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• Browser detection Plugin?

  - by chobo2

  Hi I have a website that I made and I am planning to redo it. The current version of the site used a jquery callout plugin that did not fully work in IE6. This got me thinking about browser detection. At first I was just going to put the supported browsers on the home page but then today on Digg I saw some post about some jquery plugins and wordpress and in the article there was a plugin for detecting IE. So I started to look around for some browser detection plugins. I found a few of them but they where over the top like this one sevenup Its nice but it makes a huge popup and tells them to update. This one is better then another one I found where they basically forced the user to update or they could not continue on the site. So I found this one jquery plugin This one is pretty nice since it looks at the major browsers and does detection on them too expect for chrome which I noticed triggers and an outdated browser with this plugin. So I started to look at the jquery documentation to see if they had a browser detection for chrome this is when I saw that they "Deprecated" and now recommend "Support". So now I am just confused like "Support" seems to be good and I read many posts on this site saying you should use it. But then it does not support stuff like .png detection that might have been useful to me since of that plugin(however I probably will not be using the plugin anymore since I think the author just gave up on it). Plus I don't know if this is something I am looking for at this time. Like I am guessing with "Support" you use it to detect something that is not supported and then do some alternative thing for that browser? For me I am more looking for something to tell the user "Hey look I tested this browser in the these versions of Firefox(3.5+), IE(8+), Opera(9.5+),Chrome(Something), Safari(Something). If your not using these versions you may not being seeing the site how it was intended" Of course I would try to have something shorter then that message but that the gyst. I am also assuming that the site would work in future versions of these browsers. I still check to see if my site works(they usually do) and is half decent in IE 6 but I won't spend hours fixing stuff that might be off in older browsers like IE 6. I won't test my site in older version of other browsers like firefox since I would think the user have to the sense to update so no point testing firefox 2.0 or whatever. So is there a plugin that fits this description? Or can "Support" do what I want? Thanks

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• Cepstral Analysis for pitch detection

  - by Ohmu

  Hi! I'm looking to extract pitches from a sound signal. Someone on IRC just explain to me how taking a double FFT achieves this. Specifically: take FFT take log of square of absolute value (can be done with lookup table) take another FFT take absolute value I am attempting this using vDSP I can't understand how I didn't come across this technique earlier. I did a lot of hunting and asking questions; several weeks worth. More to the point, I can't understand why I didn't think of it. I am attempting to achieve this with vDSP library. it looks as though it has functions to handle all of these tasks. However, I'm wondering about the accuracy of the final result. I have previously used a technique which scours the frequency bins of a single FFT for local maxima. when it encounters one, it uses a cunning technique (the change in phase since the last FFT) to more accurately place the actual peak within the bin. I am worried that this precision will be lost with this technique I'm presenting here. I guess the technique could be used after the second FFT to get the fundamental accurately. But it kind of looks like the information is lost in step 2. as this is a potentially tricky process, could someone with some experience just look over what I'm doing and check it for sanity? also, I've heard there is an alternative technique involving fitting a quadratic over neighbouring bins. Is this of comparable accuracy? if so, I would favour it, as it doesn't involve remembering bin phases. so questions: does this approach makes sense? Can it be improved? I'm a bit worried about And the log square component; there seems to be a vDSP function to do exactly that: vDSP_vdbcon however, there is no indication it precalculates a log-table -- I assume it doesn't, as the FFT function requires an explicit pre-calculation function to be called and passed into it. and this function doesn't. Is there some danger of harmonics being picked up? is there any cunning way of making vDSP pull out the maxima, biggest first? Can anyone point me towards some research or literature on this technique? the main question: is it accurate enough? Can the accuracy be improved? I have just been told by an expert that the accuracy IS INDEED not sufficient. Is this the end of the line? Pi PS I get SO annoyed (npi) when I want to create tags, but cannot. :| I have suggested to the maintainers that SO keep track of attempted tags, but I'm sure I was ignored. we need tags for vDSP, accelerate framework, cepstral analysis

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• Passing objects to a UITypeEditor

