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• WPF performance for large number of elements on the screen

  - by Mark

  Im currently trying to create a Scene in WPF where I have around 250 controls on my screen and the user can Pan and Zoom in and out of these controls using the mouse. I have run the WPF Performance Suite tools on the application when there are a large number of these controls on the screen (i.e. when the user has zoomed right out) the FPS drops down to around 15 which is not very good. Here is the basic outline of the XAML: <Window> <Window.Resources> <ControlTemplate x:Key="LandTemplate" TargetType="{x:Type local:LandControl}"> <Canvas> <Path Fill="White" Stretch="Fill" Stroke="Black" StrokeThickness="1" Width="55.5" Height="74.687" Data="M0.5,0.5 L55,0.5 L55,74.187 L0.5,74.187 z"/> <Canvas x:Name="DetailLevelCanvas" Width="24.5" Height="21" Canvas.Left="15.306" Canvas.Top="23.972"> <TextBlock Width="21" Height="14" Text="712" TextWrapping="Wrap" Foreground="Black"/> <TextBlock Width="17.5" Height="7" Canvas.Left="7" Canvas.Top="14" Text="614m2" TextWrapping="Wrap" FontSize="5.333" Foreground="Black"/> </Canvas> </Canvas> </ControlTemplate> </Window.Resources> ... <local:LandControl Width="55.5" Height="74.552" Canvas.Top="xxx" Template=" {StaticResource LandTemplate}" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5" Canvas.Left="xxx"> <local:LandControl Width="55.5" Height="74.552" Canvas.Top="xxx" Template=" {StaticResource LandTemplate}" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5" Canvas.Left="xxx"> <local:LandControl Width="55.5" Height="74.552" Canvas.Top="xxx" Template=" {StaticResource LandTemplate}" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5" Canvas.Left="xxx"> <local:LandControl Width="55.5" Height="74.552" Canvas.Top="xxx" Template=" {StaticResource LandTemplate}" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5" Canvas.Left="xxx"> ... and so on... </Window> Ive tried to minimise the details in the control template and I even did a massive find and replace of the controls to just put their raw elements inline instead of using a template, but with no noticeable performance improvements. I have seen other SO questions about this and people say to do custom drawing, but I dont really see how that make sense when you have to zoom and pan like I do. If anyone can help out here, that would be great! Mark

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• iPhone: Problems releasing UIViewController in a multithreaded environment

  - by bart-simpson

  Hi! I have a UIViewController and in that controller, i am fetching an image from a URL source. The image is fetched in a separate thread after which the user-interface is updated on the main thread. This controller is displayed as a page in a UIScrollView parent which is implemented to release controllers that are not in view anymore. When the thread finishes fetching content before the UIViewController is released, everything works fine - but when the user scrolls to another page before the thread finishes, the controller is released and the only handle to the controller is owned by the thread making releaseCount of the controller equals to 1. Now, as soon as the thread drains NSAutoreleasePool, the controller gets releases because the releaseCount becomes 0. At this point, my application crashes and i get the following error message: bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x4d99c60: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... The backtrace reveals that the application crashed on the call to [super dealloc] and it makes total sense because the dealloc function must have been triggered by the thread when the pool was drained. My question is, how i can overcome this error and release the controller without leaking memory? One solution that i tried was to call [self retain] before the pool is drained so that retainCount doesn't fall to zero and then using the following code to release controller in the main thread: [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; Unfortunately, this did not work out. Below is the function that is executed on a thread: - (void)thread_fetchContent { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSURL *imgURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.domain.com/image.png"]; // UIImage *imgHotspot is declared as private - The image is retained // here and released as soon as it is assigned to UIImageView imgHotspot = [[[UIImage alloc] initWithData: [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: imgURL]] retain]; if ([self retainCount] == 1) { [self retain]; // increment retain count ~ workaround [pool drain]; // drain pool // this doesn't work - i get the same error [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } else { // show fetched image on the main thread - this works fine! [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(showImage) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; [pool drain]; } } Please help! Thank you in advance.

