck here...how do I pass this to the UI thread? } } I'd like to somehow pass backgroundThreadImage to the UI thread, where it will become uiThreadImage, then set GeneratedImage = uiThreadImage so the view can update. I've looked at some examples dealing with the WPF Dispatcher, but I can't seem to come up with an example that addresses this issue. Please advise.

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  • how to reapply knockout binding

    - by MikeW
    Currently I have a knockout binding that stripes rows in a list which works fine ko.bindingHandlers.stripe = { update: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor) { var value = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(valueAccessor()); //creates the dependency var allBindings = allBindingsAccessor(); var even = allBindings.evenClass; var odd = allBindings.oddClass; //update odd rows $(element).children(":nth-child(odd)").addClass(odd).removeClass(even); //update even rows $(element).children(":nth-child(even)").addClass(even).removeClass(odd); ; } } Triggered from <button data-bind="click: addWidget" style="display:none">Add Item</button> The problem I have is when reloading data from the server , I call addWidget() manually in the view model the stripe binding handler is not applied - all rows appear as same color, if I click the html button then the binding happens and stripes appear var ViewModel = function() { self.addWidget(); }); Is it possible to reapply this custom binding manually in js? Thanks Edit: The stripe binding gets applied like so <div data-bind="foreach: widgets, stripe: widgets, evenClass: 'light', oddClass: 'dark'">

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  • Merge the sub array if it has the save id value?

    - by sophie
    I have an array and I want to merge the sub array that have the same id value together: <?php $a = Array( Array ( "id" => 1, "id_categorie" => 1, "nb" => 18 ), Array ( "id" => 1, "id_categorie" => 8, "nb" => 14 ), Array ( "id" => 2, "id_categorie" => 10, "nb" => 15 ) ); $result = array(); foreach ($a as $k=>$v){ $result[$v['id']] =$v; } echo '<pre>'; print_r($result); echo '</pre>'; ?> I GOT: Array ( [1] => Array ( [id] => 1 [id_categorie] => 8 [nb] => 14 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 2 [id_categorie] => 10 [nb] => 15 ) ) BUT WHAT I WANT IS : Array ( [1] => Array ( Array ( "id_categorie" => 1, "nb" => 18 ), Array ( "id_categorie" => 8, "nb" => 14 ) ) [2] => Array ( [id_categorie] => 10 [nb] => 15 ) ) Anyone could tell me how to do this? thanks

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  • C# Regex - Match and replace, Auto Increment

    - by Marc Still
    I have been toiling with a problem and any help would be appreciated. Problem: I have a paragraph and I want to replace a variable which appears several times (Variable = @Variable). This is the easy part, but the portion which I am having difficulty is trying to replace the variable with different values. I need for each occurrence to have a different value. For instance, I have a function that does a calculation for each variable. What I have thus far is below: private string SetVariables(string input, string pattern){ Regex rx = new Regex(pattern); MatchCollection matches = rx.Matches(input); int i = 1; if(matches.Count > 0) { foreach(Match match in matches) { rx.Replace(match.ToString(), getReplacementNumber(i)); i++ } } I am able to replace each variable that I need to with the number returned from getReplacementNumber(i) function, but how to I put it back into my original input with the replaced values, in the same order found in the match collection? Thanks in advance! Marcus

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  • Encapsulate update method inside of object or have method which accepts an object to update

