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• Ubuntu 12.04 login screen flickers. “Could not write bytes: broken pipes”

  - by Brayn

  I use Ubuntu 12.04 x64 with a dual-boot setup. Yesterday it worked fine but this morning when I attempted to boot it gets to the login screen and then it just flickers, alternating between the login screen and the console showing boot items (mainly Apache, the last one being "Battery status" although it's a desktop) all with [OK] status. The only error that I can see is: "Could not write bytes: broken pipes" on top of the screen. The only things I can think of that could cause this are: This morning I had a removable hdd plugged in during boot time, which I usually don't have Yesterday I've installed Dwarven Fortress that requires some x32 libraries so I've installed ia32 using synaptic. As far as I know this shouldn't brake the system but I didn't reboot yesterday so I can't be sure. I've tried booting in recovery mode and tried running the utils there but still no luck. I've ran out of ideas. Thanks. EDIT: Forgot to mention that all partitions have plenty of free space EDIT2: In the end I just reinstalled Ubuntu as time was of the essence.

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• Evaluating this huge .... thing? [closed]

  - by Shark

  I'll just leave this here: superTiled = ((((gctUINT32) (hardware->chipMinorFeatures)) >> (0 ? 12:12) & ((gctUINT32) ((((1 ? 12:12) - (0 ? 12:12) + 1) == 32) ? ~0 : (~(~0 << ((1 ? 12:12) - (0 ? 12:12) + 1)))))) == (0x1 & ((gctUINT32) ((((1 ? 12:12) - (0 ? 12:12) + 1) == 32) ? ~0 : (~(~0 << ((1 ? 12:12) - (0 ? 12:12) + 1))))))); If you can break it down into 'steps' or a single numeric value - props to you :) I see that this is generated/ unwrapped macros code but .... can't really wrap around it atm. The first person that breaks this down / simplifies it a bit gets to know which driver i found it in. Cheers :)

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• c++ accumulate with move instead of copy [migrated]

  - by user74399

  I have the following code auto adder = [](string& s1, const string& s2)->string&& { if (!s1.empty()) s1 += " "; s1 += s2; return move(s1); }; string test; test.reserve(wordArray.size() * 10); string words = accumulate(wordArray.begin(), wordArray.end(), move(test), adder); What I would like here is to avoid string copying. Unfortunately this is not accomplished by the vs2012 implementation of accumulate. Internally accumulate calls another function _Accumulate and the rvalue functionality gets lost in the process. It I instead call the _Accumulate function like so string words = Accumulate(wordArray.begin(), wordArray.end(), move(test), adder); I get the intended performance gain. Must the std library be rewritten to take rvalue arguments into consideration? Is there some other way I may use accumulate to accomplish what I want without cheating to much?

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• Silverlight ItemsControl vertical scrollbar, using a wrappanel as ControlTemplate

  - by Orestes C.A.

  I have a collection of elements, each one with a name and a subcollection of image blobs. I want to display an Accordion, with each item representing each of the MainElements. inside each element, I display the images in the subcollecion of said MainElement. The Accordion gets resized by the user, so I use a wrappanel for presenting the images. When the accordion is wide enough, the images reorder themselves fitting as many as posible in each row. the problem comes when the wrappanel only displays one image per row (because there's no space enough for more), the image list continues, but I can't see all the images, because they don't fit inside the control's height. I need a vertical scrollbar to be displayed inside the AccordionItem so I can scroll down the image list. So, here's my code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion Width="Auto" Height="Auto" ItemsSource="{Binding MainElementCollection}"> <layoutToolkit:Accordion.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding MainElementName}" /> </DataTemplate> </layoutToolkit:Accordion.ItemTemplate> <layoutToolkit:Accordion.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding SubElementCollection}" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" > <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate> <controlsToolkit:WrapPanel /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Image Margin="2" Width="150" Source="{Binding PreviewImage, Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </DataTemplate> </layoutToolkit:Accordion.ContentTemplate> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> http://www.silverlightshow.net/tips/How-to-add-scrollbars-to-ItemsControl.aspx suggests that I should surround my wrappanel with a scrollviewer, like this <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate> <scrollviewer> <controlsToolkit:WrapPanel /> </scrollviewer> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> But then my wrappanel gets really small and I can only see a small vertical scrollbar Any ideas? Thanks a lot. Edit: I figured thatthe wrappanel loses its width when used in the controltemplate It should be used as follows: <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <controlsToolkit:WrapPanel ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> Anyway, I tried adding the ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" line but I'm stuck again.