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• Executing a .NET Managed Assembly from SQL Server 2008 - Pro's, Con's & Recommendations

  - by RPM1984

  Hi guys, looking for opinions/recommendations/links for the following scenario im currently facing. The Platform: .NET 4.0 Web Application SQL Server 2008 The Task: Overhaul a component of the system that performs (fairly) complex mathematical operations based on a specific user activity, and updates numerous tables in the database. A common user activity might be "Bob" decides to post a forum topic. This results in (the end-solution) needing to look at various factors (about the post he did), then after doing some math based on lookup values/ratios as well as other data in the database, inserting some other data as a result of these operations. The Options: Ok - so here's what im thinking. Although it would be much easier to do this in C# (LINQ-SQL) it doesnt make much sense as the majority of the computations are based on values in the db, and it will get difficult to control/optimize/debug the LINQ over time. Hence, im leaning towards created a managed assembly (C# Class Library) that contains the lookup values (constants) as well as leveraging the math classes in the existing .NET BCL. Basically i'd expose a few methods that can be called by the T-SQL Stored Procedures. This to me has the following advantages: Simplicity of math. Do complex math in .NET vs complex math in T-SQL. No brainer. =) Abstraction of computatations, configurable "lookup" values and business logic from raw T-SQL. T-SQL only needs to care about the data, simplifying the stored procedures and making it easier to maintain. When it needs to do math it delegates off to the managed assembly. So, having said that - ive never done this before (call .NET assmembly from T-SQL), and after some googling the best site i could come up with is here, which is useful but outdated. So - what am i asking? Well, firstly - i need some better references on how to actually do this. "This" being how to call a C# .NET 4 Assembly from within T-SQL Stored Procedures in SQL Server 2008. Secondly, who out there has done this, what problems (if any) did you face? Realize this may be difficult to provide a "correct answer", so ill try to give it to whoever gives me the answer with a combination of good links and a list of pro's/con's/problems with this implementation. Cheers!

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• Performance tuning of a Hibernate+Spring+MySQL project operation that stores images uploaded by user

  - by Umar

  Hi I am working on a web project that is Spring+Hibernate+MySQL based. I am stuck at a point where I have to store images uploaded by a user into the database. Although I have written some code that works well for now, but I believe that things will mess up when the project would go live. Here's my domain class that carries the image bytes: @Entity public class Picture implements java.io.Serializable{ long id; byte[] data; ... // getters and setters } And here's my controller that saves the file on submit: public class PictureUploadFormController extends AbstractBaseFormController{ ... protected ModelAndView onSubmit(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception{ MutlipartFile file; // getting MultipartFile from the command object ... // beginning hibernate transaction ... Picture p=new Picture(); p.setData(file.getBytes()); pictureDAO.makePersistent(p); // this method simply calls getSession().saveOrUpdate(p) // committing hiernate transaction ... } ... } Obviously a bad piece of code. Is there anyway I could use InputStream or Blob to save the data, instead of first loading all the bytes from the user into the memory and then pushing them into the database? I did some research on hibernate's support for Blob, and found this in Hibernate In Action book: java.sql.Blob and java.sql.Clob are the most efficient way to handle large objects in Java. Unfortunately, an instance of Blob or Clob is only useable until the JDBC transaction completes. So if your persistent class defines a property of java.sql.Clob or java.sql.Blob (not a good idea anyway), you’ll be restricted in how instances of the class may be used. In particular, you won’t be able to use instances of that class as detached objects. Furthermore, many JDBC drivers don’t feature working support for java.sql.Blob and java.sql.Clob. Therefore, it makes more sense to map large objects using the binary or text mapping type, assuming retrieval of the entire large object into memory isn’t a performance killer. Note you can find up-to-date design patterns and tips for large object usage on the Hibernate website, with tricks for particular platforms. Now apparently the Blob cannot be used, as it is not a good idea anyway, what else could be used to improve the performance? I couldn't find any up-to-date design pattern or any useful information on Hibernate website. So any help/recommendations from stackoverflowers will be much appreciated. Thanks

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• Help me understand this C code

  - by Benjamin

  INT GetTree (HWND hWnd, HTREEITEM hItem, HKEY *pRoot, TCHAR *pszKey, INT nMax) { TV_ITEM tvi; TCHAR szName[256]; HTREEITEM hParent; HWND hwndTV = GetDlgItem (hWnd, ID_TREEV); memset (&tvi, 0, sizeof (tvi)); hParent = TreeView_GetParent (hwndTV, hItem); if (hParent) { // Get the parent of the parent of the... GetTree (hWnd, hParent, pRoot, pszKey, nMax); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi); //send the TVM_GETITEM message? lstrcat (pszKey, TEXT ("\\")); lstrcat (pszKey, szName); } else { *pszKey = TEXT ('\0'); szName[0] = TEXT ('\0'); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT | TVIF_PARAM; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); if (TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi)) //*pRoot = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; //original hItem = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; else { INT rc = GetLastError(); } } return 0; } The block of code that begins with the comment "Get the name of the item" does not make sense to me. If you are getting the listview item why does the code set the parameters of the item being retrieved? If you already had the values there would be no need to retrieve them. Secondly near the comment "original" is the original line of code which will compile with a warning under embedded visual c++ 4.0, but if you copy the exact same code into visual studio 2008 it will not compile. Since I did not write any of this code, and am trying to learn, is it possible the original author made a mistake on this line? The *pRoot should point to HKEY type yet he is casting to an HTREEITEM type which should never work since the data types don't match?

