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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • Retain a list of objects and pass it to the create/edit view when validation fails in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by brainnovative
    I am binding a Foreign key property in my model. I am passing a list of possible values for that property in my model. The model looks something like this: public class UserModel { public bool Email { get; set; } public bool Name { get; set; } public RoleModel Role { get; set; } public IList<RoleModel> Roles { get; set; } } public class RoleModel { public string RoleName { get; set; } } This is what I have in the controller: public ActionResult Create() { IList<RoleModel> roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles()); UserModel model = new UserModel() { Roles = roles }; return View(model); } In the view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Role) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.Role, new SelectList(Model.Roles, "RoleName", "RoleName", Model.Role))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Role)%> </div> What do I need to do to get the list of roles back to my controller to pass it again to the view when validation fails. This is what I need: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(UserModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // insert logic here } //the validation fails so I pass the model again to the view for user to update data but model.Roles is null :( return View(model); } As written in the comments above I need to pass the model with the list of roles again to my view but model.Roles is null. Currently I ask the service again for the roles (model.Roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles());) but I don't want to add an extra overhead of getting the list from DB when I have already done that.. Anyone knows how to do it?

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  • How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

    - by Ether
    I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

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  • SQL Server architecture guidance

    - by Liam
    Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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  • Filter Facebook Stream by Post privacy?

    - by fabian
    Hi there, i query some wall data within my facebook tab. I was wondering how to filter the data (query) to show only post which are visible to a certain country. $query = " SELECT post_id, created_time, attachment,action_links, privacy FROM stream WHERE source_id = ".$page_id." AND viewer_id = ".$user_id." AND actor_id = ".$actor_id." LIMIT 50"; The Output already show Australia: But how to filter for Australia-Only. Array ( [posts] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [post_id] => 123 [viewer_id] => 123 [source_id] => 123 [type] => 46 [app_id] => [attribution] => [actor_id] => 123 [target_id] => [message] => Only for Austria [attachment] => Array ( [description] => ) [app_data] => [action_links] => [comments] => Array ( [can_remove] => 1 [can_post] => 1 [count] => 0 [comment_list] => ) [likes] => Array ( [href] => http://www.facebook.com/social_graph.php?node_id=118229678189906&class=LikeManager [count] => 0 [sample] => [friends] => [user_likes] => 0 [can_like] => 1 ) [privacy] => Array ( [description] => Austria [value] => CUSTOM [friends] => [networks] => [allow] => [deny] => ) [updated_time] => 1271520716 [created_time] => 1271520716 [tagged_ids] => [is_hidden] => 0 [filter_key] => [permalink] => http://www.facebook.com/pages/ )

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  • on click button disabled click ent is working? using jquery

    - by kumar
    <div> <input id="PbtnSelectAll" type="button" class="button" value="Select All" /> <input id="PbtnSubmit" type="submit" class="button" value="Save" /> <input id="PbtnCancel" type="button" class="button" value="Cancel" /> </div> </fieldset> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#PbtnSubmit').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#PbtnCancel').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#PbtnSelectAll').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]').attr('checked', 'checked'); $('#PbtnSubmit').attr('disabled', false); $('#PbtnCancel').attr('disabled', false); $('fieldset').find("input:not(:checkbox),select,textarea").attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#genericfieldset').find("input,select,textarea").removeAttr('disabled'); }); $('#PbtnCancel').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').attr('checked', false); $('#PbtnSubmit').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#PbtnCancel').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); $('#exc-flwup').val(''); $('#Inquiry').val(''); $('#comments').val(''); $('#ResolutionCode option:eq(0)').attr('selected', 'selected'); $('#ReasonCode option:eq(0)').attr('selected', 'selected'); $('#ActionCode option:eq(0)').attr('selected', 'selected'); $('fieldset').find("input,select,textarea").removeAttr('disabled'); }); $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function(event) { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]:checked'); var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); event.preventDefault(); } }); }); function validate_excpt(formData, jqForm, options) { var form = jqForm[0]; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { if (responseText[0].substring(0, 16) != "System.Exception") { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update successful.</strong>'); } else { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update failed.</strong> ' + responseText[0].substring(0, 48)); } $('#error-msg-ID').removeClass('hide'); } $('#exc-').ajaxForm({ target: '#error-msg-ID', beforeSubmit: validate_excpt, success: showResponse, dataType: 'json' }); $('.button').button(); }); </script> this on begin form submit if I click Disabled Save and Cancel buttong still working after disabling also? i can see button is disbled but its working on click? when I click cancel its and not enabling back? still the button shows disbaled/ thanks