  - by Kath

  I am currently hoping to use a PropertyGrid to allow users to edit some of my classes, however I've hit a wall with passing objects to the UITypeEditor(s) they use. When the user presses the drop down I want to show a listbox of already loaded textures to choose from, if they want to use a texture the application hasn't loaded yet they can click a button to choose one from a file dialog. In case I make no sense here a mock of the form: . My problem: To fill the listbox I need access to the class that manages the list of resources from the UITypeEditor. Now I've solved this problem for my own classes by giving them a reference on creation to their managing object. In the UITypeEditor I then use that reference to access what I need. However I can't do this for classes I haven't written, such as the XNA Texture2D class. Here are what the classes I'm using look like: class StaticGeometryChunk { // Geometry data to draw with. Contains a reference to its managing // class for use in its UITypeEditor. public GeometryData { get; set; } .... } class Material { // These are XNA classes. I can't just add a reference to its managing // class (I think?). public Texture2D Texture1 { get; set; } public Texture2D Texture2 { get; set; } .... } I've been looking at my options and they seem to be: Make the managing classes static. I don't really want to do this. There are several managing classes as each resource is loaded differently. There are also classes that need to be created before these and are passed in. Make the managing classes singletons. I don't really want to do this either. It seems like a quick and dirty way to "hide" the problem instead of "solve" it. I also might want the option of having several managing classes in the future which the singletons eliminate. Create a wrapper class which holds the reference to a managing class and its target (such as the XNA Texture2D). This is currently what I'm thinking of doing. Its would be quite simple and quick to do but something about it nags me but I don't know what. Any thoughts on the above or other methods to pass what I need into the UITypeEditor? Thank you for reading.

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• Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

  - by Volomike

  I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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• web service filling gridview awfully slow, as is paging/sorting

  - by nat

  Hi I am making a page which calls a web service to fill a gridview this is returning alot of data, and is horribly slow. i ran the svcutil.exe on the wsdl page and it generated me the class and config so i have a load of strongly typed objects coming back from each request to the many service functions. i am then using LINQ to loop around the objects grabbing the necessary information as i go, but for each row in the grid i need to loop around an object, and grab another list of objects (from the same request) and loop around each of them.. 1 to many parent object child one.. all of this then gets dropped into a custom datatable a row at a time.. hope that makes sense.... im not sure there is any way to speed up the initial load. but surely i should be able to page/sort alot faster than it is doing. as at the moment, it appears to be taking as long to page/sort as it is to load initially. i thought if when i first loaded i put the datasource of the grid in the session, that i could whip it out of the session to deal with paging/sorting and the like. basically it is doing the below protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //init the datatable //grab the filter vars (if there are any) WebServiceObj WS = WSClient.Method(args); //fill the datatable (around and around we go) foreach (ParentObject po in WS.ReturnedObj) { var COs = from ChildObject c in WS.AnotherReturnedObj where c.whatever.equals(...) ...etc foreach(ChildObject c in COs){ myDataTable.Rows.Add(tlo.this, tlo.that, c.thisthing, c.thatthing, etc......); } } grdListing.DataSource = myDataTable; Session["dt"] = myDataTable; grdListing.DataBind(); } protected void Listing_PageIndexChanging(object sender, GridViewPageEventArgs e) { grdListing.PageIndex = e.NewPageIndex; grdListing.DataSource = Session["dt"] as DataTable; grdListing.DataBind(); } protected void Listing_Sorting(object sender, GridViewSortEventArgs e) { DataTable dt = Session["dt"] as DataTable; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); string sortDirection = " ASC"; if (e.SortDirection == SortDirection.Descending) sortDirection = " DESC"; dv.Sort = e.SortExpression + sortDirection; grdListing.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); grdListing.DataBind(); } am i doing this totally wrongly? or is the slowness just coming from the amount of data being bound in/return from the Web Service.. there are maybe 15 columns(ish) and a whole load of rows.. with more being added to the data the webservice is querying from all the time any suggestions / tips happily received thanks

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• Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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• AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

  - by Joern

  Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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• polymorphism, inheritance in c# - base class calling overridden method?