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• Selecting one row when working with typed datasets.

  - by Wodzu

  I have a typed dataset in my project. I would like to populate a datatable with only one row instead of all rows. The selected row must be based on the primary key column. I know I could modify the designer code to achive this functionality however if I change the code in the designer I risk that this code will be deleted when I update my datased via designer in the future. So I wanted to alter the SelectCommand not in the designer but just before firing up MyTypedTableAdapter.Fill method. The strange thing is that the designer does not create a SelectCommand! It creates all other commands but not this one. If it would create SelectCommand I could alter it in this way: this.operatorzyTableAdapter.Adapter.SelectCommand.CommandText += " WHERE MyColumn = 1"; It is far from perfection but atleast I would not have to modify the designer's work. unfortunately as I said earlier the SelectCommand is not created. Instead designer creates something like this: [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] private void InitCommandCollection() { this._commandCollection = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand[1]; this._commandCollection[0] = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(); this._commandCollection[0].Connection = this.Connection; this._commandCollection[0].CommandText = "SELECT Ope_OpeID, Ope_Kod, Ope_Haslo, Ope_Imie, Ope_Nazwisko FROM dbo.Operatorzy"; this._commandCollection[0].CommandType = global::System.Data.CommandType.Text; } It doesn't make sense in my opinion. Why to create UpdateCommand, InsertCommand and DeleteCommand but do not create SelectCommand? I could bear with this but this._commandCollection is private so I cannot acces it outside of the class code. I don't know how to get into this collection without changing the designer's code. The idea which I have is to expose the collection via partial class definition. However I want to introduce many typed datasets and I really don't want to create partial class definition for each of them. Please note that I am using .NET 3.5. I've found this article about accessing private properties but it concerns .NET 4.0 Thanks for your time.

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• Why is my Interface Builder wiring so bonkers and what can I do to straighten it out?

  - by editor

  I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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• What does these FindBug messages show?

  - by Hans Klock

  Not every description from from http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html is clear to me. Sure, I can study the implementation but if somebody is more experienced then me, some explanation and examples would be great. Do you have some examples for UI_INHERITANCE_UNSAFE_GETRESOURCE when this is getting a problem? In BX_UNBOXED_AND_COERCED_FOR_TERNARY_OPERATOR I don't see the problem either. If one type is "bigger" then the other, for example int and float, then the result is float. If its Integer and Float its the wrapper Float too. That's what I expect. Does the GC_UNRELATED_TYPES really help to find errors? Isn't it the job of the compiler to check, if--taking the given example--Foo can't go into a Collection<String>. Does HE_SIGNATURE_DECLARES_HASHING_OF_UNHASHABLE_CLASS mean something like bla(Foo f){hashtable.put(f);}, where ´Foo´ is not hashable? Does FingBugs "see" the subclasses too? NP_GUARANTEED_DEREF_ON_EXCEPTION_PATH is stronger "wrong" then NP_ALWAYS_NULL_EXCEPTION? Why two error cases and with NP_NULL_ON_SOME_PATH_EXCEPTION even one more? Sounds very similar to me. What is an example of SIO_SUPERFLUOUS_INSTANCEOF? Something like foo(String s){if (s intenceof String) .... This does a null check too, but this is not the test here... NN_NAKED_NOTIFY. I my opinion the description is not clear. A change of the state is not necessary. If I use new Object() to wait and notify on I don't change the object state. Or is state the lock-state? I don't get it. SP_SPIN_ON_FIELD. Can this really happen that a compiler will move this outside from a loop? This doesn't make sense to me because from outside a Thread can always change the values. And if the variable is volatile the JVM can't cache the value. So what's the meaning? That is the difference between STCAL_STATIC_CALENDAR_INSTANCE and STCAL_INVOKE_ON_STATIC_CALENDAR_INSTANCE or STCAL_INVOKE_ON_STATIC_DATE_FORMAT_INSTANCE/STCAL_STATIC_SIMPLE_DATE_FORMAT_INSTANCE? Why is XXXX.class in WL_USING_GETCLASS_RATHER_THAN_CLASS_LITERAL better then getClass()? A getClass() in a superclass called from the subclass will always return the Class object from the subclass which is good I think. What exactly does EQ_UNUSUAL do? It should check that the argument is of the same type of the class itself but it does't? Did you ever had problems with breaks? Is there real value with SF_SWITCH_FALLTHROUGH? Sounds to strong for me. No idea what TQ_EXPLICIT_UNKNOWN_SOURCE_VALUE_REACHES_ALWAYS_SINK and TQ_EXPLICIT_UNKNOWN_SOURCE_VALUE_REACHES_NEVER_SINK could be.