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  • Issues with subnavigation menus changing positions when using CSS in IE7

    - by Jacinda Littlefield
    The subnavigation menus (located just below the blue tabbed navigation) are showing up in a different position in IE7--they display correctly in Firefox and IE8: https://www.diservio.com/newsite/vehicle/auto-insurance.html I created a separate IE7 CSS file and added conditional comments in the HTML. Here are the properties I modified: topnav {padding-bottom: 10px;} subnavbg h3 {margin: -663px 0 0 -340px;} subnavmenu ul {margin: -663px 0 0 -340px;} leftsubnav {MARGIN: -601px 0 0 -550px;} Here's a portion of what the HTML looks like--all of the divs are nested inside the main div #container (not displayed): <div id="subplacement"> <div id="maincontent"> ... <h1>Auto Insurance</h1> <p>At Tony DiServio Insurance we know how important it is for you to protect yourself and your loved ones when you get behind the wheel.</p> </div> </div> ... <div id="subnavmenu"> <ul> <li><a href="auto-insurance.html" id="autolink" title="Auto Insurance Link"><span>Auto</span></a></li> <li><a href="motorcycle-insurance.html" id="cyclelink" title="Motorcycle Insurance Link"><span>Motorcycle</span></a></li> <li><a href="boat-insurance.html" id="boatlink" title="Boat Insurance Link"><span>Boat</span></a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="leftsubnav"> <ul> <li><a href="auto-coverage.html" id="coverlink" title="Coverage Link"><span>Coverage</span></a></li> </ul> </div> </div> The submenus are also bounced into different positions on the Home Vehicle page and Vehicle Auto Insurance Auto Coverage page. I can't figure out why. Any suggestions on what I need to fix for IE7?

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • What IPC method should I use between Firefox extension and C# code running on the same machine?

    - by Rory
    I have a question about how to structure communication between a (new) Firefox extension and existing C# code. The firefox extension will use configuration data and will produce other data, so needs to get the config data from somewhere and save it's output somewhere. The data is produced/consumed by existing C# code, so I need to decide how the extension should interact with the C# code. Some pertinent factors: It's only running on windows, in a relatively controlled corporate environment. I have a windows service running on the machine, built in C#. Storing the data in a local datastore (like sqlite) would be useful for other reasons. The volume of data is low, e.g. 10kb of uncompressed xml every few minutes, and isn't very 'chatty'. The data exchange can be asynchronous for the most part if not completely. As with all projects, I have limited resources so want an option that's relatively easy. It doesn't have to be ultra-high performance, but shouldn't add significant overhead. I'm planning on building the extension in javascript (although could be convinced otherwise if really necessary) Some options I'm considering: use an XPCOM to .NET/COM bridge use a sqlite db: the extension would read from and save to it. The c# code would run in the service, populating the db and then processing data created by the service. use TCP sockets to communicate between the extension and the service. Let the service manage a local data store. My problem with (1) is I think this will be tricky and not so easy. But I could be completely wrong? The main problem I see with (2) is the locking of sqlite: only a single process can write data at a time so there'd be some blocking. However, it would be nice generally to have a local datastore so this is an attractive option if the performance impact isn't too great. I don't know whether (3) would be particularly easy or hard ... or what approach to take on the protocol: something custom or http. Any comments on these ideas or other suggestions? UPDATE: I was planning on building the extension in javascript rather than c++

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  • Change Label Control Property Based on Data from SqlDataSource Inside a Repeater

    - by Furqan Muhammad Khan
    I am using a repeater control to populate data from SqlDataSource into my custom designed display-box. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" OnDataBinding="Repeater_ItemDataBound"> <HeaderTemplate> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <div class="bubble-content"> <div style="float: left;"> <h2 class="bubble-content-title"><%# Eval("CommentTitle") %></h2> </div> <div style="text-align: right;"> <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %> </asp:Label> </div> <div style="float: left;"> <p><%# Eval("CommentContent") %></p> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="mySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:myConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CommentTitle],[CommentType],[CommentContent] FROM [Comments] WHERE ([PostId] = @PostId)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="PostId" QueryStringField="id" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Now, there can be three types of "CommentTypes" in the database. I want to change the CssClass property of "lbl_category" based on the value of [CommentType]. I tried doing this: <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" CssClass="<%# Eval("CommentType") %>" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %></asp:Label> But this gives an error: "The server control is not well formed" and haven't been able to find a way to achieve this in the code behind. Can someone please help?

