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  • Does weak typing offer any advantages?

    - by sub
    Don't confuse this with static vs. dynamic typing! You all know JavaScripts/PHPs infamous type systems: PHP example: echo "123abc"+2; // 125 - the reason for this is explained // in the PHP docs but still: This hurts echo "4"+1; // 5 - Oh please echo "ABC"*5; // 0 - WTF // That's too much, seriously now. // This here might be actually a use for weak typing, but no - // it has to output garbage. JavaScript example: // A good old JavaScript, maybe you'll do better? alert("4"+1); // 51 - Oh come on. alert("abc"*3); // NaN - What the... // Have your creators ever heard of the word "consistence"? Python example: # Python's type system is actually a mix # It spits errors on senseless things like the first example below AND # allows intelligent actions like the second example. >>> print("abc"+1) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#2>", line 1, in <module> print("abc"+1) TypeError: Can't convert 'int' object to str implicitly >>> print("abc"*5) abcabcabcabcabc Ruby example: puts 4+"1" // Type error - as supposed puts "abc"*4 // abcabcabcabc - makes sense After these examples it should be clear that PHP/JavaScript probably have the most inconsistent type systems out there. This is a fact and really not subjective. Now when having a closer look at the type systems of Ruby and Python it seems like they are having a much more intelligent and consistent type system. I think these examples weren't really necessary as we all know that PHP/JavaScript have a weak and Python/Ruby have a strong type system. I just wanted to mention why I'm asking this. Now I have two questions: When looking at those examples, what are the advantages of PHPs and JavaScripts type systems? I can only find downsides: They are inconsistent and I think we know that this is not good Types conversions are hardly controllable Bugs are more likely to happen and much harder to spot Do you prefer one of the both systems? Why? Personally I have worked with PHP, JavaScript and Python so far and must say that Pythons type system has really only advantages over PHPs and JavaScripts. Does anybody here not think so? Why then?

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  • Asp.net MVC VirtualPathProvider views parse error

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, I am working on a plugin system for Asp.net MVC 2. I have a dll containing controllers and views as embedded resources. I scan the plugin dlls for controller using StructureMap and I then can pull them out and instantiate them when requested. This works fine. I then have a VirtualPathProvider which I adapted from this post public class AssemblyResourceProvider : VirtualPathProvider { protected virtual string WidgetDirectory { get { return "~/bin"; } } private bool IsAppResourcePath(string virtualPath) { var checkPath = VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(virtualPath); return checkPath.StartsWith(WidgetDirectory, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase); } public override bool FileExists(string virtualPath) { return (IsAppResourcePath(virtualPath) || base.FileExists(virtualPath)); } public override VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { return IsAppResourcePath(virtualPath) ? new AssemblyResourceVirtualFile(virtualPath) : base.GetFile(virtualPath); } public override CacheDependency GetCacheDependency(string virtualPath, IEnumerable virtualPathDependencies, DateTime utcStart) { return IsAppResourcePath(virtualPath) ? null : base.GetCacheDependency(virtualPath, virtualPathDependencies, utcStart); } } internal class AssemblyResourceVirtualFile : VirtualFile { private readonly string path; public AssemblyResourceVirtualFile(string virtualPath) : base(virtualPath) { path = VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(virtualPath); } public override Stream Open() { var parts = path.Split('/'); var resourceName = Path.GetFileName(path); var apath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(Path.GetDirectoryName(path)); var assembly = Assembly.LoadFile(apath); return assembly != null ? assembly.GetManifestResourceStream(assembly.GetManifestResourceNames().SingleOrDefault(s => string.Compare(s, resourceName, true) == 0)) : null; } } The VPP seems to be working fine also. The view is found and is pulled out into a stream. I then receive a parse error Could not load type 'System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<dynamic>'. which I can't find mentioned in any previous example of pluggable views. Why would my view not compile at this stage? Thanks for any help, Ian EDIT: Getting closer to an answer but not quite clear why things aren't compiling. Based on the comments I checked the versions and everything is in V2, I believe dynamic was brought in at V2 so this is fine. I don't even have V3 installed so it can't be that. I have however got the view to render, if I remove the <dynamic> altogether. So a VPP works but only if the view is not strongly typed or dynamic This makes sense for the strongly typed scenario as the type is in the dynamically loaded dll so the viewengine will not be aware of it, even though the dll is in the bin. Is there a way to load types at app start? Considering having a go with MEF instead of my bespoke Structuremap solution. What do you think?

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  • Safari/Chrome problem with ajaxsubmit?