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• How to properly downcast in C# with a SWIG generated interface?

  - by JG

  I've got a very large and mature C++ code base that I'm trying to use SWIG on to generate a C# interface for. I cannot change the actual C++ code itself but we can use whatever SWIG offers in the way of extending/updating it. I'm facing an issue where a function C++ is written as such: A* SomeClass::next(A*) The caller might do something like: A* acurr = 0; while( (acurr = sc->next(acurr)) != 0 ){ if( acurr isoftype B ){ B* b = (B*)a; ...do some stuff with b.. } elseif( acurr isoftype C ) ... } Essentially, iterating through a container elements that depending on their true type, do something different. The SWIG generated C# layer for the "next" function unfortunately does the following: return new A(); So the calling code in C# land cannot determine if the returned object is actually a derived class or not, it actually appears to always be the base class (which does make sense). I've come across several solutions: Use the %extend SWIG keyword to add a method on an object and ultimately call dynamic_cast. The downside to this approach, as I see it, is that this requires you to know the inheritance hierarchy. In my case it is rather huge and I see this is as a maintenance issue. Use the %factory keyword to supply the method and the derived types and have SWIG automatically generate the dynamic_cast code. This appears to be a better solution that the first, however upon a deeper look it still requires you to hunt down all the methods and all the possible derived types it could return. Again, a huge maintenance issue. I wish I had a doc link for this but I can't find one. I found out about this functionality by looking through the example code that comes with SWIG. Create a C# method to create an instance of the derived object and transfer the cPtr to the new instance. While I consider this clumsy, it does work. See an example below. public static object castTo(object fromObj, Type toType) { object retval = null; BaseClass fromObj2 = fromObj as BaseClass; HandleRef hr = BaseClass.getCPtr(fromObj2); IntPtr cPtr = hr.Handle; object toObj = Activator.CreateInstance(toType, cPtr, false); // make sure it actually is what we think it is if (fromObj.GetType().IsInstanceOfType(toObj)) { return toObj; } return retval; } Are these really the options? And if I'm not willing to dig through all the existing functions and class derivations, then I'm left with #3? Any help would be appreciated.

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• Exception: attempt to acquire a reference on a close SQLiteClosable

  - by CommonsWare

  I posted this back in May on the [android-developers] Google Group. I never heard back and was not able to reproduce the problem until one of my students did last week. I figured I'd post it here and see if it rang any bells for anyone. In one of my code samples, I have the following method: static Cursor getAll(SQLiteDatabase db, String orderBy) { return(db.rawQuery("SELECT * FROM restaurants "+orderBy, null)); } When I run it, sporadically, I get this: 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): java.lang.IllegalStateException: attempt to acquire a reference on a close SQLiteClosable 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteClosable.acquireReference(SQLiteClosable.java:31) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteProgram.<init>(SQLiteProgram.java:56) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteQuery.<init>(SQLiteQuery.java:49) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDirectCursorDriver.query(SQLiteDirectCursorDriver.java:49) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.rawQueryWithFactory(SQLiteDatabase.java:1118) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.rawQuery(SQLiteDatabase.java:1092) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at apt.tutorial.Restaurant.getAll(Restaurant.java:14) This makes no sense to me. The database is definitely open. The SQLiteClosable is the SQLiteQuery created by SQLiteQueryDriver, and I see no evidence that there is an object pool or something going on here that might explain how a "new" SQLiteClosable is already closed. The fact that it is sporadic (meaning the same UI operations sometimes trigger the exception, but not always) suggests some sort of pool, race condition, or something...but I'm not sure where. Thoughts? Thanks! UPDATE: The code in question is from the LunchList tutorials out of my Android Programming Tutorials book. It's a bit spread out and not terribly suitable for posting directly in SO. You can download the code for that book from the above link if you want to take a look at it. I do not recall exactly which edition of the tutorial the student was working on at the time, though it was in the Tutorial 12-Tutorial 16 range. I was mostly hoping to run across somebody who had tripped over this problem before and had a likely culprit. I'm fairly certain my database is open. Thanks again!