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  • Refactoring Singleton Overuse

    - by drharris
    Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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  • What can cause System.Move to occasionaly give wrong results?

    - by Fredrik Loftheim
    The last few days we have had some strange problems with our database components developed by a third party. There has been no changes to these components for months. The code that HAS changed the last few days is our own code and we have also updated our gui-components developed by another third party. After debugging I have found that a call to System.Move in one of the database component procedures occationaly gives wrong results! Please take a look at the code below from the database components and read my comments. How can this inconsistent behaviour happen? Can anyone give me an idea of how to procede to find the cause of this inconsistent behaviour? NB! I dont think there is anything wrong with THIS code, it is only shown to explain the problem "symptoms". My guess is that there is some sort of memory corruption or something, caused by our code or the updated gui-component-code. Edit: Take a look at the blogpost linked below. It seems that it could be related to my problem. At least as I read it it confirms that System.Move can give wrong results: http://blog.excastle.com/2007/08/28/delphi-bug-of-the-day-fpu-stack-leak/ Procedure InternalDescribe; var cbufl: sb4; //sb4=LongInt cbuf: array[0..30] of char; cbufp: PChar; //.... begin //..Some code repeat //...Some code to initialize cbufp and cbufl //On the 15. iteration the values immediately Before Move are always these: //cbufp = 'STDPRODUCTSTOREDELEMENTSCOUNT' //cbuf = ('S', 'T', 'A', 'T', 'U', 'S', #0, 'E', 'V', 'A', 'R', 'R', 'E', 'C', 'I', 'D', #0, 'D', 'U', 'C', 'T', 'I', 'D', #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, #0) //cbufl = 29 Move(cbufp^, cbuf, cbufl); //Values immediately After Move should then be: //cbuf = ('S', 'T', 'D', 'P', 'R', 'O', 'D', 'U', 'C', 'T', 'S', 'T', 'O', 'R', 'E', 'D', 'E', 'L', 'E', 'M', 'E', 'N', 'T', 'S', 'C', 'O', 'U', 'N', 'T', #0, #0) //But sometimes this Move results in this value( 1 in 5..15 times): //cbuf = ('S', 'T', 'D', 'P', 'R', 'O', 'D', 'U', 'C', 'T', 'S', 'T', 'O', 'R', 'E', 'D', #0, #0, #0, #0, #0, 'N', 'T', 'S', 'C', 'O', 'U', 'N', 'T', #0, #0) } until SomeCondition; //...Some more code end;

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  • Truth tables in code? How to structure state machine?

    - by HanClinto
    I have a (somewhat) large truth table / state machine that I need to implement in my code (embedded C). I anticipate the behavior specification of this state machine to change in the future, and so I'd like to keep this easily modifiable in the future. My truth table has 4 inputs and 4 outputs. I have it all in an Excel spreadsheet, and if I could just paste that into my code with a little formatting, that would be ideal. I was thinking I would like to access my truth table like so: u8 newState[] = decisionTable[input1][input2][input3][input4]; And then I could access the output values with: setOutputPin( LINE_0, newState[0] ); setOutputPin( LINE_1, newState[1] ); setOutputPin( LINE_2, newState[2] ); setOutputPin( LINE_3, newState[3] ); But in order to get that, it looks like I would have to do a fairly confusing table like so: static u8 decisionTable[][][][][] = {{{{ 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }}, {{ 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }}}, {{{ 0, 0, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}}, {{{{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}, {{{ 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}}; Those nested brackets can be somewhat confusing -- does anyone have a better idea for how I can keep a pretty looking table in my code? Thanks! Edit based on HUAGHAGUAH's answer: Using an amalgamation of everyone's input (thanks -- I wish I could "accept" 3 or 4 of these answers), I think I'm going to try it as a two dimensional array. I'll index into my array using a small bit-shifting macro: #define SM_INPUTS( in0, in1, in2, in3 ) ((in0 << 0) | (in1 << 1) | (in2 << 2) | (in3 << 3)) And that will let my truth table array look like this: static u8 decisionTable[][] = { { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}; And I can then access my truth table like so: decisionTable[ SM_INPUTS( line1, line2, line3, line4 ) ] I'll give that a shot and see how it works out. I'll also be replacing the 0's and 1's with more helpful #defines that express what each state means, along with /**/ comments that explain the inputs for each line of outputs. Thanks for the help, everyone!