    - by Jan
    Hi I'm currently having some weird issues with ajaxsubmit (http://jquery.malsup.com/form/#ajaxSubmit), which I'm currently using in a project. I have a flow where I need to open a form into a modal window. I'm using fancybox for that and it works like a charm. When the form has been forced to open in the fancybox window there can happen two things. 1) If the user who is about to submit the form is logged in she should see a confirmation in the modal box, that her input was succesfully submitted 2)If the user is not logged in there should be loaded a login form once she hits the submit button 2.1) When the user has logged in she should receive a confirmation in the modal box. This is also working like a charm in Firefox, IE8 and IE7 but not in Safari or Chrome. The weird part is that it seems like safari and chrome are completely ignoring my ajaxsubmit form. To force the first form to be opened I use the follwoing script - this part is working in both Safari and Chrome. $(".klikEnPrisForm").ajaxForm({ success: function(data){ $.fancybox({'content':data}); } }); My ajaxsubmit form scrip looks like this var options = { url: '/?altTemplate=XmlProxyKlikEnPris', dataType: 'xml', data: $(this).serializeArray(), success: function(data) { if ($(data).find('loggetind').text() == 'true') { $("#klikenpris").hide(); $('<div id="fancybox-inner-klik"></div>').appendTo('#fancybox-inner'); $('#fancybox-inner-klik').load('/KlikEnPrisAccept?tilKvittering=1&sagsno=' + $(data).find('sagsnummer').text() + '&pris=' + $(data).find('pris').text() + '&klik-comment=' + $(data).find('kommentar').text() + '&klik-telefon=' + $(data).find('tlf').text() + '&klik-maeglerkontakt=' + $(data).find('maakontakte').text()).stop(true, true); } else { $("#klikenpris").hide(); $("#fancybox-wrap").css({ 'width': '480px', 'height': '220px' }); $("#fancybox-inner").css({ 'width': '460px', 'height': '220px' }); $('<div id="fancybox-inner-klik"></div>').appendTo('#fancybox-inner'); $('#fancybox-inner-klik').load('/login.aspx?loginklikpris=0&klikpris=1&sagsno=' + $(data).find('sagsnummer').text() + '&pris=' + $(data).find('pris').text() + '&klik-comment=' + $(data).find('kommentar').text() + '&klik-telefon=' + $(data).find('tlf').text() + '&klik-maeglerkontakt=' + $(data).find('maakontakte').text()).stop(true, true); } } }; // bind to the form's submit event $('#klikenprisform').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); // !!! Important !!! // always return false to prevent standard browser submit and page navigation return false; }); I have tried inserting an alert in the succes callback function but it's never being called it seems. It seems like the default action is not being overruled by the link written in the "url" in ajaxsubmit. I'm really puzzled about this, since it's working nicely in other browsers and I'm completely lost on how I should approach the debugging in safari/chrome. I hope all the above makes sense and I'm looking forward to hear any suggestions. Cheers!

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  • C# searching for new Tool for the tool box, how to template this code

    - by Nix
    All i have something i have been trying to do for a while and have yet to find a good strategy to do it, i am not sure C# can even support what i am trying to do. Example imagine a template like this, repeated in manager code overarching cocept function Returns a result consisting of a success flag and error list. public Result<Boolean> RemoveLocation(LocationKey key) { List<Error> errorList = new List<Error>(); Boolean result = null; try{ result = locationDAO.RemoveLocation(key); }catch(UpdateException ue){ //Error happened less pass this back to the user! errorList = ue.ErrorList; } return new Result<Boolean>(result, errorList); } Looking to turn it into a template like the below where Do Something is some call (preferably not static) that returns a Boolean. I know i could do this in a stack sense, but i am really looking for a way to do it via object reference. public Result<Boolean> RemoveLocation(LocationKey key) { var magic = locationDAO.RemoveLocation(key); return ProtectedDAOCall(magic); } public Result<Boolean> CreateLocation(LocationKey key) { var magic = locationDAO.CreateLocation(key); return ProtectedDAOCall(magic); } public Result<Boolean> ProtectedDAOCall(Func<..., bool> doSomething) { List<Error> errorList = new List<Error>(); Boolean result = null; try{ result = doSomething(); }catch(UpdateException ue){ //Error happened less pass this back to the user! errorList = ue.ErrorList; } return new Result<Boolean>(result, errorList); } If there is any more information you may need let me know. I am interested to see what someone else can come up with. Marc solution applied to the code above public Result<Boolean> CreateLocation(LocationKey key) { LocationDAO locationDAO = new LocationDAO(); return WrapMethod(() => locationDAO.CreateLocation(key)); } public Result<Boolean> RemoveLocation(LocationKey key) { LocationDAO locationDAO = new LocationDAO(); return WrapMethod(() => locationDAO.RemoveLocation(key)); } static Result<T> WrapMethod<T>(Func<Result<T>> func) { try { return func(); } catch (UpdateException ue) { return new Result<T>(default(T), ue.Errors); } }

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  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Help organising controllers logically