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• jQuery Validate - require at least one field in a group to be filled

  - by Nathan Long

  I'm using the excellent jQuery Validate Plugin to validate some forms. On one form, I need to ensure that the user fills in at least one of a group of fields. I think I've got a pretty good solution, and wanted to share it. Please suggest any improvements you can think of. Finding no built-in way to do this, I searched and found Rebecca Murphey's custom validation method, which was very helpful. I improved this in three ways: To let you pass in a selector for the group of fields To let you specify how many of that group must be filled for validation to pass To show all inputs in the group as passing validation as soon as one of them passes validation. So you can say "at least X inputs that match selector Y must be filled." The end result is a rule like this: partnumber: { require_from_group: [2,".productinfo"] } //The partnumber input will validate if //at least 2 `.productinfo` inputs are filled For best results, put this rule AFTER any formatting rules for that field (like "must contain only numbers", etc). This way, if the user gets an error from this rule and starts filling out one of the fields, they will get immediate feedback about the formatting required without having to fill another field first. Item #3 assumes that you're adding a class of .checked to your error messages upon successful validation. You can do this as follows, as demonstrated here. success: function(label) { label.html(" ").addClass("checked"); } As in the demo linked above, I use CSS to give each span.error an X image as its background, unless it has the class .checked, in which case it gets a check mark image. Here's my code so far: jQuery.validator.addMethod("require_from_group", function(value, element, options) { // From the options array, find out what selector matches // our group of inputs and how many of them should be filled. numberRequired = options[0]; selector = options[1]; var commonParent = $(element).parents('form'); var numberFilled = 0; commonParent.find(selector).each(function(){ // Look through fields matching our selector and total up // how many of them have been filled if ($(this).val()) { numberFilled++; } }); if (numberFilled >= numberRequired) { // This part is a bit of a hack - we make these // fields look like they've passed validation by // hiding their error messages, etc. Strictly speaking, // they haven't been re-validated, though, so it's possible // that we're hiding another validation problem. But there's // no way (that I know of) to trigger actual re-validation, // and in any case, any other errors will pop back up when // the user tries to submit the form. // If anyone knows a way to re-validate, please comment. // // For imputs matching our selector, remove error class // from their text. commonParent.find(selector).removeClass('error'); // Also look for inserted error messages and mark them // with class 'checked' var remainingErrors = commonParent.find(selector) .next('label.error').not('.checked'); remainingErrors.text("").addClass('checked'); // Tell the Validate plugin that this test passed return true; } // The {0} in the next line is the 0th item in the options array }, jQuery.format("Please fill out at least {0} of these fields.")); Questions? Comments?

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• Mercurial hg clone on Windows via ssh with copSSH issue

  - by Kyle Tolle

  I have a Windows Server 2008 machine (iis7) that has CopSSH set up on it. To connect to it, I have a Windows 7 machine with Mercurial 1.5.1 (and TortoiseHg) installed. I can connect to the server using PuTTY with a non-standard ssh port and a .ppk file just fine. So I know the server can be SSH'd into. Next, I wanted to use the CLI to connect via hg clone to get a private repo. I've seen elsewhere that you need to have ssh configured in your mercurial.ini file, so my mercurial.ini has a line: ssh = plink.exe -ssh -C -l username -P #### -i "C:/Program Files/PuTTY/Key Files/KyleKey.ppk" Note: username is filled in with the username I set up via copSSH. #### is filled in with the non-standard ssh port I've defined for copSSH. I try to do the command hg clone ssh://inthom.com but I get this error: remote: bash: inthom.com: command not found abort: no suitable response from remote hg! It looks like hg or plink parses the hostname such that it thinks that inthom.com is a command instead of the server to ssh to. That's really odd. Next, I tried to just use plink to connect by plink -P #### ssh://inthom.com, and I am then prompted for my username, and next password. I enter them both and then I get this error: bash: ssh://inthom.com: No such file or directory So now it looks like plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly. I fiddled around for a while trying to figure out how to do call hg clone with an empty ssh:// field and eventually figured out that this command allows me to reach the server and clone a test repo on the inthom.com server: hg clone ssh://!/Repos/test ! is the character I've found that let's me leave the hostname blank, but specify the repo folder to clone. What I really don't understand is how plink knows what server to ssh to at all. neither my mercurial.ini nor the command specify a server. None of the hg clone examples I've seen have a ! character. They all use an address, which makes sense, so you can connect to any repo via ssh that you want to clone. My only guess is that it somehow defaults to the last server I used PuTTY to SSH to, but I SSH'd into another server, and then tried to use plink to get to it, but plink still defaults to inthom.com (verified with the -v arg to plink). So I am at a loss as to how plink gets this server value at all. For "fun", I tried using TortoiseHg and can only clone a repo when I use ssh://!/Repos/test as the Source. Now, you can see that, since plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly, I had to specify the port number and username in the mercurial.ini file, instead of in the hostname like [email protected]:#### like you'd expect to. Trying to figure this out at first drove me insane, because I would get errors that the host couldn't be reached, which I knew shouldn't be the case. My question is how can I configure my setup so that ssh://[email protected]:####/Repos/test is parsed correctly as the username, hostname, port number, and repo to copy? Is it something wrong with the version of plink that I'm using, or is there some setting I may have messed up? If it is plink's fault, is there an alternative tool I can use? I'm going to try to get my friend set up to connect to this same repo, so I'd like to have a clean solution instead of this ! business. Especially when I have no idea how plink gets this default server, so I'm not sure if he'd even be able to get to inthom.com correctly. PS. I've had to use a ton of different tutorials to even get to this stage. Therefore, I haven't tried pushing any changes to the server yet. Hopefully I'll get this figured out and then I can try pushing changes to the repo.