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  • Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

    - by villintehaspam
    Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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  • Techniques for querying a set of object in-memory in a Java application

    - by Edd Grant
    Hi All, We have a system which performs a 'coarse search' by invoking an interface on another system which returns a set of Java objects. Once we have received the search results I need to be able to further filter the resulting Java objects based on certain criteria describing the state of the attributes (e.g. from the initial objects return all objects where x.y z && a.b == c). The criteria used to filter the set of objects each time is partially user configurable, by this I mean that users will be able to select the values and ranges to match on but the attributes they can pick from will be a fixed set. The data sets are likely to contain <= 10,000 objects for each search. The search will be executed manually by the application user base probably no more than 2000 times a day (approx). It's probably worth mentioning that all the objects in the result set are known domain object classes which have Hibernate and JPA annotations describing their structure and relationship. Off the top of my head I can think of 3 ways of doing this: For each search persist the initial result set objects in our database, then use Hibernate to re-query them using the finer grained criteria. Use an in-memory Database (such as hsqldb?) to query and refine the initial result set. Write some custom code which iterates the initial result set and pulls out the desired records. Option 1 seems to involve a lot of toing and froing across a network to a physical Database (Oracle 10g) which might result in a lot of network and disk activity. It would also require the results from each search to be isolated from other result sets to ensure that different searches don't interfere with each other. Option 2 seems like a good idea in principle as it would allow me to do the finer query in memory and would not require the persistence of result data which would only be discarded after the search was complete. Gut feeling is that this could be pretty performant too but might result in larger memory overheads (which is fine as we can be pretty flexible on the amount of memory our JVM gets). Option 3 could be very performant but is something I would like to avoid as any code we write would require such careful testing that the time taken to acheive something flexible and robust enough would probably be prohibitive. I don't have time to prototype all 3 ideas so I am looking for comments people may have on the 3 options above, plus any further ideas I have not considered, to help me decide which idea might be most suitable. I'm currently leaning toward option 2 (in memory database) so would be keen to hear from people with experience of querying POJOs in memory too. Hopefully I have described the situation in enough detail but don't hesitate to ask if any further information is required to better understand the scenario. Cheers, Edd

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  • EJB / JSF java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.ericsantanna.jobFC.dao.DAOFactoryRemote from [Module "com.sun.jsf-impl:main" from local module loader