  - by Andrew Johns

  This code doesn't work, but hopefully you'll get what I'm trying to achieve here. I've got a Money class, which I've taken from http://www.noticeablydifferent.com/CodeSamples/Money.aspx, and extended it a little to include currency conversion. The implementation for the actual conversion rate could be different in each project, so I decided to move the actual method for retrieving a conversion rate (GetCurrencyConversionRate) into a derived class, but the ConvertTo method contains code that would work for any implementation assuming the derived class has overriden GetCurrencyConversionRate so it made sense to me to keep it in the parent class? So what I'm trying to do is get an instance of SubMoney, and be able to call the .ConvertTo() method, which would in turn use the overriden GetCurrencyConversionRate, and return a new instance of SubMoney. The problem is, I'm not really understanding some concepts of polymorphism and inheritance yet, so not quite sure what I'm trying to do is even possible in the way I think it is, as what is currently happening is that I end up with an Exception where it has used the base GetCurrencyConversionRate method instead of the derived one. Something tells me I need to move the ConvertTo method down to the derived class, but this seems like I'll be duplicating code in multiple implementations, so surely there's a better way? public class Money { public CurrencyConversionRate { get { return GetCurrencyConversionRate(_regionInfo.ISOCurrencySymbol); } } public static decimal GetCurrencyConversionRate(string isoCurrencySymbol) { throw new Exception("Must override this method if you wish to use it."); } public Money ConvertTo(string cultureName) { // convert to base USD first by dividing current amount by it's exchange rate. Money someMoney = this; decimal conversionRate = this.CurrencyConversionRate; decimal convertedUSDAmount = Money.Divide(someMoney, conversionRate).Amount; // now convert to new currency CultureInfo cultureInfo = new CultureInfo(cultureName); RegionInfo regionInfo = new RegionInfo(cultureInfo.LCID); conversionRate = GetCurrencyConversionRate(regionInfo.ISOCurrencySymbol); decimal convertedAmount = convertedUSDAmount * conversionRate; Money convertedMoney = new Money(convertedAmount, cultureName); return convertedMoney; } } public class SubMoney { public SubMoney(decimal amount, string cultureName) : base(amount, cultureName) {} public static new decimal GetCurrencyConversionRate(string isoCurrencySymbol) { // This would get the conversion rate from some web or database source decimal result = new Decimal(2); return result; } }

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• Patterns: Local Singleton vs. Global Singleton?

  - by Mike Rosenblum

  There is a pattern that I use from time to time, but I'm not quite sure what it is called. I was hoping that the SO community could help me out. The pattern is pretty simple, and consists of two parts: A singleton factory, which creates objects based on the arguments passed to the factory method. Objects created by the factory. So far this is just a standard "singleton" pattern or "factory pattern". The issue that I'm asking about, however, is that the singleton factory in this case maintains a set of references to every object that it ever creates, held within a dictionary. These references can sometimes be strong references and sometimes weak references, but it can always reference any object that it has ever created. When receiving a request for a "new" object, the factory first searches the dictionary to see if an object with the required arguments already exits. If it does, it returns that object, if not, it returns a new object and also stores a reference to the new object within the dictionary. This pattern prevents having duplicative objects representing the same underlying "thing". This is useful where the created objects are relatively expensive. It can also be useful where these objects perform event handling or messaging - having one object per item being represented can prevent multiple messages/events for a single underlying source. There are probably other reasons to use this pattern, but this is where I've found this useful. My question is: what to call this? In a sense, each object is a singleton, at least with respect to the data it contains. Each is unique. But there are multiple instances of this class, however, so it's not at all a true singleton. In my own personal terminology, I tend to call the factory method a "global singleton". I then call the created objects "local singletons". I sometimes also say that the created objects have "reference equality", meaning that if two variables reference the same data (the same underlying item) then the reference they each hold must be to the same exact object, hence "reference equality". But these are my own invented terms, and I am not sure that they are good ones. Is there standard terminology for this concept? And if not, could some naming suggestions be made? Thanks in advance...

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• Where are the function literals in c++?