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• Importing a large delimited file to a MySQL table

  - by Tom

  I have this large (and oddly formatted txt file) from the USDA's website. It is the NUT_DATA.txt file. But the problem is that it is almost 27mb! I was successful in importing the a few other smaller files, but my method was using file_get_contents which it makes sense why an error would be thrown if I try to snag 27+ mb of RAM. So how can I import this massive file to my MySQL DB without running into a timeout and RAM issue? I've tried just getting one line at a time from the file, but this ran into timeout issue. Using PHP 5.2.0. Here is the old script (the fields in the DB are just numbers because I could not figure out what number represented what nutrient, I found this data very poorly document. Sorry about the ugliness of the code): <? $file = "NUT_DATA.txt"; $data = split("\n", file_get_contents($file)); // split each line $link = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("database", $link); for($i = 0, $e = sizeof($data); $i < $e; $i++) { $sql = "INSERT INTO `USDA` (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17) VALUES("; $row = split("\^", trim($data[$i])); // split each line by carrot for ($j = 0, $k = sizeof($row); $j < $k; $j++) { $val = trim($row[$j], '~'); $val = (empty($val)) ? 0 : $val; $sql .= ((empty($val)) ? 0 : $val) . ','; // this gets rid of those tildas and replaces empty strings with 0s } $sql = rtrim($sql, ',') . ");"; mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); // query the db } echo "Finished inserting data into database.\n"; mysql_close($link); ?>

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• SQLAlchemy unsupported type error - and table design issues?

  - by Az

  Hi there, back again with some more SQLAlchemy shenanigans. Let me step through this. My table is now set up as so: engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() students_table = Table('studs', metadata, Column('sid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('preferences', Integer), Column('allocated_rank', Integer), Column('allocated_project', Integer) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Student, students_table) Fairly simple, and for the most part I've been enjoying the ability to query almost any bit of information I want provided I avoid the error cases below. The class it is mapped from is: class Student(object): def __init__(self, sid, name): self.sid = sid self.name = name self.preferences = collections.defaultdict(set) self.allocated_project = None self.allocated_rank = 0 def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "%s %s" %(self.sid, self.name) Explanation: preferences is basically a set of all the projects the student would prefer to be assigned. When the allocation algorithm kicks in, a student's allocated_project emerges from this preference set. Now if I try to do this: for student in students.itervalues(): session.add(student) session.commit() It throws two errors, one for the allocated_project column (seen below) and a similar error for the preferences column: sqlalchemy.exc.InterfaceError: (InterfaceError) Error binding parameter 4 - probably unsupported type. u'INSERT INTO studs (sid, name, allocated_rank, allocated_project) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)' [1101, 'Muffett,M.', 1, 888 Human-spider relationships (Supervisor id: 123)] If I go back into my code I find that, when I'm copying the preferences from the given text files, it actually refers to the Project class which is mapped to a dictionary, using the unique project id's (pid) as keys. Thus, as I iterate through each student via their rank and to the preferences set, it adds not a project id, but the reference to the project id from the projects dictionary. students[sid].preferences[int(rank)].add(projects[int(pid)]) Now this is very useful to me since I can find out all I want to about a student's preferred projects without having to run another check to pull up information about the project id. The form you see in the error has the object print information passed as: return "%s %s (Supervisor id: %s)" %(self.proj_id, self.proj_name, self.proj_sup) My questions are: I'm trying to store an object in a database field aren't I? Would the correct way then, be copying the project information (project id, name, etc) into its own table, referenced by the unique project id? That way I can just have the project id field for one of the student tables just be an integer id and when I need more information, just join the tables? So and so forth for other tables? If the above makes sense, then how does one maintain the relationship with a column of information in one table which is a key index on another table? Does this boil down into a database design problem? Are there any other elegant ways of accomplishing this? Apologies if this is a very long-winded question. It's rather crucial for me to solve this, so I've tried to explain as much as I can, whilst attempting to show that I'm trying (key word here sadly) to understand what could be going wrong.

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• How do I integrate a new MVC C# Project with an existing Web Forms VB.NET Web Application Project?