    - by Tom
    Hi, I actually have 2 questions related to each other: I have an object (class) called, say MyClass which holds data from my database. Currently I have a list of these objects ( List < MyClass ) that resides in a singleton in a "communal area". I feel it's easier to manage the data this way and I fail to see how passing a class around from object to object is beneficial over a singleton (I would be happy if someone can tell me why). Anyway, the data may change in the database from outside my program and so I have to update the data every so often. To update the list of the MyClass I have a method called say, Update, written in another class which accepts a list of MyClass. This updates all the instances of MyClass in the list. However would it be better instead to encapulate the Update() method inside the MyClass object, so instead I would say foreach(MyClass obj in MyClassList) { obj.update(); } What is a better implementation and why? The update method requires a XML reader. I have written an XML reader class which is basically a wrapper over the standard XML reader the language natively provides which provides application specific data collection. Should the XML reader class be in anyway in the "inheritance path" of the MyClass object - the MyClass objects inherits from the XML reader because it uses a few methods. I can't see why it should. I don't like the idea of declaring an instance of the XML Reader class inside of MyClass and an MyClass object is meant to be a simple "record" from the database and I feel giving it loads of methods, other object instances is a bit messy. Perhaps my XML reader class should be static but C#'s native XMLReader isn't static.? Any comments would be greatly appreciated Thanks Thomas

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  • How should I organize my mvc templates?

    - by CatZ
    Hi, In the new version of MVC we have been given display and editor templates. I was wondering how to make the best possible use of these. I was at first thinking in the line of creating one for a collection and one for an item in the case I want to display either as a list or single but it does not really make sense to me. I'll show you what I mean and please comment if this is wrong. I have trouble figuring it out myself. <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<DisplayPhoneModel>>" %> <% foreach (var item in Model){%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => item) %> <%}%> So in my tiny reality that would for every item in the model search for a display template for DisplayPhoneModel. That display template could then simply look like. <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<DisplayPhoneModel>" %> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.PhoneType) %>&nbsp;<%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.PhoneNumber) %> So, question is if there is a better way to handle this? Am I at all on the right path?

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  • .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

    - by Miles
    I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

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  • Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

    - by Sid
    We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

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  • Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

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  • Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

    - by John
    I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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  • How to not cache a php file where a cachemanifest is beeing called?

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm building a iphone app with jqtouch and i use a cachemanifest to cache all the static files (images, css, javascript) to make it load faster. However the page uses php for the dynamic content and i don't want to cache that. So i'm generating the cachemanifest with this php-script(manifest.php): <?php header('Content-Type: text/cache-manifest'); echo "CACHE MANIFEST\n"; $hashes = ""; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; $dir = new RecursiveDirectoryIterator("."); foreach(new RecursiveIteratorIterator($dir) as $file) { if ($file->IsFile() && $file != "./manifest.php" && substr($file->getFilename(), 0, 1) != ".") { if(preg_match('/.php$/', $file)) { if(!$lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nNETWORK:\n"; } $lastFileWasDynamic = TRUE; } else { if($lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nCACHE:\n"; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; } } echo $file . "\n"; $hashes .= md5_file($file); } } echo "\nNETWORK:\nhttp://chart.apis.google.com/\n\n# Hash: " . md5($hashes) . "\n"; ?> This actually works really good except for one irritating thing: From what i read somewhere the file that calls the cachemanifest is automaticly included in the manifest and is beeing cached. Wich means that my start-page index.php, where i call the cachemanifest is beeing cached. This leads to very irritating problems. is there any way to deal with this or any smart workaround? The page is in the cachemanifest listed as NETWORK, but it looks like this is beeing overruled by the fact that the cachemanifest is called from the file.

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  • How do I link one listview to another to create a football league table?

    - by Richard Nixon
    Hi I am creating a football system in windows forms c#. I have one listview where data is entered. I have 4 columns, 2 with team names linked to combo boxes and 2 with the scores linked to numericupdown controls. There are 3 buttons to add the results, Remove and clear. the code is below: private void addButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { { ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(comboBox1.SelectedItem.ToString()); item.SubItems.Add(numericUpDown1.Value.ToString()); item.SubItems.Add(numericUpDown2.Value.ToString()); item.SubItems.Add(comboBox2.SelectedItem.ToString()); listView1.Items.Add(item); } } private void clearButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { listView1.Items.Clear(); } private void removeButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (ListViewItem itemSelected in listView1.SelectedItems) { listView1.Items.Remove(itemSelected); } } I have another listview that i want to link the first one to. The second one is a usual english football league table and i want to use maths to add up the games played and the points etc. please help. cheers