    - by kenny99
    Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

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  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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  • .NET XML Serialization without <?xml> root node

    - by Graphain
    Hi, I'm trying to generate XML like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE APIRequest SYSTEM "https://url"> <APIRequest> <Head> <Key>123</Key> </Head> <ObjectClass> <Field>Value</Field </ObjectClass> </APIRequest> I have a class (ObjectClass) decorated with XMLSerialization attributes like this: [XmlRoot("ObjectClass")] public class ObjectClass { [XmlElement("Field")] public string Field { get; set; } } And my really hacky intuitive thought to just get this working is to do this when I serialize: ObjectClass inst = new ObjectClass(); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(inst.GetType(), ""); StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); w.WriteLine(@"<?xml version=""1.0""?>"); w.WriteLine("<!DOCTYPE APIRequest SYSTEM"); w.WriteLine(@"""https://url"">"); w.WriteLine("<APIRequest>"); w.WriteLine("<Head>"); w.WriteLine(@"<Field>Value</Field>"); w.WriteLine(@"</Head>"); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); serializer.Serialize(w, inst, ns); w.WriteLine("</APIRequest>"); However, this generates XML like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE APIRequest SYSTEM "https://url"> <APIRequest> <Head> <Key>123</Key> </Head> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <ObjectClass> <Field>Value</Field> </ObjectClass> </APIRequest> i.e. the serialize statement is automatically adding a <?xml root element. I know I'm attacking this wrong so can someone point me in the right direction? As a note, I don't think it will make practical sense to just make an APIRequest class with an ObjectClass in it (because there are say 20 different types of ObjectClass that each needs this boilerplate around them) but correct me if I'm wrong.

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  • Storing a set of criteria in another table

    - by bendataclear
    I have a large table with sales data, useful data below: RowID Date Customer Salesperson Product_Type Manufacturer Quantity Value 1 01-06-2004 James Ian Taps Tap Ltd 200 £850 2 02-06-2004 Apple Fran Hats Hats Inc 30 £350 3 04-06-2004 James Lawrence Pencils ABC Ltd 2000 £980 ... Many rows later... ... 185352 03-09-2012 Apple Ian Washers Tap Ltd 600 £80 I need to calculate a large set of targets from table containing values different types, target table is under my control and so far is like: TargetID Year Month Salesperson Target_Type Quantity 1 2012 7 Ian 1 6000 2 2012 8 James 2 2000 3 2012 9 Ian 2 6500 At present I am working out target types using a view of the first table which has a lot of extra columns: SELECT YEAR(Date) , MONTH(Date) , Salesperson , Quantity , CASE WHEN Manufacturer IN ('Tap Ltd','Hats Inc') AND Product_Type = 'Hats' THEN True ELSE False END AS IsType1 , CASE WHEN Manufacturer = 'Hats Inc' AND Product_Type IN ('Hats','Coats') THEN True ELSE False END AS IsType2 ... ... , CASE WHEN Manufacturer IN ('Tap Ltd','Hats Inc') AND Product_Type = 'Hats' THEN True ELSE False END AS IsType24 , CASE WHEN Manufacturer IN ('Tap Ltd','Hats Inc') AND Product_Type = 'Hats' THEN True ELSE False END AS IsType25 FROM SalesTable WHERE [some stuff here] This is horrible to read/debug and I hate it!! I've tried a few different ways of simplifying this but have been unable to get it to work. The closest I have come is to have a third table holding the definition of the types with the values for each field and the type number, this can be joined to the tables to give me the full values but I can't work out a way to cope with multiple values for each field. Finally the question: Is there a standard way this can be done or an easier/neater method other than one column for each type of target? I know this is a complex problem so if anything is unclear please let me know. Edit - What I need to get: At the very end of the process I need to have targets displayed with actual sales: Type Year Month Salesperson TargetQty ActualQty 2 2012 8 James 2000 2809 2 2012 9 Ian 6500 6251 Each row of the sales table could potentially satisfy 8 of the types. Some more points: I have 5 different columns that need to be defined against the targets (or set to NULL to include any value) I have between 30 and 40 different types that need to be defined, several of the columns could contain as many as 10 different values For point 2, if I am using a row for each permutation of values, 2 columns with 10 values each would give me 100 rows for each sales person for each month which is a lot but if this is the only way to define multiple values I will have to do this. Sorry if this makes no sense!

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  • How would you organize a large complex web application (see basic example)?