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• events not getting fired properly

  - by prince23

  hi, this is my xaml code. datagrid within another data grid. <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgLevel1" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="12,12,0,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgLevel1_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" SelectionMode="Extended" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected" Height="412" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="816"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Width="24" Height="24" Click="ExpandLevel1_Click"> <Image x:Name="imgLevel1" Source="Images/detail.JPG" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Actual" Visibility="Collapsed"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding UniqueName}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Name}" Header="Name" Width="550" /> <!--<sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding UniqueName}" Visibility="Collapsed"/>--> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Actual" Width="80" > <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding Age}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Width="805"> <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgLevel2" Width="797" Margin="17,0,0,0" HeadersVisibility ="None" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HorizontalAlignment="Center" IsReadOnly="True" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgLevel2_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" SelectionMode="Extended" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Width="24" Height="30" Click="ExpandLevel2_Click"> <Image x:Name="imgLevel2" Source="Images/detail.JPG" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding School}" Width="528" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding College}" Visibility="Collapsed" /> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Actual" Width="80"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding DOB}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid> i have 2 data grid and have 2 image buttons in both the grid . but the event which is in datagrid ExpandLevel1 _Click and ExpandLevel2 _Click is not getting fired properly. some times get fired some times no when i click the button first this event gets fired then ExpandLevel1_Click then **dgLevel1_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged . same thing is happening for the datagrid 2 ExpandLevel2_Click then dgLevel2_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged** there are scenario where first datagrid event gets fired first then button click events why is this happening .is there any solution for this looking forward an solutions thanks in advance. prince

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• If record exists in database, UPDATE a single column

  - by Doug

  I have a bulk uploading object in place that is being used to bulk upload roughly 25-40 image files at a time. Each image is about 100-150 kb in size. During the upload, I've created a for each loop that takes the file name of the image (minus the file extension) to write it into a column named "sku". Also, for each file being uploaded, the date is recorded to a column named DateUpdated, as well as some image path data. Here is my c# code: protected void graphicMultiFileButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //graphicMultiFile is the ID of the bulk uploading object ( provided by Dean Brettle: http://www.brettle.com/neatupload ) if (graphicMultiFile.Files.Length > 0) { foreach (UploadedFile file in graphicMultiFile.Files) { //strip ".jpg" from file name (will be assigned as SKU) string sku = file.FileName.Substring(0, file.FileName.Length - 4); //assign the directory where the images will be stored on the server string directoryPath = Server.MapPath("~/images/graphicsLib/" + file.FileName); //ensure that if image existes on server that it will get overwritten next time it's uploaded: file.MoveTo(directoryPath, MoveToOptions.Overwrite); //current sql that inserts a record to the db SqlCommand comm; SqlConnection conn; string connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DataConnect"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connectionString); comm = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO GraphicsLibrary (sku, imagePath, DateUpdated) VALUES (@sku, @imagePath, @DateUpdated)", conn); comm.Parameters.Add("@sku", System.Data.SqlDbType.VarChar, 50); comm.Parameters["@sku"].Value = sku; comm.Parameters.Add("@imagePath", System.Data.SqlDbType.VarChar, 300); comm.Parameters["@imagePath"].Value = "images/graphicsLib/" + file.FileName; comm.Parameters.Add("@DateUpdated", System.Data.SqlDbType.DateTime); comm.Parameters["@DateUpdated"].Value = DateTime.Now; conn.Open(); comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } } After images are uploaded, managers will go back and re-upload images that have previously been uploaded. This is because these product images are always being revised and improved. For each new/improved image, the file name and extension will remain the same - so that when image 321-54321.jpg was first uploaded to the server, the new/improved version of that image will still have the image file name as 321-54321.jpg. I can't say for sure if the file sizes will remain in the 100-150KB range. I'll assume that the image file size will grow eventually. When images get uploaded (again), there of course will be an existing record in the database for that image. What is the best way to: Check the database for the existing record (stored procedure or SqlDataReader or create a DataSet ...?) Then if record exists, simply UPDATE that record so that the DateUpdated column gets today's date. If no record exists, do the INSERT of the record as normal. Things to consider: If the record exists, we'll let the actual image be uploaded. It will simply overwrite the existing image so that the new version gets displayed on the web. We're using SQL Server 2000 on hosted environment (DiscountAsp). I'm programming in C#. The uploading process will be used by about 2 managers a few times a month (each) - which to me is not a allot of usage. Although I'm a jr. developer, I'm guessing that a stored procedure would be the way to go. Just seems more efficient - to do this record check away from the for each loop... but not sure. I'd need extra help writing a sproc, since I don't have too much experience with them. Thank everyone...