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  • placing pop up based on the mouse position(x,y)RSS Feed

    - by prince23
    hi, right now i am showing pop at the botton of the screen. i need to change them according to the value(x,y) whhere i have moved the mouse here i need to get the MouseEventArgs e postion that is its x:value and y:value based on that i need to place the pop up in the screen i need to get the mouse x, y postion? is it possiable to get its value? private void DG_LoadingRow(object sender, DataGridRowEventArgs e) { DataGridRow row = e.Row; int index = 0; foreach (DataGridColumn colGrid in DG.Columns) { if(colGrid .Header == "ID" || colGrid .Header == "Name") { FrameworkElement cellContent = colGrid .GetCellContent(e.Row); DataGridCell cell = cellContent.Parent as DataGridCell; cell.MouseEnter -= cell_MouseEnter; cell.MouseEnter += new MouseEventHandler(cell_MouseEnter); cell.MouseLeave -= cell_MouseLeave; cell.MouseLeave += new MouseEventHandler(cell_MouseLeave); } } } void cell_MouseLeave(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { //Hide your popup } void cell_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { **// here i need to get the mouse position that is its x,y value based on that i can place my modal pop up in that postion. my pop is defined in xaml page here i will be assigning only its position where i need to place my modal pop up.** //

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  • PHP MySQL Weird Update Problem

    - by Tim
    I have a heap based table in MySQL that I am trying to update via PHP, but for some reason, the updates do not seem to be taking place. Here is my test code: <?php $freepoints[] = 1; $freepoints[] = 2; $freepoints[] = 3; foreach ($freepoints as $entrypoint) { $query = "update gates set lane='{$entrypoint}' where traffic > 50 limit 50"; echo "$query\n"; mysql_query($query); echo mysql_affected_rows()."\n"; } ?> This outputs the following: update gates set lane='1' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 update gates set lane='2' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 update gates set lane='3' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 In the database to start with lanes 1/2/3 had 0 records and lanes 4/5/6 had 100 records. From this I am expecting all 6 lanes to now have 50 records each. However when I look lanes 4/5/6 still have 100 records and 1/2/3 still have 0 records. When I copy the query "update gates set lane='1' where traffic 50 limit 50" into phpMyAdmin it works absolutely fine, so any ideas why it isn't working in my PHP script when mysql_affected_rows is saying it has updated 50 records?

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  • I made a horrible loop.... help fix my logic please

    - by Webnet
    I know I'm doing this a bad way... but I'm having trouble seeing any alternatives. I have an array of products that I need to select 4 of randomly. $rawUpsellList is an array of all of the possible upsells based off of the items in their cart. Each value is a product object. I know this is horribly ugly code but I don't see an alternative now.... someone please put me out of my misery so this code doesn't make it to production..... $rawUpsellList = array(); foreach ($tru->global->cart->getItemList() as $item) { $product = $item->getProduct(); $rawUpsellList = array_merge($rawUpsellList, $product->getUpsellList()); } $upsellCount = count($rawUpsellList); $showItems = 4; if ($upsellCount < $showItems) { $showItems = $upsellCount; } $maxLoop = 20; $upsellList = array(); for ($x = 0; $x <= $showItems; $x++) { $key = rand(0, $upsellCount); if (!array_key_exists($key, $upsellList) && is_object($rawUpsellList[$key])) { $upsellList[$key] = $rawUpsellList[$key]; $x++; } if ($x == $maxLoop) { break; } } Posting this code was highly embarassing...