    - by Anurag
    How do you usually organize complex web applications that are extremely rich on the client side. I have created a contrived example to indicate the kind of mess it's easy to get into if things are not managed well for big apps. Feel free to modify/extend this example as you wish - http://jsfiddle.net/NHyLC/1/ The example basically mirrors part of the comment posting on SO, and follows the following rules: Must have 15 characters minimum, after multiple spaces are trimmed out to one. If Add Comment is clicked, but the size is less than 15 after removing multiple spaces, then show a popup with the error. Indicate amount of characters remaining and summarize with color coding. Gray indicates a small comment, brown indicates a medium comment, orange a large comment, and red a comment overflow. One comment can only be submitted every 15 seconds. If comment is submitted too soon, show a popup with appropriate error message. A couple of issues I noticed with this example. This should ideally be a widget or some sort of packaged functionality. Things like a comment per 15 seconds, and minimum 15 character comment belong to some application wide policies rather than being embedded inside each widget. Too many hard-coded values. No code organization. Model, Views, Controllers are all bundled together. Not that MVC is the only approach for organizing rich client side web applications, but there is none in this example. How would you go about cleaning this up? Applying a little MVC/MVP along the way? Here's some of the relevant functions, but it will make more sense if you saw the entire code on jsfiddle: /** * Handle comment change. * Update character count. * Indicate progress */ function handleCommentUpdate(comment) { var status = $('.comment-status'); status.text(getStatusText(comment)); status.removeClass('mild spicy hot sizzling'); status.addClass(getStatusClass(comment)); } /** * Is the comment valid for submission */ function commentSubmittable(comment) { var notTooSoon = !isTooSoon(); var notEmpty = !isEmpty(comment); var hasEnoughCharacters = !isTooShort(comment); return notTooSoon && notEmpty && hasEnoughCharacters; } // submit comment $('.add-comment').click(function() { var comment = $('.comment-box').val(); // submit comment, fake ajax call if(commentSubmittable(comment)) { .. } // show a popup if comment is mostly spaces if(isTooShort(comment)) { if(comment.length < 15) { // blink status message } else { popup("Comment must be at least 15 characters in length."); } } // show a popup is comment submitted too soon else if(isTooSoon()) { popup("Only 1 comment allowed per 15 seconds."); } });

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  • Occasional Date or timezone discrepancy in hudson or maven with jodatime

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I hope following explanation will make sense because it's a weird problem we're facing and hard to describe. We have a maven project which gets build in hudson and that contains some unit tests where dates are used and asserted. The hudson server runs on solaris. Now, occasionally (like 30% of the times) the unit tests using dates fail because 3,5 hours are deducted from the specified time in the unit test and hence asserts start failing. The other 70% everything works fine although nothing at all changed in the code and we run the hudson job several times an hour. I add following code to a unittest to check the time: @Test public void testDate() { System.out.println("new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate();"); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate()); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate().getTime()); Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.set(Calendar.YEAR, 2011); cal.set(Calendar.MONTH, 0); cal.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 5); cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 0); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MILLISECOND, 0); System.out.println("cal.getTime();"); System.out.println(cal.getTime()); System.out.println(cal.getTime().getTime()); } So basically it should print the same thing when using jodatime or plain old Calendar. This is the case in 70% of the runs; for the other 30% I get following printouts: Running TestSuite new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate(); Tue Jan 04 21:30:00 MET 2011 1294173000000 cal.getTime(); Wed Jan 05 12:00:00 MET 2011 1294225200000 Local maven tests never appear the pose this problem and we can't figure out what could be the cause of it. Especially, we can't think of a single reason why the tests sometimes pass and sometimes fail without changing any code nor hudson or server setting. Also, we run the maven install with cobertura which means that the unit tests are run twice. It happens also that they pass the first time and fail the second time or the other way around or that they fail both times. Thanks for any help, Stijn

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  • objective-c Add to/Edit .plist file

    - by Dave
    Does writeToFile:atomically, add data to an existing .plist? Is it possible to modify a value in a .plist ? SHould the app be recompiled to take effect the change? I have a custom .plist list in my app. The structure is as below: <array> <dict> <key>Title</key> <string>MyTitle</string> <key>Measurement</key> <dict> <key>prop1</key> <real>28.86392</real> <key>prop2</key> <real>75.12451</real> </dict> <key>Distance</key> <dict> <key>prop3</key> <real>37.49229</real> <key>prop4</key> <real>58.64502</real> </dict> </dict> </array> The array tag holds multiple items with same structure. I need to add items to the existing .plist. Is that possible? I can write a UIView to do just that, if so. *EDIT - OK, I just tried to writetofile hoping it would atleast overwrite if not add to it. Strangely, the following code selects different path while reading and writing. NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; The .plist file is in my project. I can read from it. When I write to it, it is creating a .plist file and saving it in my /users/.../library/! Does this make sense to anyone?