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• Understanding Node.js and concept of non-blocking I/O

  - by Saif Bechan

  Recently I became interested in using Node.js to tackle some of the parts of my web-application. I love the part that its full JavaScript and its very light weight so no use anymore to call an JavaScript-PHP call but a lighter JavaScript-JavaScript call. I however do not understand all the concepts explained. Basic concepts Now in the presentation for Node.js Ryan Dahl talks about non-blocking IO and why this is the way we need to create our programs. I can understand the theoretical concept. You just don't wait for a response, you go ahead and do other things. You make a callback for the response, and when the response arrives millions of clock-cycles later, you can fire that. If you have not already I recommend to watch this presentation. It is very easy to follow and pretty detailed. There are some nice concepts explained on how to write your code in a good manner. There are also some examples given and I am going to work with the basic example given. Examples The way we do thing now: puts("Enter your name: "); var name = gets(); puts("Name: " + name); Now the problem with this is that the code is halted at line 1. It blocks your code. The way we need to do things according to node puts("Enter your name: "); gets(function (name) { puts("Name: " + name); }); Now with this your program does not halt, because the input is a function within the output. So the programs continues to work without halting. Questions Now the basic question I have is how does this work in real-life situations. I am talking here for the use in web-applications. The application I am writing does I/O, bit is still does it in am blocking matter. I think that most of the time, if not all, you need to block, because you have to wait on what the response is you have to work with. When you need to get some information from the database, most of the time this data needs to be verified before you can further with the code. Example 1 If you take a login for example. You have to wait for the database to response to return, because you can not do anything else. I can't see a way around this without blocking. Example 2 Going back to the basic example. The use just request something from a database which does not need any verification. You still have to block because you don't have anything to do more. I can not come up with a single example where you want to do other things while you wait for the response to return. Possible answers I have read that this frees up recourses. When you program like this it takes less CPU or memory usage. So this non-blocking IO is ONLY meant to free up recourses and does not have any other practical use. Not that this is not a huge plus, freeing up recourses is always good. Yet I fail to see this as a good solution. because in both of the above examples, the program has to wait for the response of the user. Whether this is inside a function, or just inline, in my opinion there is a program that wait for input. Resources I looked at I have looked at some recourses before I posted this question. They talk a lot about the theoretical concept, which is quite clear. Yet i fail to see some real-life examples where this is makes a huge difference. Stackoverflow: What is in simple words blocking IO and non-blocking IO? Blocking IO vs non-blocking IO; looking for good articles tidy code for asynchronous IO Other recources: Wikipedia: Asynchronous I/O Introduction to non-blocking I/O The C10K problem

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• Layout problem: scrollview inside a table, inside a custom dialog