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  • @attribute elements in XML

    - by danit
    Here is my XML: ["link"]=> array(2) { [0]=> object(SimpleXMLElement)#244 (1) { ["@attributes"]=> array(3) { ["type"]=> string(9) "text/html" ["href"]=> string(48) "http://twitter.com/MoodleDan/statuses/1226112723" ["rel"]=> string(9) "alternate" } } [1]=> object(SimpleXMLElement)#245 (1) { ["@attributes"]=> array(3) { ["type"]=> string(9) "image/png" ["href"]=> string(59) "http://a3.twimg.com/profile_images/226895523/Dan_normal.png" ["rel"]=> string(5) "image" } } } ["author"]=> object(SimpleXMLElement)#246 (2) { ["name"]=> string(14) "Dan Humpherson" ["uri"]=> string(16) "http://vl3.co.uk" } The above XML is part of a larger array, but how do i get the href -> ["href"]=> string(59) "http://a3.twimg.com/profile_images/226895523/Dan_normal.png" Element to echo in PHP? This is what I tried (Wrong I know) foreach ($entry->link as $img) { echo $img->href; echo "<img src='". $img ."' />"; }

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  • Selenium RC: How to assert an element contains text and any number of other elements?

    - by Andrew
    I am using Selenium RC and the PHPUnit Selenium Extension. I am trying to assert that a table row exists, with the content that I expect, while making it flexible enough to be reused. Thanks to this article, I figured out a way to select the table row, asserting that it contains all the text that I expect. $this->assertElementPresent("css=tr:contains(\"$text1\"):contains(\"$text2\")"); But now I would like to assert that a specific radio button appears in the table row also. Here's the element that I would like to assert that is within the table row. (I am currently asserting that it exists using XPath. I'm sure I could do the same using CSS). $this->assertElementPresent("//input[@type='radio'][@name='Contact_ID'][@value='$contactId']"); Currently I have a function that can assert that a table row exists which contains any number of texts, but I would like to add the ability to specify any number of elements and have it assert that the table row contains them. How can I achieve this? /** * Provides the ability to assert that all of the text appear in the same table row. * @param array $texts */ public function assertTextPresentInTableRow(array $texts) { $locator = 'css=tr'; foreach ($texts as $text) { $locator .= ":contains(\"$text\")"; } $this->assertElementPresent($locator); }

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  • PHPExcel reading columns

    - by user1270150
    I am new to using the PHPExcel and am struggling to implement a basic reader that can be used to read only specified columns, with all rows from a spreadsheet into an array, which I would like to present in a webpage. After reading the supplied documentation and examples, I am struggling to wrap my head round the implementation of a number of examples, so any help would be much appreciated. I am using the following code to get the contents of the default worksheet into an array: for ($row = 2; $row <= $highestRow; $row++) { $dataRow = $objWorksheet->rangeToArray('A'.$row.':'.$highestColumn.$row,null, true, true, true); if ((isset($dataRow[$row]['A'])) && ($dataRow[$row]['A'] > '')) { ++$r; foreach($headingsArray as $columnKey => $columnHeading) { $columnHeading = rtrim($columnHeading); $columnHeading = preg_replace('/\s+/', ' ',$columnHeading); $columnHeading = preg_replace('/\ /', '_',$columnHeading); $columnHeading = strtolower($columnHeading); $namedDataArray[$r][$columnHeading] = $dataRow[$row][$columnKey]; } } } Above code reads through all the columns and rows and builds and array, but I would like to be able to add a configuration array that will declare columns that should be read...sure this is possible, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • paypal sadbox IPN

    - by Phil Jackson
    Morning all. I am trying to test a SIMPLE php script to deal with the IPN response from paypal sandbox. <?php // read the post from PayPal system and add 'cmd' $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($post as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('ssl://www.sandbox.paypal.com/', 443, $errno, $errstr, 30); if ( !$fp ) { // HTTP ERROR $fp = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp, "false !fp - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp); } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! $fp2 = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp2, "true - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp2); } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! $fp2 = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp2, "false - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp2); } } fclose ($fp); } ?> When I click on "send IPN" in the test ac"IPN successfully sent". when I look at the file that I created to check the vars it begins with "false !fp" yet still displays all the vars. Can anyone see whats happening and how I go about fixing. Regards, Phil

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