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  • Justifying UIVIews on the iPhone: Algorithm Help

    - by coneybeare
    I have been messing around with a way to justify align a collection of UIView subclasses within a containing view. I am having a little bit of trouble with the algorithm and was hoping someone could help spot my errors. Here is pseudocode of where I am now: // 1 see how many items there are int count = [items count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left in the containing view float whitespace = [containingView width] - [items totalWidth]; // 3 Figure out the extra left margin to be applied to items[1] through items[count-1] float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 Figure out the size of every subcontainer if it was evenly split float subcontainerWidth = [containingView width]/count; // 5 Apply the margin, starting at the second item for (int i = 1; i < [items count]; i++) { UIView *item = [items objectAtIndex:i]; [item setLeftMargin:(margin + i*subcontainerWidth)]; } The items do not appear to be evenly spaced here. Not even close. Where am I going wrong? Here is a shot of this algorithm in action: EDIT: The code above is pseudocode. I added the actual code here but it might not make sense if you are not familiar with the three20 project. @implementation TTTabStrip (JustifiedBarCategory) - (CGSize)layoutTabs { CGSize size = [super layoutTabs]; CGPoint contentOffset = _scrollView.contentOffset; _scrollView.frame = self.bounds; _scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(size.width + kTabMargin, self.height); CGFloat contentWidth = size.width + kTabMargin; if (contentWidth < _scrollView.size.width) { // do the justify logic // see how many items there are int count = [_tabViews count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left float whitespace = _scrollView.size.width - contentWidth; // 3 increase the margin on those items somehow to reflect. it should be (whitespace) / count-1 float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 figure out starting point float itemWidth = (_scrollView.size.width-kTabMargin)/count; // apply the margin for (int i = 1; i < [_tabViews count]; i++) { TTTab *tab = [_tabViews objectAtIndex:i]; [tab setLeft:(margin + i*itemWidth)]; } } else { // do the normal, scrollbar logic _scrollView.contentOffset = contentOffset; } return size; } @end

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  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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  • Securing a license key with RSA key.

    - by Jesse Knott
    Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

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  • Learning Treetop

    - by cmartin
    I'm trying to teach myself Ruby's Treetop grammar generator. I am finding that not only is the documentation woefully sparse for the "best" one out there, but that it doesn't seem to work as intuitively as I'd hoped. On a high level, I'd really love a better tutorial than the on-site docs or the video, if there is one. On a lower level, here's a grammar I cannot get to work at all: grammar SimpleTest rule num (float / integer) end rule float ( (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.' plain_digits) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits ('E' / 'e') plain_digits ) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.') / (( '+' / '-')? '.' plain_digits) ) { def eval text_value.to_f end } end rule integer (( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits) { def eval text_value.to_i end } end rule plain_digits [0-9] [0-9]* end end When I load it and run some assertions in a very simple test object, I find: assert_equal @parser.parse('3.14').eval,3.14 Works fine, while assert_equal @parser.parse('3').eval,3 raises the error: NoMethodError: private method `eval' called for # If I reverse integer and float on the description, both integers and floats give me this error. I think this may be related to limited lookahead, but I cannot find any information in any of the docs to even cover the idea of evaluating in the "or" context A bit more info that may help. Here's pp information for both those parse() blocks. The float: SyntaxNode+Float4+Float0 offset=0, "3.14" (eval,plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" SyntaxNode offset=1, "." SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=2, "14": SyntaxNode offset=2, "1" SyntaxNode offset=3, "4": SyntaxNode offset=3, "4" The Integer... note that it seems to have been defined to follow the integer rule, but not caught the eval() method: SyntaxNode+Integer0 offset=0, "3" (plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" Update: I got my particular problem working, but I have no clue why: rule integer ( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits { def eval text_value.to_i end } end This makes no sense with the docs that are present, but just removing the extra parentheses made the match include the Integer1 class as well as Integer0. Integer1 is apparently the class holding the eval() method. I have no idea why this is the case. I'm still looking for more info about treetop.

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  • SHAREPOINT: Custom Field type property storage defined for custom field

    - by Eric Rockenbach
    ok here is a great question. I have a set of generic custom fields that are highly configurable from an end user perspective and the configuration is getting overbearing as there are nearly 100 plus items each custom field allows you to perform in the areas of Server/Client Validation, Server/Client Events/Actions, Server/Client Bindings parent/child, display properties for form/control, etc, etc. Right now I'm storing most of these values as "Text" in my field xml for my propertyschema. I'm very familiar with the multi column value, but this is not a complex custom type in sense it's an array. I also considered creating serilzable objects and stuffing them into the text field and then pulling out and de-serilizing them when editing through the field editor or acting on the rules through the custom spfield. So I'm trying to take the following for example <PropertySchema> <Fields> <Field Name="EntityColumnName" Hidden="TRUE" DisplayName="EntityColumnName" MaxLength="500" DisplaySize="200" Type="Text"> <default></default> </Field> <Field Name="EntityColumnParentPK" Hidden="TRUE" DisplayName="EntityColumnParentPK" MaxLength="500" DisplaySize="200" Type="Text"> <default></default> </Field> <Field Name="EntityColumnValueName" Hidden="TRUE" DisplayName="EntityColumnValueName" MaxLength="500" DisplaySize="200" Type="Text"> <default></default> </Field> <Field Name="EntityListName" Hidden="TRUE" DisplayName="EntityListName" MaxLength="500" DisplaySize="200" Type="Text"> <default></default> </Field> <Field Name="EntitySiteUrl" Hidden="TRUE" DisplayName="EntitySiteUrl" MaxLength="500" DisplaySize="200" Type="Text"> <default></default> </Field> </Fields> <PropertySchema> And turn it into this... <PropertySchema> <Fields> <Field Name="ServerValidationRules" Hidden="TRUE" DisplayName="ServerValidationRules" Type="ServerValidationRulesType"> <default></default> </Field> </Fields> <PropertySchema> Ideas?????