  - by academicRobot

  First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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• using LoadControl with object initializer to create properties

  - by lloydphillips

  In the past I've used UserControls to create email templates which I can fill properties on and then use LoadControl and then RenderControl to get the html for which to use for the body text of my email. This was within asp.net webforms. I'm in the throws of building an mvc website and wanted to do something similar. I've actually considered putting this functionality in a seperate class library and am looking into how I can do this so that in my web layer I can just call EmailTemplate.SubscriptionEmail() which will then generate the html from my template with properties in relevant places (obviously there needs to be parameters for email address etc in there). I wanted to create a single Render control method for which I can pass a string to the path of the UserControl which is my template. I've come across this on the web that kind of suits my needs: public static string RenderUserControl(string path, string propertyName, object propertyValue) { Page pageHolder = new Page(); UserControl viewControl = (UserControl)pageHolder.LoadControl(path); if (propertyValue != null) { Type viewControlType = viewControl.GetType(); PropertyInfo property = viewControlType.GetProperty(propertyName); if (property != null) property.SetValue(viewControl, propertyValue, null); else { throw new Exception(string.Format( "UserControl: {0} does not have a public {1} property.", path, propertyName)); } } pageHolder.Controls.Add(viewControl); StringWriter output = new StringWriter(); HttpContext.Current.Server.Execute(pageHolder, output, false); return output.ToString(); } My issue is that my UserControl(s) may have multiple and differing properties. So SubscribeEmail may require FirstName and EmailAddress where another email template UserControl (lets call it DummyEmail) would require FirstName, EmailAddress and DateOfBirth. The method above only appears to carry one parameter for propertyName and propertyValue. I considered an array of strings that I could put the varying properties into but then I thought it'd be cool to have an object intialiser so I could call the method like this: RenderUserControl("EmailTemplates/SubscribeEmail.ascs", new object() { Firstname="Lloyd", Email="[email protected]" }) Does that make sense? I was just wondering if this is at all possible in the first place and how I'd implement it? I'm not sure if it would be possible to map the properties set on 'object' to properties on the loaded user control and if it is possible where to start in doing this? Has anyone done something like this before? Can anyone help? Lloyd

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• Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

  - by Emmel

  This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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• How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

  - by Ivan

  I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

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• Set a specific stylesheet based on session variable in javascript

  - by user2371301

  I have an option for a user to select his/her own theme while logged into the system and this theme is set in a MYSQL Database and called each time the user logs in, this is called by: <?php $_SESSION['SESS_THEME_NAME']; ?> Now, I had this working in a PHP file but I need it to work in Javascript instead unfortunately. And I need some help. I looked at the code using the developers tools on Google Chrome and looks like the above code is not resolving within the javascript file. Which makes sense because you can't access session variables within a javascript file (as I found by searching Google.) The code is basically supposed to set the specific stylesheet based on the value extracted from the MYSQL database. So if the database says Default the script needs to tell the webpage to use the default.css file. And so on and so forth. My attempt at writing this is as follows: var themName="<?php $_SESSION['SESS_THEME_NAME']; ?>"; if (themeName == "Default") { document.write("<link re='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Army") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-army.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Rocky Mountains") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-rocky.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Chinese Temple") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-chinese.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Boutique") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-boutique.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Toxic") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-toxic.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Aquamarine") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-aquamarine.css'>"); }; Any help once so ever would be awesome and much much appreciated! I am reaching a deadline :/

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• Which style is preferable when writing this boolean expression?

  - by Jeppe Stig Nielsen

  I know this question is to some degree a matter of taste. I admit this is not something I don't understand, it's just something I want to hear others' opinion about. I need to write a method that takes two arguments, a boolean and a string. The boolean is in a sense (which will be obvious shortly) redundant, but it is part of a specification that the method must take in both arguments, and must raise an exception with a specific message text if the boolean has the "wrong" value. The bool must be true if and only if the string is not null or empty. So here are some different styles to write (hopefully!) the same thing. Which one do you find is the most readable, and compliant with good coding practice? // option A: Use two if, repeat throw statement and duplication of message string public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName && string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); if (!useName && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option B: Long expression but using only && and || public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName && string.IsNullOrEmpty(name) || !useName && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option C: With == operator between booleans public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName == string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option D1: With XOR operator public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (!(useName ^ string.IsNullOrEmpty(name))) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option D2: With XOR operator public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName ^ !string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } Of course you're welcome to suggest other possibilities too. Message text "..." would be something like "If 'useName' is true a name must be given, and if 'useName' is false no name is allowed".