  - by Sean

  I have a layout problem which I can't fix. I've looked through many posts on here, and mine seems to be unique enough to post a question. I've created a custom Dialog which programmatically creates a 3 row table. The top and bottom rows have text, while the middle row contains a ScrollView, which contains a LinearLayout. That LinearLayout then contains some number of views (TextView in this example). Since I'm doing this programmatically, see the XML pseudocode below, and the actual code below that. What I would like to happen, is that when the height of the contained content in the LinearLayout gets too big, the ScrollView does its job, and the header and footer TextView's are always visible. The problem is that when the dialog gets big enough, the ScrollView appears to take over the whole dialog, and my footer TextView disappears off the screen. What can I do to make sure the footer TextView never disappears, but the ScrollView can still function? See the following image links: Footer visible on the left, gone on the right: http://img690.imageshack.us/i/screenshotss.png/ <TableLayout> <TableRow> <TextView> </TableRow> <TableRow> <ScrollView> <LinearLayout> <TextView/> <TextView/> <TextView/> ... </LinearLayout> </ScrollView> </TableRow> <TableRow> <TextView> </TableRow> </TableLayout> Here's the code: public class DialogScrollTest extends Dialog { public DialogScrollTest(Context ctx){ super(ctx); setTitle(""); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); TableLayout table = new TableLayout(ctx); TableRow row; TextView text; row = new TableRow(ctx); { text = new TextView(ctx); text.setText("TestTop"); row.addView(text); } table.addView(row); row = new TableRow(ctx); { ScrollView scroll = new ScrollView(ctx); { LinearLayout linear = new LinearLayout(ctx); linear.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); for(int t=0; t<32; ++t){ text = new TextView(ctx); text.setText("TestScroll"); linear.addView(text); } scroll.addView(linear); } row.addView(scroll); } table.addView(row); row = new TableRow(ctx); { text = new TextView(ctx); text.setText("TestBottom"); row.addView(text); } table.addView(row); this.setContentView(table); } }

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• asp.net detailsview update method not getting new values

  - by Ali

  Hi all, I am binding a detailsview with objectdatasource which gets the select parameter from the querystring. The detailsview shows the desired record, but when I try to update it, my update method gets the old values for the record (and hence no update). here is my detailsview code: <asp:DetailsView ID="dvUsers" runat="server" Height="50px" Width="125px" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataSourceID="odsUserDetails" onitemupdating="dvUsers_ItemUpdating"> <Fields> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Username" HeaderText="Username" SortExpression="Username" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="FirstName" HeaderText="First Name" SortExpression="FirstName" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LastName" HeaderText="Last Name" SortExpression="LastName" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Email" runat="server" HeaderText="Email" SortExpression="Email" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="IsActive" HeaderText="Is Active" SortExpression="IsActive" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="IsOnline" HeaderText="Is Online" SortExpression="IsOnline" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LastLoginDate" HeaderText="Last Login" SortExpression="LastLoginDate" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="CreateDate" HeaderText="Member Since" SortExpression="CreateDate" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Membership Ends" SortExpression="ExpiryDate"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("ExpiryDate") %>'></asp:TextBox> <cc1:CalendarExtender ID="TextBox1_CalendarExtender" runat="server" Enabled="True" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:CalendarExtender> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("ExpiryDate") %>'></asp:TextBox> </InsertItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("ExpiryDate") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> and here is the objectdatasource code: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="odsUserDetails" runat="server" SelectMethod="GetAllUserDetailsByUserId" TypeName="QMS_BLL.Membership" UpdateMethod="UpdateUserForClient"> <UpdateParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="User_ID" Type="Int32" /> <asp:Parameter Name="firstName" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="lastName" Type="String" /> <asp:SessionParameter Name="updatedByUser" SessionField="userId" DefaultValue="1" /> <asp:Parameter Name="expiryDate" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="Email" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="isActive" Type="String" /> </UpdateParameters> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter DefaultValue="1" Name="User_ID" QueryStringField="User_ID" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Is the OnItemUpdating method still required when you have your custom BLL method called on insertevent? (which is being executed fine in my case but updating with the old values) or am I missing something else? Also I tried to provide an OnItemUpdating method and in there I tried to capture the contents of the textboxes (the new values). I got an exception: "Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index" when I tried to do: TextBox txtFirstName = (TextBox)dvUsers.Rows[1].Cells[1].Controls[0]; Any help will be most appreciated.

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• Emulating old-school sprite flickering (theory and concept)