    - by Eric Sant'Anna
    I'm in my first time using EJB and JSF, and I can't resolve this: 20:23:12,457 Grave [javax.enterprise.resource.webcontainer.jsf.application] (http-localhost-127.0.0.1-8081-2) com.ericsantanna.jobFC.dao.DAOFactoryRemote from [Module "com.sun.jsf-impl:main" from local module loader @439db2b2 (roots: C:\jboss-as-7.1.1.Final\modules)]: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.ericsantanna.jobFC.dao.DAOFactoryRemote from [Module "com.sun.jsf-impl:main" from local module loader @439db2b2 (roots: C:\jboss-as-7.1.1.Final\modules)] I'm getting this when I do an action like a selectOneMenu or a commandButton click. DAOFactory.class @Singleton @Remote(DAOFactoryRemote.class) public class DAOFactory implements DAOFactoryRemote { private static final long serialVersionUID = 6030538139815885895L; @PersistenceContext private EntityManager entityManager; @EJB private JobDAORemote jobDAORemote; /** * Default constructor. */ public DAOFactory() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override public JobDAORemote getJobDAO() { JobDAO jobDAO = (JobDAO) jobDAORemote; jobDAO.setEntityManager(entityManager); return jobDAO; } JobDAO.class @Stateless @Remote(JobDAORemote.class) public class JobDAO implements JobDAORemote { private static final long serialVersionUID = -5483992924812255349L; private EntityManager entityManager; /** * Default constructor. */ public JobDAO() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override public void insert(Job t) { entityManager.persist(t); } @Override public Job findById(Class<Job> classe, Long id) { return entityManager.getReference(classe, id); } @Override public Job findByName(Class<Job> clazz, String name) { return entityManager .createQuery("SELECT job FROM " + clazz.getName() + " job WHERE job.nome = :nome" , Job.class) .setParameter("name", name) .getSingleResult(); } ... TriggerFormBean.class @ManagedBean @ViewScoped @Stateless public class TriggerFormBean implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -3293560384606586480L; @EJB private DAOFactoryRemote daoFactory; @EJB private TriggerManagerRemote triggerManagerRemote; ... triggerForm.xhtml (a portion with problem) </p:layoutUnit> <p:layoutUnit id="eastConditionPanel" position="center" size="50%"> <p:panel header="Conditions to Release" style="width:97%;height:97%;"> <h:panelGrid columns="2" cellpadding="3"> <h:outputLabel value="Condition Name:" for="conditionName" /> <p:inputText id="conditionName" value="#{triggerFormBean.newCondition.name}" /> </h:panelGrid> <p:commandButton value="Add Condition" update="conditionsToReleaseList" id="addConditionToRelease" actionListener="#{triggerFormBean.addNewCondition}" /> <p:orderList id="conditionsToReleaseList" value="#{triggerFormBean.trigger.conditionsToRelease}" var="condition" controlsLocation="none" itemLabel="#{condition.name}" itemValue="#{condition}" iconOnly="true" style="width:97%;heigth:97%;"/> </p:panel> </p:layoutUnit> In TriggerFormBean.class if comments daoFactory we get the same exception with triggerManagerRemote, both annotated with @EJB. I'm don't understand the relationship between my DAOFactory and the "Module com.sun.jsf-impl:main"... Thanks.

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  • Validate dependent model validation and show error message.

    - by piemesons
    Just taking a simple example. We have a question on stackoverflow and while posting a question we want to validate title_of_question, description_of_question that they should be present. Now we have a another model tag having habtm relationshio with question model. How to validate that while saving the question. Means question must have some tags. here the code:-- Models:-- class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_and_belongs_to_many :tags has_many :comments, :as => :commentable has_many :answers, :dependent => :destroy validates_presence_of :title, :content, :user_id end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :questions validates_presence_of :tag end Form for entering question and tag <div class="form"> <% form_for :question ,@question, :url => {:action => "create" } do |f| %> <fieldset> <%= f.error_messages %> <legend>Post a question</legend> <div> <%= f.label :title %>: <%= f.text_field :title, :size => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= f.label :content ,'Question' %>: <%= f.text_area :content, :rows => 10, :cols => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= label_tag 'tags' %>: <%= text_field_tag 'tag' ,'',:size=> 60 %> add multiple tag using comma </div> <div> <%= submit_tag "Post question" %> </div> </fieldset> <% end %> </div> From Controller.. (Right now question will be saved without validating tag) def create @question = Question.new(params[:question]) @question.user_id=session[:user_id] if @question.save flash[:notice] = "Question has been posted." redirect_to question_index_path else render :action => "new" end end questions_tags table has been created. One approach is creating a virtual column using attribute accessors. another approach is validate associated. right now assuming new tags can be created.(but not duplicate).

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  • Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

    - by Axeman
    In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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  • How does Page.IsValid work?