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• Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

  - by abszero

  I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

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• Regular expression to convert ul to textindent and back, with a different attribute value for first

  - by chapmanio

  Hi, This is a related to a previous question I have asked here, see the link below for a brief description as to why I am trying to do this. Regular expression from font to span (size and colour) and back (VB.NET) Basically I need a regex replace function (or if this can be done in pure VB then that's fine) to convert all ul tags in a string to textindent tags, with a different attribute value for the first textindent tag. For example: <ul> <li>This is some text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> <li> <ul> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </ul> </li> <li>More text!</li> <li> <ul> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </ul> </li> <li>More text!</li> </ul> Will become: <textformat indent="0"> <li>This is some text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> <li> <textformat indent="20"> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </textformat> </li> <li>More text!</li> <li> <textformat indent="20"> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </textformat> </li> <li>More text!</li> </textformat> Basically I want the first ul tag to have no indenting, but all nested ul tags to have an indent of 20. I appreciate this is a strange request but hopefully that makes sense, please let me know if you have any questions. Thanks in advance.

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• How does Sentry aggregate errors?

  - by Hugo Rodger-Brown

  I am using Sentry (in a django project), and I'd like to know how I can get the errors to aggregate properly. I am logging certain user actions as errors, so there is no underlying system exception, and am using the culprit attribute to set a friendly error name. The message is templated, and contains a common message ("User 'x' was unable to perform action because 'y'"), but is never exactly the same (different users, different conditions). Sentry clearly uses some set of attributes under the hood to determine whether to aggregate errors as the same exception, but despite having looked through the code, I can't work out how. Can anyone short-cut my having to dig further into the code and tell me what properties I need to set in order to manage aggregation as I would like? [UPDATE 1: event grouping] This line appears in sentry.models.Group: class Group(MessageBase): """ Aggregated message which summarizes a set of Events. """ ... class Meta: unique_together = (('project', 'logger', 'culprit', 'checksum'),) ... Which makes sense - project, logger and culprit I am setting at the moment - the problem is checksum. I will investigate further, however 'checksum' suggests that binary equivalence, which is never going to work - it must be possible to group instances of the same exception, with differenct attributes? [UPDATE 2: event checksums] The event checksum comes from the sentry.manager.get_checksum_from_event method: def get_checksum_from_event(event): for interface in event.interfaces.itervalues(): result = interface.get_hash() if result: hash = hashlib.md5() for r in result: hash.update(to_string(r)) return hash.hexdigest() return hashlib.md5(to_string(event.message)).hexdigest() Next stop - where do the event interfaces come from? [UPDATE 3: event interfaces] I have worked out that interfaces refer to the standard mechanism for describing data passed into sentry events, and that I am using the standard sentry.interfaces.Message and sentry.interfaces.User interfaces. Both of these will contain different data depending on the exception instance - and so a checksum will never match. Is there any way that I can exclude these from the checksum calculation? (Or at least the User interface value, as that has to be different - the Message interface value I could standardise.) [UPDATE 4: solution] Here are the two get_hash functions for the Message and User interfaces respectively: # sentry.interfaces.Message def get_hash(self): return [self.message] # sentry.interfaces.User def get_hash(self): return [] Looking at these two, only the Message.get_hash interface will return a value that is picked up by the get_checksum_for_event method, and so this is the one that will be returned (hashed etc.) The net effect of this is that the the checksum is evaluated on the message alone - which in theory means that I can standardise the message and keep the user definition unique. I've answered my own question here, but hopefully my investigation is of use to others having the same problem. (As an aside, I've also submitted a pull request against the Sentry documentation as part of this ;-)) (Note to anyone using / extending Sentry with custom interfaces - if you want to avoid your interface being use to group exceptions, return an empty list.)