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  I'm trying to develop an oldschool NES-style video game, with sprite flickering and graphical slowdown. I've been thinking of what type of logic I should use to enable such effects. I have to consider the following restrictions if I want to go old-school NES style: No more than 64 sprites on the screen at a time No more than 8 sprites per scanline, or for each line on the Y axis If there is too much action going on the screen, the system freezes the image for a frame to let the processor catch up with the action From what I've read up, if there were more than 64 sprites on the screen, the developer would only draw high-priority sprites while ignoring low-priority ones. They could also alternate, drawing each even numbered sprite on opposite frames from odd numbered ones. The scanline issue is interesting. From my testing, it is impossible to get good speed on the XBOX 360 XNA framework by drawing sprites pixel-by-pixel, like the NES did. This is why in old-school games, if there were too many sprites on a single line, some would appear if they were cut in half. For all purposes for this project, I'm making scanlines be 8 pixels tall, and grouping the sprites together per scanline by their Y positioning. So, dumbed down I need to come up with a solution that.... 64 sprites on screen at once 8 sprites per 'scanline' Can draw sprites based on priority Can alternate between sprites per frame Emulate slowdown Here is my current theory First and foremost, a fundamental idea I came up with is addressing sprite priority. Assuming values between 0-255 (0 being low), I can assign sprites priority levels, for instance: 0 to 63 being low 63 to 127 being medium 128 to 191 being high 192 to 255 being maximum Within my data files, I can assign each sprite to be a certain priority. When the parent object is created, the sprite would randomly get assigned a number between its designated range. I would then draw sprites in order from high to low, with the end goal of drawing every sprite. Now, when a sprite gets drawn in a frame, I would then randomly generate it a new priority value within its initial priority level. However, if a sprite doesn't get drawn in a frame, I could add 32 to its current priority. For example, if the system can only draw sprites down to a priority level of 135, a sprite with an initial priority of 45 could then be drawn after 3 frames of not being drawn (45+32+32+32=141) This would, in theory, allow sprites to alternate frames, allow priority levels, and limit sprites to 64 per screen. Now, the interesting question is how do I limit sprites to only 8 per scanline? I'm thinking that if I'm sorting the sprites high-priority to low-priority, iterate through the loop until I've hit 64 sprites drawn. However, I shouldn't just take the first 64 sprites in the list. Before drawing each sprite, I could check to see how many sprites were drawn in it's respective scanline via counter variables . For example: Y-values between 0 to 7 belong to Scanline 0, scanlineCount[0] = 0 Y-values between 8 to 15 belong to Scanline 1, scanlineCount[1] = 0 etc. I could reset the values per scanline for every frame drawn. While going down the sprite list, add 1 to the scanline's respective counter if a sprite gets drawn in that scanline. If it equals 8, don't draw that sprite and go to the sprite with the next lowest priority. SLOWDOWN The last thing I need to do is emulate slowdown. My initial idea was that if I'm drawing 64 sprites per frame and there's still more sprites that need to be drawn, I could pause the rendering by 16ms or so. However, in the NES games I've played, sometimes there's slowdown if there's not any sprite flickering going on whereas the game moves beautifully even if there is some sprite flickering. Perhaps give a value to each object that uses sprites on the screen (like the priority values above), and if the combined values of all objects w/ sprites surpass a threshold, introduce the sprite flickering? IN CONCLUSION... Does everything I wrote actually sound legitimate and could work, or is it a pipe dream? What improvements can you all possibly think with this game programming theory of mine?

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• Understanding the memory consumption on iPhone

  - by zoul

  Hello! I am working on a 2D iPhone game using OpenGL ES and I keep hitting the 24 MB memory limit – my application keeps crashing with the error code 101. I tried real hard to find where the memory goes, but the numbers in Instruments are still much bigger than what I would expect. I ran the application with the Memory Monitor, Object Alloc, Leaks and OpenGL ES instruments. When the application gets loaded, free physical memory drops from 37 MB to 23 MB, the Object Alloc settles around 7 MB, Leaks show two or three leaks a few bytes in size, the Gart Object Size is about 5 MB and Memory Monitor says the application takes up about 14 MB of real memory. I am perplexed as where did the memory go – when I dig into the Object Allocations, most of the memory is in the textures, exactly as I would expect. But both my own texture allocation counter and the Gart Object Size agree that the textures should take up somewhere around 5 MB. I am not aware of allocating anything else that would be worth mentioning, and the Object Alloc agrees. Where does the memory go? (I would be glad to supply more details if this is not enough.) Update: I really tried to find where I could allocate so much memory, but with no results. What drives me wild is the difference between the Object Allocations (~7 MB) and real memory usage as shown by Memory Monitor (~14 MB). Even if there were huge leaks or huge chunks of memory I forget about, the should still show up in the Object Allocations, shouldn’t they? I’ve already tried the usual suspects, ie. the UIImage with its caching, but that did not help. Is there a way to track memory usage “debugger-style”, line by line, watching each statement’s impact on memory usage? What I have found so far: I really am using that much memory. It is not easy to measure the real memory consumption, but after a lot of counting I think the memory consumption is really that high. My fault. I found no easy way to measure the memory used. The Memory Monitor numbers are accurate (these are the numbers that really matter), but the Memory Monitor can’t tell you where exactly the memory goes. The Object Alloc tool is almost useless for tracking the real memory usage. When I create a texture, the allocated memory counter goes up for a while (reading the texture into the memory), then drops (passing the texture data to OpenGL, freeing). This is OK, but does not always happen – sometimes the memory usage stays high even after the texture has been passed on to OpenGL and freed from “my” memory. This means that the total amount of memory allocated as shown by the Object Alloc tool is smaller than the real total memory consumption, but bigger than the real consumption minus textures (real – textures < object alloc < real). Go figure. I misread the Programming Guide. The memory limit of 24 MB applies to textures and surfaces, not the whole application. The actual red line lies a bit further, but I could not find any hard numbers. The consensus is that 25–30 MB is the ceiling. When the system gets short on memory, it starts sending the memory warning. I have almost nothing to free, but other applications do release some memory back to the system, especially Safari (which seems to be caching the websites). When the free memory as shown in the Memory Monitor goes zero, the system starts killing. I had to bite the bullet and rewrite some parts of the code to be more efficient on memory, but I am probably still pushing it. I