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  • How to represent different entities that have identical behavior?

    - by Dominik
    I have several different entities in my domain model (animal species, let's say), which have a few properties each. The entities are readonly (they do not change state during the application lifetime) and they have identical behavior (the differ only by the values of properties). How to implement such entities in code? Unsuccessful attempts: Enums I tried an enum like this: enum Animals { Frog, Duck, Otter, Fish } And other pieces of code would switch on the enum. However, this leads to ugly switching code, scattering the logic around and problems with comboboxes. There's no pretty way to list all possible Animals. Serialization works great though. Subclasses I also thought about where each animal type is a subclass of a common base abstract class. The implementation of Swim() is the same for all Animals, though, so it makes little sense and serializability is a big issue now. Since we represent an animal type (species, if you will), there should be one instance of the subclass per application, which is hard and weird to maintain when we use serialization. public abstract class AnimalBase { string Name { get; set; } // user-readable double Weight { get; set; } Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); { /* swim implementation; the same for all animals but depends uses the value of Weight */ } } public class Otter: AnimalBase{ public Otter() { Name = "Otter"; Weight = 10; Habitat = "North America"; } } // ... and so on Just plain awful. Static fields This blog post gave me and idea for a solution where each option is a statically defined field inside the type, like this: public class Animal { public static readonly Animal Otter = new Animal { Name="Otter", Weight = 10, Habitat = "North America"} // the rest of the animals... public string Name { get; set; } // user-readable public double Weight { get; set; } public Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); } That would be great: you can use it like enums (AnimalType = Animal.Otter), you can easily add a static list of all defined animals, you have a sensible place where to implement Swim(). Immutability can be achieved by making property setters protected. There is a major problem, though: it breaks serializability. A serialized Animal would have to save all its properties and upon deserialization it would create a new instance of Animal, which is something I'd like to avoid. Is there an easy way to make the third attempt work? Any more suggestions for implementing such a model?

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  • How do you unit test a unit test?

    - by FlySwat
    I was watching Rob Connerys webcasts on the MVCStoreFront App, and I noticed he was unit testing even the most mundane things, things like: public Decimal DiscountPrice { get { return this.Price - this.Discount; } } Would have a test like: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,80); } While, I am all for unit testing, I sometimes wonder if this form of test first development is really beneficial, for example, in a real process, you have 3-4 layers above your code (Business Request, Requirements Document, Architecture Document), where the actual defined business rule (Discount Price is Price - Discount) could be misdefined. If that's the situation, your unit test means nothing to you. Additionally, your unit test is another point of failure: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,90); } Now the test is flawed. Obviously in a simple test, it's no big deal, but say we were testing a complicated business rule. What do we gain here? Fast forward two years into the application's life, when maintenance developers are maintaining it. Now the business changes its rule, and the test breaks again, some rookie developer then fixes the test incorrectly...we now have another point of failure. All I see is more possible points of failure, with no real beneficial return, if the discount price is wrong, the test team will still find the issue, how did unit testing save any work? What am I missing here? Please teach me to love TDD, as I'm having a hard time accepting it as useful so far. I want too, because I want to stay progressive, but it just doesn't make sense to me. EDIT: A couple people keep mentioned that testing helps enforce the spec. It has been my experience that the spec has been wrong as well, more often than not, but maybe I'm doomed to work in an organization where the specs are written by people who shouldn't be writing specs.