  - by Jordan Rieger

  We have a corporate website with a large amount of dynamic business application pages (e.g. Shopping Cart, Helpdesk, Product/Service management, Reporting, etc.) The site was built as an ASP.Net Web Application Project (WAP). Our systems have evolved over the years to use .NET 4.5 and various custom business logic DLLs (written in a mix of C# and VB.NET). However, the site itself is still using VB.NET Web Forms. We now have done a few side projects in MVC 4 using Razor/C#, and we want to use this framework for new pages on the main corporate site going forward. What would be the easiest way to achieve this? I found this nice list of steps to integrate MVC 4 into an existing Web Forms app. The problem is that because our existing app is a VB.NET WAP, it compiles into a single DLL, and .NET allows only one language per DLL. The site is way too big for us to contemplate converting it to C# all at once (yes, I've looked at the conversion tools, and they're good, but even 99% accuracy would leave us a huge amount of cleanup work.) I thought about converting the existing WAP into a Web Site Project (WSP) which does allow mixing languages and then following the steps above, but after a few pages of Google results, I couldn't find any steps for converting a WAP to WSP. (Plenty of sites offer the reverse steps: converting a WSP to a WAP.) Another idea I had was to create a completely separate MVC project, and then somehow squish them together into the same folder structure, where they would share the bin folder but compile to separate DLL's. I have no idea if this is possible, because certain files would collide (e.g. Global.asax, web.config, etc.) Finally, I can imagine a compromise solution where we keep all the MVC stuff in its own separate application under a subfolder of the main solution. We already use our own custom session state solution, so it wouldn't be difficult to pass data between the old site to the new pages. Which of the ideas above do you think makes the most sense for us? Is there another solution that I'm missing?

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• Should an event-sourced aggregate root have access to the event sourcing repository?

  - by JD Courtoy

  I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store by id for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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• The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

  - by AndrewO

  I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

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• Why does my JSF + Spring web application output JSF source code instead of interpreted HTML page?

  - by Corvus

  I'm new to both JSF and Spring Framework and I'm trying to figure out how to make them work together. My current problem is that application outputs my JSF files without interpreting them. Here are some snippets of my code which I believe might be relevant: dispatcher-servlet.xml <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="login.htm">loginController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver" p:prefix="/WEB-INF/pages/" p:suffix=".xhtml" /> <bean name="loginController" class="controller.LoginController" /> loginController public class LoginController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView login(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { System.out.println("LOGIN"); return new ModelAndView("login"); } WEB-INF/pages/login.xhtml <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html"> <h:head> <title>#{message.log}</title> </h:head> <h:body> <h:form> <h:outputLabel value="#{message.username}" for="userName"> <h:inputText id="userName" value="#{User.name}" /> </h:outputLabel> <h:commandButton value="#{message.loggin}" action="#{User.login}" /> </h:form> </h:body> </html> Any ideas where the problem might be? Does this code make any sense at all? I'm well aware of fact, that probably completely sucks and I'll be glad to here WHY it sucks and how to make it better. Thanks :)

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• Generating custom-form documents from base-form plus XML?

  - by KlaymenDK

  Hi all, this is my first stack overflow, and it's a complex one. Sorry. My task is to generate custom documents from a basic template plus some XML without having a custom form design element for each case. Here's the whole picture: We are building a Lotus Notes (client, not web) application for world-wide application access control; the scope is something like 400.000 users being able to request access to any of 1000+ applications. Each application needs its own request form -- different number of approvers, various info required, that sort of thing. We simply can't have a thousand forms in a database (one per application), and anyway their maintenance really needs to be pushed from the developers to the application owners. So instead of custom forms, we'd like to create a generic "template" form that stores a block of basic fields, but then allows application owners to define another block of fields dynamically -- "I want a mandatory plain-text field named 'Name' here, and then a date field named 'Due' here that must be later than today's date, and then ...". I hope this makes sense (if not, think of it as a generic questionnaire application). I pretty much have the structure in place for designing the dynamic fields (form builder GUI - XML-encoded data - pre-rendered DXL for injecting into a form), including mark-up for field types, value options, and rudimentary field validation instructions. My problem is generating a document with this dynamic content injected at the proper location (without needing a custom form design element for each case). Doing the dynamic content via HTML is out. The Notes client web rendering is simply way too poor, and it would be quite a challenge to implement things like field validation instructions, date selectors, and name look-ups. DXL, on the other hand, would allow us to use native Notes fields and code. As a tech demo, I've managed to implement a custom form generator that injects the pre-rendered DXL for the dynamic content into a base form; but as I said, we don't want a ton of custom form design elements. I've tried to implement a way to create a document with the "store form in document" flag set, but once I've created the document from the base form, I can't get DXL access to the stored form design, and so I can't inject my dynamic content. I know this is not something Notes was ever intended to do. Has anyone ever tried something like it (and gotten away with it)? Thanks for reading this far. With a boatload of thanks in advance, Jan Gundtofte-Bruun