    - by Lijo
    I have following code with a RequiredFieldValidator. The EnableClientScript property is set as "false" in the validation control. Also I have disabled script in browser. I am NOT using Page.IsValid in code behind. Still, when I submit without any value in textbox I will get error message. From comments of @Dai, I came to know that this can be an issue, if there is any code in Page_Load that is executed in a postback. There will be no validation errors thrown. (However, for button click handler, there is no need to check Page.IsValid) if (Page.IsPostBack) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; txtEmpName.Text = value + "Appended"; } QUESTION Why the server side validation does not happen before Page_Load? Why it works fine when I use Page.IsValid? UPDATE It seems like, we need to add If(Page.IsValid) in button click also if we are using a Custom Validator with server side validation. Refer CustomValidator not working well. Note: Client side validation question is present here: Whether to use Page_IsValid or Page_ClientValidate() (for Client Side Events) MARKUP <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> alert('haiii'); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ValidationSummary runat="server" ID="vsumAll" DisplayMode="BulletList" CssClass="validationsummary" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmpName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valEmpName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtEmpName" EnableClientScript="false" ErrorMessage="RequiredFieldValidator" Text="*" Display="Dynamic" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> CODE BEHIND protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; SubmitEmployee(value); } References: Should I always call Page.IsValid? ASP.NET Validation Controls – Important Points, Tips and Tricks CustomValidator not working well

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  • JQuery Ajax Updating MySQL Database, But Not Running Success Function

    - by myrmidon16
    I am currently using the JQuery ajax function to call an exterior PHP file, in which I select and add data in a database. Once this is done, I run a success function in JavaScript. What's weird is that the database is updating successfully when ajax is called, however the success function is not running. Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.6.4.js"></script> </head> <body> <div onclick="addtask();" style="width:400px; height:200px; background:#000000;"></div> <script> function addtask() { var tid = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 3)) + 1; var tsk = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 10)) + 1; if(tsk !== 1) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "taskcheck.php", dataType: "json", data: {taskid:tid}, success: function(task) {alert(task.name);} }); } } </script> </body> </html> And the PHP file: session_start(); $connect = mysql_connect('x', 'x', 'x') or die('Not Connecting'); mysql_select_db('x') or die ('No Database Selected'); $task = $_REQUEST['taskid']; $uid = $_SESSION['user_id']; $q = "SELECT task_id, taskname FROM tasks WHERE task_id=" .$task. " LIMIT 1"; $gettask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $q = "INSERT INTO user_tasks (ut_id, user_id, task_id, taskstatus, taskactive) VALUES (null, " .$uid. ", '{$gettask['task_id']}', 0, 1)"; $puttask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $json = array( "name" => $gettask['taskname'] ); $output = json_encode($json); echo $output; Let me know if you have any questions or comments, thanks.

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  • SQL Design Question regarding schema and if Name value pair is the best solution

    - by Aur
    I am having a small problem trying to decide on database schema for a current project. I am by no means a DBA. The application parses through a file based on user input and enters that data in the database. The number of fields that can be parsed is between 1 and 42 at the current moment. The current design of the database is entirely flat with there being 42 columns; some have repeated columns such as address1, address2, address3, etc... This says that I should normalize the data. However, data integrity is not needed at this moment and the way the data is shaped I'm looking at several joins. Not a bad thing but the data is still in a 1 to 1 relationship and I still see a lot of empty fields per row. So my concerns are that this does not allow the database or the application to be very extendable. If they want to add more fields to be parsed (which they do) than I'd need to create another table and add another foreign key to the linking table. The third option is I have a table where the fields are defined and a table for each record. So what I was thinking is to make a table that stores the value and then links to those two tables. The problem is I can picture the size of that table growing large depending on the input size. If someone gives me a file with 300,000 records than 300,000 x 40 = 12 million so I have some reservations. However I think if I get to that point than I should be happy it is being used. This option also allows for more custom displaying of information albeit a bit more work but little rework even if you add more fields. So the problem boils down to: 1. Current design is a flat file which makes extending it hard and it is not normalized. 2. Normalize the tables although no real benefits for the moment but requirements change. 3. Normalize it down into the name value pair and hope size doesn't hurt. There are a large number of inserts, updates, and selects against that table. So performance is a worry but I believe the saying is design now, performance testing later? I'm probably just missing something practical so any comments would be appreciated even if it’s a quick sanity check. Thank you for your time.