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• ASP.NET Membership API not working on Win2008 server/IIS7

  - by Program.X

  I have a very odd problem. I have a web app that uses the .NET Membership API to provide login functionality. This works fine on my local dev machine, using WebDev 4.0 server. I'm using .NET 4.0 with some URL Rewriting, but not on the pages where login is required. I have a Windows Server 2008 with IIS7 However, the Membership API seemingly does not work on the server. I have set up remote debugging and the LoginUser.LoggedIn event of the LoginUser control gets fired okay, but the MembershipUser is null. I get no answer about the username/password being invalid so it seems to be recognising it. If I enter an invalid username/password, I get an invalid username/password response. Some code, if it helps: <asp:ValidationSummary ID="LoginUserValidationSummary" runat="server" CssClass="validation-error-list" ValidationGroup="LoginUserValidationGroup"/> <div class="accountInfo"> <fieldset class="login"> <legend>Account Information</legend> <p> <asp:Label ID="UserNameLabel" runat="server" AssociatedControlID="UserName">Username:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="UserName" runat="server" CssClass="textEntry"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="UserNameRequired" runat="server" ControlToValidate="UserName" CssClass="validation-error" Display="Dynamic" ErrorMessage="User Name is required." ToolTip="User Name is required." ValidationGroup="LoginUserValidationGroup">*</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </p> <p> <asp:Label ID="PasswordLabel" runat="server" AssociatedControlID="Password">Password:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="Password" runat="server" CssClass="passwordEntry" TextMode="Password"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="PasswordRequired" runat="server" ControlToValidate="Password" CssClass="validation-error" Display="Dynamic" ErrorMessage="Password is required." ToolTip="Password is required." ValidationGroup="LoginUserValidationGroup">*</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </p> <p> <asp:CheckBox ID="RememberMe" runat="server"/> <asp:Label ID="RememberMeLabel" runat="server" AssociatedControlID="RememberMe" CssClass="inline">Keep me logged in</asp:Label> </p> </fieldset> <p class="login-action"> <asp:Button ID="LoginButton" runat="server" CommandName="Login" CssClass="submitButton" Text="Log In" ValidationGroup="LoginUserValidationGroup"/> </p> and the code behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoginUser.LoginError += new EventHandler(LoginUser_LoginError); LoginUser.LoggedIn += new EventHandler(LoginUser_LoggedIn); } void LoginUser_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { // this code gets run so it appears logins work Roles.DeleteCookie(); // this behaviour has been removed for testing - no difference } void LoginUser_LoginError(object sender, EventArgs e) { HtmlGenericControl htmlGenericControl = LoginUser.FindControl("errorMessageSpan") as HtmlGenericControl; if (htmlGenericControl != null) htmlGenericControl.Visible = true; } I have "Fiddled" with the Login form reponse and I get the following Cookie-Set headers: Set-Cookie: ASP.NET_SessionId=lpyyiyjw45jjtuav1gdu4jmg; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=A7AE08E071DD20872D6BBBAD9167A709DEE55B352283A7F91E1066FFB1529E5C61FCEDC86E558CEA1A837E79640BE88D1F65F14FA8434AA86407DA3AEED575E0649A1AC319752FBCD39B2A4669B0F869; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie: .ASPXROLES=; expires=Mon, 11-Oct-1999 23:00:00 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly I don't know what is useful here because it is obviously encrypted but I find the .APXROLES cookie having no value interesting. It seems to fail to register the cookie, but passes authentication

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• Safe, standard way to load images in ListView on a different thread?