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  • Common DataAnnotations in ASP.Net MVC2

    - by Scott Mayfield
    Howdy, I have what should be a simple question. I have a set of validations that use System.CompontentModel.DataAnnotations . I have some validations that are specific to certain view models, so I'm comfortable with having the validation code in the same file as my models (as in the default AccountModels.cs file that ships with MVC2). But I have some common validations that apply to several models as well (valid email address format for example). When I cut/paste that validation to the second model that needs it, of course I get a duplicate definition error because they're in the same namespace (projectName.Models). So I thought of removing the common validations to a separate class within the namespace, expecting that all of my view models would be able to access the validations from there. Unexpectedly, the validations are no longer accessible. I've verified that they are still in the same namespace, and they are all public. I wouldn't expect that I would have to have any specific reference to them (tried adding using statement for the same namespace, but that didn't resolve it, and via the add references dialog, a project can't reference itself (makes sense). So any idea why public validations that have simply been moved to another file in the same namespace aren't visible to my models? CommonValidations.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class CommonValidations { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Field | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class EmailFormatValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value != null) { var expression = @"^[a-zA-Z][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]@[a-zA-Z0-9][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]\.[a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z\.]*[a-zA-Z]$"; return Regex.IsMatch(value.ToString(), expression); } else { return false; } } } } } And here's the code that I want to use the validation from: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using Growums.Models; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class PrivacyModel { [Required(ErrorMessage="Required")] [EmailFormatValid(ErrorMessage="Invalid Email")] public string Email { get; set; } } }

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  • who free's setvbuf buffer?

    - by Evan Teran
    So I've been digging into how the stdio portion of libc is implemented and I've come across another question. Looking at man setvbuf I see the following: When the first I/O operation occurs on a file, malloc(3) is called, and a buffer is obtained. This makes sense, your program should have a malloc in it for I/O unless you actually use it. My gut reaction to this is that libc will clean up its own mess here. Which I can only assume it does because valgrind reports no memory leaks (they could of course do something dirty and not allocate it via malloc directly... but we'll assume that it literally uses malloc for now). But, you can specify your own buffer too... int main() { char *p = malloc(100); setvbuf(stdio, p, _IOFBF, 100); puts("hello world"); } Oh no, memory leak! valgrind confirms it. So it seems that whenever stdio allocates a buffer on its own, it will get deleted automatically (at the latest on program exit, but perhaps on stream close). But if you specify the buffer explicitly, then you must clean it up yourself. There is a catch though. The man page also says this: You must make sure that the space that buf points to still exists by the time stream is closed, which also happens at program termination. For example, the following is invalid: Now this is getting interesting for the standard streams. How would one properly clean up a manually allocated buffer for them, since they are closed in program termination? I could imagine a "clean this up when I close flag" inside the file struct, but it get hairy because if I read this right doing something like this: setvbuf(stdio, 0, _IOFBF, 100); printf("hello "); setvbuf(stdio, 0, _IOLBF, 100); printf("world\n"); would cause 2 allocations by the standard library because of this sentence: If the argument buf is NULL, only the mode is affected; a new buffer will be allocated on the next read or write operation.

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  • UIViewController not oreintating. Methods not called

    - by capple
    Greetings, This question does seem to be an ongoing saga in the world of iphone SDK... so heres my contribution... Had two separate projects from the same template... one semi-works, the other not at all... Please let me explain my steps... used this basic GL ES template //iphonedevelopment.blogspot.com/2008/12/opengl-project-template-for-xcode.html had to sort out some of the 'Release' configuration but otherwises has eveything I need to add orientation to a GL ES project. One my first project, did my stuff, then added these methods.... -(BOOL)shouldAutoRotateToInterfaceOrientation ..... -(void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)willAnimateRotationToInterfaceOrientation .... And understand what they do (or are trying to do in my case), the (BOOL)should... gets called once when the view controller is created, and returns 'YES'. But after that none of the other methods are called! So I started from scratch with a blank template (GL ES one from above)...and added minimum to support auto rotation. But this time none of the methods get called! So I investigated .... //developer.apple.com/iphone/library/qa/qa2010/qa1688.html as it said, I added the GLViewController.view first, then added the GLview as subviews of the application delegate. Nothing! Then found this //www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/44993-how-determine-ipad-launch-orientation.html which states to enable orientation notifications [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; and then subsequently disable them in the view controller... makes sense...did it, nothing... I think the notifications might be on by default though, since I didn't need to enable them in the first project, yet it still try to verify a orientation (i.e (BOOL)shouldAutoRotate... )... If any one could help me out it would be greatly appreciated as this issue is driving me insane. Thanks in advance. The code can be found here ... http://rapidshare.com/files/392053688/autoRotation.zip N.B These projects avoid nib/xib resources, would like to keep it that way if possible. P.S iPad device not out where I am so I cannot test on a device yet. Would be nice for it to work on the simulator.