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  • JavaScript - Inheritance in Constructors

    - by j0ker
    For a JavaScript project we want to introduce object inheritance to decrease code duplication. However, I cannot quite get it working the way I want and need some help. We use the module pattern. Suppose there is a super element: a.namespace('a.elements.Element'); a.elements.Element = (function() { // public API -- constructor Element = function(properties) { this.id = properties.id; }; // public API -- prototype Element.prototype = { getID: function() { return this.id; } }; return Element; }()); And an element inheriting from this super element: a.namespace('a.elements.SubElement'); a.elements.SubElement = (function() { // public API -- constructor SubElement = function(properties) { // inheritance happens here // ??? this.color = properties.color; this.bogus = this.id + 1; }; // public API -- prototype SubElement.prototype = { getColor: function() { return this.color; } }; return SubElement; }()); You will notice that I'm not quite sure how to implement the inheritance itself. In the constructor I have to be able to pass the parameter to the super object constructor and create a super element that is then used to create the inherited one. I need a (comfortable) possibility to access the properties of the super object within the constructor of the new object. Ideally I could operate on the super object as if it was part of the new object. I also want to be able to create a new SubElement and call getID() on it. What I want to accomplish seems like the traditional class based inheritance. However, I'd like to do it using prototypal inheritance since that's the JavaScript way. Is that even doable? Thanks in advance! EDIT: Fixed usage of private variables as suggested in the comments. EDIT2: Another change of the code: It's important that id is accessible from the constructor of SubElement.

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  • Large transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" error?

    - by Michael
    My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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  • How do you hide an image tag based on an ajax response?

    - by Chris
    What is the correct jquery statement to replace the "//Needed magic" comments below so that the image tags are hidden or unhidden based on the AJAX responses? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <title>JQuery</title> <style type="text/css"> .isSolvedImage{ width: 68px; height: 47px; border: 1px solid red; cursor: pointer; } </style> <script src="_js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"> </script> </head> <body> <div id='true1.txt' class='isSolvedImage'> <img src="_images/solved.png"> </div> <div id='false1.txt' class='isSolvedImage'> <img src="_images/solved.png"> </div> <div id='true2.txt' class='isSolvedImage'> <img src="_images/solved.png"> </div> <div id='false2.txt' class='isSolvedImage'> <img src="_images/solved.png"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ var getDivs = 0; //iterate div with class isSolvedImage $("div.isSolvedImage").each(function() { alert('div id--'+this.id); // send ajax requrest $.get(this.id, function(data) { // check if ajax response is 1 alert('div id--'+this.url+'--ajax response--'+data); if(data == 1){ alert('div id--'+this.url+'--Unhiding image--'); //Needed magic //Show image if data==1 } else{ alert('div id--'+this.url+'--Hiding image--'); //Needed magic //Hide image if data!=1 } }); }); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Best way to ask confirmation from user before leaving the page

    - by JohnathanKong
    Hey Everyone, I am currently building a registration page where if the user leaves, I want to pop up a CSS box asking him if he is sure or not. I can accomplish this feat using confirm boxes, but the client says that they are too ugly. I've tried using unload and beforeunload, but both cannot stop the page from being redirected. Using those to events, I return false, so maybe there's a way to cancel other than returning false? Another solution that I've had was redirecting them to another page that has my popup, but the problem with that is that if they do want to leave the page, and it wasn't a mistake, they lose the page they were originally trying to go to. If I was a user, that would irritate me. The last solution was real popup window. The only thing I don't like about that is that the main winow will have their destination page while the pop will have my page. In my opinion it looks disjoint. On top of that, I'd be worried about popup blockers. Just to add to everyones comments. I understand that it is irritating to prevent users from exiting the page, and in my opinion it should not be done. Right now I am using a confirm box at this point. What happens is that it's not actually "preventing" the user from leaving, what the client actually wants to do is make a suggestion if the user is having doubts about registering. If the user is halfway through the registraiton process and leaves for some reason, the client wants to offer the user a free coupon to a seminar (this client is selling seminars) to hopefully persuade the user to register. The client is under the impression that since the user is already on the form, he is thinking of registering, and therefore maybe a seminar of what he is registering for would be the final push to get the user to register. Ideally I don't have to prevent the user from leaving, what would be just as good, and in my opinion better is if I can pause the unload process. Maybe a sleep command? I don't really have to keep the user on the page because either way they will be leaving to go to a different page. Also, as people have stated, this is a terriable title, so if someone knows a better one, I'd really appreciate it if they could change the title to something no so spammer inviting.

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