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• user defined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programmers brainbug

  - by J.Colmsee

  Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D EDIT : more info : typedef ParticleId unsigned int; Particle has no user defined copyctor, but has a member of type : Particle { .... Resource<Texture> tex_res; ... } Resource is a smart-pointer class, and has all ctor's defined (also asignment operator) and it seems that Resource is copied bitwise. EDIT : henrik solved it... data(data) is stupid of course ! it should of course be rhs.data !!! sorry for huge amount of code, with a very little bug in it !!! (Guess you shouldn't code at 1 in the morning :D )

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• C++ adding friend to a template class in order to typecast

  - by user1835359

  I'm currently reading "Effective C++" and there is a chapter that contains code similiar to this: template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } }; template <typename T> Num<T> operator*(const Num<T>& lhs, const Num<T>& rhs) { ... } Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); The book says that this won't work (and indeed it doesn't) because you can't expect the compiler to use implicit typecasting to specialize a template. As a soluting it is suggested to use the "friend" syntax to define the function inside the class. //It works template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend Num operator*(const Num& lhs, const Num& rhs) { ... } }; Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); And the book suggests to use this friend-declaration thing whenever I need implicit conversion to a template class type. And it all seems to make sense. But why can't I get the same example working with a common function, not an operator? template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend void doFoo(const Num& lhs) { ... } }; doFoo(5); This time the compiler complaints that he can't find any 'doFoo' at all. And if i declare the doFoo outside the class, i get the reasonable mismatched types error. Seems like the "friend ..." part is just being ignored. So is there a problem with my understanding? What is the difference between a function and an operator in this case?

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• Addind link with existin href.

  - by Dom

  Hello gurus, Im trying to create link inside my list tag that will have href inherited from link that already exists in this list tag. Don't know how much sense does it makes, but i have this: <ul> <li><a href="page1.html">Support</a></li> <li><a href="page2.html">Products</a></li> <li><a href="page3.html">Management</a></li> <li><a href="page4.html">Others</a></li> </ul> and I need soothing like this: <ul> <li> <a href="page1.html">Support</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page1.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> <li> <a href="page2.html">Products</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page2.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> <li> <a href="page3.html">Management</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page3.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> <li> <a href="page4.html">Others</a> <div class="slideLink"><a href="page4.html">Click Here</a></div> </li> </ul> So far I have managed to add div with class and link within it with "click here" text, but i don't have a clue how to grab link href and add it to my new link. $('ul li a').each(function(){ $(this).after("<div class='slideLink'><a href=" + Link + ">Read more</div>"); }); Thank you for your help in advance. Best Regards Dom

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• Dynamic Multiple Choice (Like a Wizard) - How would you design it? (e.g. Schema, AI model, etc.)

  - by henry74

  This question can probably be broken up into multiple questions, but here goes... In essence, I'd like to allow users to type in what they would like to do and provide a wizard-like interface to ask for information which is missing to complete a requested query. For example, let's say a user types: "What is the weather like in Springfield?" We recognize the user is interested in weather, but it could be Springfield, Il or Springfield in another state. A follow-up question would be: What Springfield did you want weather for? 1 - Springfield, Il 2 - Springfield, Wi You can probably think of a million examples where a request is missing key data or its ambiguous. Make the assumption the gist of what the user wants can be understood, but there are missing pieces of data required to complete the request. Perhaps you can take it as far back as asking what the user wants to do and "leading" them to a query. This is not AI in the sense of taking any input and truly understanding it. I'm not referring to having some way to hold a conversation with a user. It's about inferring what a user wants, checking to see if there is an applicable service to be provided, identifying the inputs needed and overlaying that on top of what's missing from the request, then asking the user for the remaining information. That's it! :-) How would you want to store the information about services? How would you go about determining what was missing from the input data? My thoughts: Use regex expressions to identify clear pieces of information. These will be matched to the parameters of a service. Figure out which parameters do not have matching data and look up the associated question for those parameters. Ask those questions and capture answers. Re-run the service passing in the newly captured data. These would be more free-form questions. For multiple choice, identify the ambiguity and search for potential matches ranked in order of likelihood (add in user history/preferences to help decide). Provide the top 3 as choices. Thoughts appreciated. Cheers, Henry

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• How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

  - by Venemo

  Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

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• Javascript regex returning true.. then false.. then true.. etc