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  • Resizing an image using mouse dragging (C#)

    - by Gaax
    Hi all. I'm having some trouble resizing an image just by dragging the mouse. I found an average resize method and now am trying to modify it to use the mouse instead of given values. The way I'm doing it makes sense to me but maybe you guys can give me some better ideas. I'm basically using the distance between the current location of the mouse and the previous location of the mouse as the scaling factor. If the distance between the current mouse location and the center of of the image is less than the distance between previous mouse location and the center of the image then the image gets smaller, and vice-versa. With the code below I'm getting an Argument Exception (invalid parameter) when creating the new bitmap with the new height and width and I really don't understand why... any ideas? private static Image resizeImage(Image imgToResize, System.Drawing.Point prevMouseLoc, System.Drawing.Point currentMouseLoc) { int sourceWidth = imgToResize.Width; int sourceHeight = imgToResize.Height; float dCurrCent = 0; //Distance between current mouse location and the center of the image float dPrevCent = 0; //Distance between previous mouse location and the center of the image float dCurrPrev = 0; //Distance between current mouse location and the previous mouse location int sign = 1; System.Drawing.Point imgCenter = new System.Drawing.Point(); float nPercent = 0; imgCenter.X = imgToResize.Width / 2; imgCenter.Y = imgToResize.Height / 2; // Calculating the distance between the current mouse location and the center of the image dCurrCent = (float)Math.Sqrt(Math.Pow(currentMouseLoc.X - imgCenter.X, 2) + Math.Pow(currentMouseLoc.Y - imgCenter.Y, 2)); // Calculating the distance between the previous mouse location and the center of the image dPrevCent = (float)Math.Sqrt(Math.Pow(prevMouseLoc.XimgCenter.X,2) + Math.Pow(prevMouseLoc.Y - imgCenter.Y, 2)); // Calculating the sign value if (dCurrCent >= dPrevCent) { sign = 1; } else { sign = -1; } nPercent = sign * (float)Math.Sqrt(Math.Pow(currentMouseLoc.X - prevMouseLoc.X, 2) + Math.Pow(currentMouseLoc.Y - prevMouseLoc.Y, 2)); int destWidth = (int)(sourceWidth * nPercent); int destHeight = (int)(sourceHeight * nPercent); Bitmap b = new Bitmap(destWidth, destHeight); // exception thrown here Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage((Image)b); g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.HighQualityBicubic; g.DrawImage(imgToResize, 0, 0, destWidth, destHeight); g.Dispose(); return (Image)b; }

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  • Trouble using CollectionViewSource in Silverlight

    - by Johnny
    Hi, I having some trouble when implementing the CollectionViewSource in silverlight. I'm new in this topic, so basically I've been following what I find searching through the web. Here's what I've been trying to do so far. I'm creating a CollectionViewSource in the resources tag: <UserControl.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="TestCVS"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="Value" Direction="Ascending" /> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </UserControl.Resources> Then I'm binding my TestCVS in a HierarchicalDataTemplate: <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource TestCVS}}"> <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate.ItemTemplate> <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="#FF464646" BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="3" Padding="5"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding MyClassField}"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </Border> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate.ItemTemplate> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> Now, in the code behind I'm assigning the Source for the TestCVS in a property, like this: private ObservableCollection<MyClass> _MyClass; public ObservableCollection<MyClass> MyClass { get { return _MyClass; } set { var testCVS = (this.Resources["TestCVS"] as CollectionViewSource); if (testCVS != null) testCVS.Source = value; } } After testing this I realize that the information is not showing on screen and I don't really know why, can anyone help me on this matter? Hope this makes any sense, thanks in advance!

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  • General Questions on setting up Subversion (w/Netbeans) and web development workflow.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, I am web developer who currently works mostly on his own but, some projects require outside coding help (my brother.) Anyway, after running in to the problem of "working on the same files" and "saving over each others edits" I decided to research ways to avoid this. Through the help of stackoverflow I decided on subversion. My setup is the following: A windows 2008 server with a clean install. My desktop which is on the local network of the server. Then my brothers desktop which is at his house, not on lan. We both prefer to use netbeans for development. My Questions: How do we set this thing up correctly and most optimally. Here is my current setup and work flow. dev site: in the past I just created sub domains with my web host for test sites (company1.bythepixel.com, company2.bythepixel.com), and editted those sites with netbeans set up having remote sources (ftp). how do i set up my netbeans now? should I set it up with remote sources? I guess I may need to set up a web server on my local server. I'm just not sure of the work flow. When i hit save in netbeans.. will it update the repository.. then do i need to update the site from the repository somehow? live site: when going live, i would just copy all the files from the dev site into the live site. from what i gather i should be able to update the site from the dev repository? Currently I am toying with virtualsvn server (http://www.visualsvn.com/server/) on my local server. It looks like it is set up to use the http protocol. Is there advantages to this or should I consider something that does the file//. Do you recommend any other subversion software that would run on my 2008 box? how will my brother connect? should i set up a permanent vpn from his house to mine? suggestions? (not that important) how do I deal with databases, there anyway to do subversion on database? I know I have a lot of questions and I am trying to read / make sense of the free online subversion book, but its all so overwhelming! Wish there was a small subversion for dummies guide :)

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