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• CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

  - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy

  As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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• Can someone who understands C code help me understand this code?

  - by Benjamin

  INT GetTree (HWND hWnd, HTREEITEM hItem, HKEY *pRoot, TCHAR *pszKey, INT nMax) { TV_ITEM tvi; TCHAR szName[256]; HTREEITEM hParent; HWND hwndTV = GetDlgItem (hWnd, ID_TREEV); memset (&tvi, 0, sizeof (tvi)); hParent = TreeView_GetParent (hwndTV, hItem); if (hParent) { // Get the parent of the parent of the... GetTree (hWnd, hParent, pRoot, pszKey, nMax); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi); //send the TVM_GETITEM message? lstrcat (pszKey, TEXT ("\\")); lstrcat (pszKey, szName); } else { *pszKey = TEXT ('\0'); szName[0] = TEXT ('\0'); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT | TVIF_PARAM; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); if (TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi)) //*pRoot = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; //original hItem = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; else { INT rc = GetLastError(); } } return 0; } The block of code that begins with the comment "Get the name of the item" does not make sense to me. If you are getting the listview item why does the code set the parameters of the item being retrieved, because if you already had the values there would be no need to retrieve them. Secondly near the comment "original" is the original line of code which will compile with a varning under embedded visual c++, but if you copy the exact same code into visual studio 2008 it will not compile. Since I did not write any of this code and am trying to learn is it possible the original author made a mistake on this line, since the *pRoot should point to and HKEY type yet he is casting to an HTREEITEM type which should never work since the data types don't match? (Side note someone with a better reputation should add a windows ce tag to SO since windows mobile is not the same as windows ce.)

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• Javascript self contained sandbox events and client side stack

  - by amnon

  I'm in the process of moving a JSF heavy web application to a REST and mainly JS module application . I've watched "scalable javascript application architecture" by Nicholas Zakas on yui theater (excellent video) and implemented much of the talk with good success but i have some questions : I found the lecture a little confusing in regards to the relationship between modules and sandboxes , on one had to my understanding modules should not be effected by something happening outside of their sandbox and this is why they publish events via the sandbox (and not via the core as they do access the core for hiding base libary) but each module in the application gets a new sandbox ? , shouldn't the sandbox limit events to the modoules using it ? or should events be published cross page ? e.g. : if i have two editable tables but i want to contain each one in a different sandbox and it's events effect only the modules inside that sandbox something like messabe box per table which is a different module/widget how can i do that with sandbox per module , ofcourse i can prefix the events with the moduleid but that creates coupling that i want to avoid ... and i don't want to package modules toghter as one module per combination as i already have 6-7 modules ? while i can hide the base library for small things like id selector etc.. i would still like to use the base library for module dependencies and resource loading and use something like yui loader or dojo.require so in fact i'm hiding the base library but the modules themself are defined and loaded by the base library ... seems a little strange to me libraries don't return simple js objects but usualy wrap them e.g. : u can do something like $$('.classname').each(.. which cleans the code alot , it makes no sense to wrap the base and then in the module create a dependency for the base library by executing .each but not using those features makes a lot of code written which can be left out ... and implemnting that functionality is very bug prone does anyonen have any experience with building a front side stack of this order ? how easy is it to change a base library and/or have modules from different libraries , using yui datatable but doing form validation with dojo ... ? some what of a combination of 2+4 if u choose to do something like i said and load dojo form validation widgets for inputs via yui loader would that mean dojocore is a module and the form module is dependant on it ? Thanks .

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• Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

  - by jim

  I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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• Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

  - by Leoncelot

  Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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• Tab Bar and Nav Controller: Where did I go wrong in my Interface Builder wiring?

  - by editor

  Even if you don't know how I've shot myself in the foot, a story which I've tried to lay out below, if you think I've done a good job showing the parameters of my problem I'd appreciate an upvote so that I might be able to grab some attention for my question. I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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• How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

  - by Adam Jones

  I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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