  - by betamax

  I have a strange problem with the validation I am writing on a form. It is a 'Check Username' button next to an input. The input default value is the username for example 'betamax'. When I press 'Check Username' it passes the regex and sends the username to the server. The server behaves as expected and returns '2' to tell the javascript that they are submitting their own username. Then, when I click the button again, the regex fails. Nothing is sent to the server obviously because the regex has failed. If I press the button again, the regex passes and then the username is sent to the server. I literally cannot figure out what would be making it do this! It makes no sense to me! This is my code: $j("#username-search").click(checkUserName); function checkUserName() { var userName = $j("#username").val(); var invalidUserMsg = 'Invalid username (a-zA-Z0-9 _ - and not - or _ at beginning or end of string)'; var filter = /^[^-_]([a-z0-9-_]{4,20})[^-_]$/gi; if (filter.test(userName)) { console.log("Pass") $j.post( "/account/profile/username_check/", { q: userName }, function(data){ if(data == 0) { $j("#username-search-results").html("Error searching for username. Try again?"); } else if(data == 5) { $j("#username-search-results").html(invalidUserMsg); } else if(data == 4) { $j("#username-search-results").html("Username too short or too long."); } else if(data == 2) { $j("#username-search-results").html("This is already your username."); } else if(data == 3) { $j("#username-search-results").html("This username is taken."); } else if(data == 1){ $j("#username-search-results").html("This username is available!"); } }); } else { console.log("fail") $j("#username-search-results").html(invalidUserMsg); } return false; } The HTML: <input name="username" id="username" value="{{ user.username }}" /> <input type="button" value="Is it taken?" id="username-search"> <span id="username-search-results"></span>

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• NHibernate Many to Many delete all my data in the table

  - by Daoming Yang

  I would love to thank @Stefan Steinegger and @David helped me out yesterday with many-to-many mapping. I have 3 tables which are "News", "Tags" and "News_Tags" with Many-To-Many relationship and the "News_Tags" is the link table. If I delete one of the news records, the following mappings will delete all my news records which have the same tags. One thing I need to notice, I only allowed unique tag stored in the "Tag" table. This mapping make sense for me, it will delete the tag and related News records, but how can I implement a tagging system with NHibernate? Can anyone give me some suggestion? Many thanks. Daoming. News Mapping: <class name="New" table="News" lazy="false"> <id name="NewID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Title" type="String"></property> <property name="Description" type="String"></property> <set name="TagsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="all"> <key column="NewID" /> <many-to-many class="Tag" column="TagID" /> </set> </class> Tag Mapping: <class name="Tag" table="Tags" lazy="false"> <id name="TagID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="TagName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> <!--inverse="true" has been defined in the "News mapping"--> <set name="NewsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="TagID" /> <many-to-many class="New" column="NewID" /> </set> </class>

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• How can I implement NotOfType<T> in LINQ that has a nice calling syntax?

  - by Lette

  I'm trying to come up with an implementation for NotOfType, which has a readable call syntax. NotOfType should be the complement to OfType<T> and would consequently yield all elements that are not of type T My goal was to implement a method which would be called just like OfType<T>, like in the last line of this snippet: public abstract class Animal {} public class Monkey : Animal {} public class Giraffe : Animal {} public class Lion : Animal {} var monkey = new Monkey(); var giraffe = new Giraffe(); var lion = new Lion(); IEnumerable<Animal> animals = new Animal[] { monkey, giraffe, lion }; IEnumerable<Animal> fewerAnimals = animals.NotOfType<Giraffe>(); However, I can not come up with an implementation that supports that specific calling syntax. This is what I've tried so far: public static class EnumerableExtensions { public static IEnumerable<T> NotOfType<T>(this IEnumerable<T> sequence, Type type) { return sequence.Where(x => x.GetType() != type); } public static IEnumerable<T> NotOfType<T, TExclude>(this IEnumerable<T> sequence) { return sequence.Where(x => !(x is TExclude)); } } Calling these methods would look like this: // Animal is inferred IEnumerable<Animal> fewerAnimals = animals.NotOfType(typeof(Giraffe)); and // Not all types could be inferred, so I have to state all types explicitly IEnumerable<Animal> fewerAnimals = animals.NotOfType<Animal, Giraffe>(); I think that there are major drawbacks with the style of both of these calls. The first one suffers from a redundant "of type/type of" construct, and the second one just doesn't make sense (do I want a list of animals that are neither Animals nor Giraffes?). So, is there a way to accomplish what I want? If not, could it be possible in future versions of the language? (I'm thinking that maybe one day we will have named type arguments, or that we only need to explicitly supply type arguments that can't be inferred?) Or am I just being silly?

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