  - by Po

  Before making this question, I have searched and read these ones: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/541966/android-how-do-i-do-a-lazy-load-of-images-in-listview http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1409623/android-issue-with-lazy-loading-images-into-a-listview My problem is I have a ListView, where: Each row contains an ImageView, whose content is to be loaded from the internet Each row's view is recycled as in ApiDemo's List14 What I want ultimately: Load images lazily, only when the user scrolls to them Load images on different thread(s) to maintain responsiveness My current approach: In the adapter's getView() method, apart from setting up other child views, I launch a new thread that loads the Bitmap from the internet. When that loading thread finishes, it returns the Bitmap to be set on the ImageView (I do this using AsyncTask or Handler). Because I recycle ImageViews, it may be the case that I first want to set a view with Bitmap#1, then later want to set it to Bitmap#2 when the user scrolls down. Bitmap#1 may happen to take longer than Bitmap#2 to load, so it may end up overwriting Bitmap#2 on the view. I solve this by maintaining a WeakHashMap that remembers the last Bitmap I want to set for that view. Below is somewhat a pseudocode for my current approach. I've ommitted other details like caching, just to keep the thing clear. public class ImageLoader { // keeps track of the last Bitmap we want to set for this ImageView private static final WeakHashMap<ImageView, AsyncTask> assignments = new WeakHashMap<ImageView, AsyncTask>(); /** Asynchronously sets an ImageView to some Bitmap loaded from the internet */ public static void setImageAsync(final ImageView imageView, final String imageUrl) { // cancel whatever previous task AsyncTask oldTask = assignments.get(imageView); if (oldTask != null) { oldTask.cancel(true); } // prepare to launch a new task to load this new image AsyncTask<String, Integer, Bitmap> newTask = new AsyncTask<String, Integer, Bitmap>() { protected void onPreExecute() { // set ImageView to some "loading..." image } protected Bitmap doInBackground(String... urls) { return loadFromInternet(imageUrl); } protected void onPostExecute(Bitmap bitmap) { // set Bitmap if successfully loaded, or an "error" image if (bitmap != null) { imageView.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } else { imageView.setImageResource(R.drawable.error); } } }; newTask.execute(); // mark this as the latest Bitmap we want to set for this ImageView assignments.put(imageView, newTask); } /** returns (Bitmap on success | null on error) */ private Bitmap loadFromInternet(String imageUrl) {} } Problem I still have: what if the Activity gets destroyed while some images are still loading? Is there any risk when the loading thread calls back to the ImageView later, when the Activity is already destroyed? Moreover, AsyncTask has some global thread-pool underneath, so if lengthy tasks are not canceled when they're not needed anymore, I may end up wasting time loading things users don't see. My current design of keeping this thing globally is too ugly, and may eventually cause some leaks that are beyond my understanding. Instead of making ImageLoader a singleton like this, I'm thinking of actually creating separate ImageLoader objects for different Activities, then when an Activity gets destroyed, all its AsyncTask will be canceled. Is this too awkward? Anyway, I wonder if there is a safe and standard way of doing this in Android. In addition, I don't know iPhone but is there a similar problem there and do they have a standard way to do this kind of task? Many thanks.

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• C++ invalid reference problem

  - by Karol

  Hi all, I'm writing some callback implementation in C++. I have an abstract callback class, let's say: /** Abstract callback class. */ class callback { public: /** Executes the callback. */ void call() { do_call(); }; protected: /** Callback call implementation specific to derived callback. */ virtual void do_call() = 0; }; Each callback I create (accepting single-argument functions, double-argument functions...) is created as a mixin using one of the following: /** Makes the callback a single-argument callback. */ template <typename T> class singleArgumentCallback { protected: /** Callback argument. */ T arg; public: /** Constructor. */ singleArgumentCallback(T arg): arg(arg) { } }; /** Makes the callback a double-argument callback. */ template <typename T, typename V> class doubleArgumentCallback { protected: /** Callback argument 1. */ T arg1; /** Callback argument 2. */ V arg2; public: /** Constructor. */ doubleArgumentCallback(T arg1, V arg2): arg1(arg1), arg2(arg2) { } }; For example, a single-arg function callback would look like this: /** Single-arg callbacks. */ template <typename T> class singleArgFunctionCallback: public callback, protected singleArgumentCallback<T> { /** Callback. */ void (*callbackMethod)(T arg); public: /** Constructor. */ singleArgFunctionCallback(void (*callback)(T), T argument): singleArgumentCallback<T>(argument), callbackMethod(callback) { } protected: void do_call() { this->callbackMethod(this->arg); } }; For user convenience, I'd like to have a method that creates a callback without having the user think about details, so that one can call (this interface is not subject to change, unfortunately): void test3(float x) { std::cout << x << std::endl; } void test5(const std::string& s) { std::cout << s << std::endl; } make_callback(&test3, 12.0f)->call(); make_callback(&test5, "oh hai!")->call(); My current implementation of make_callback(...) is as follows: /** Creates a callback object. */ template <typename T, typename U> callback* make_callback( void (*callbackMethod)(T), U argument) { return new singleArgFunctionCallback<T>(callbackMethod, argument); } Unfortunately, when I call make_callback(&test5, "oh hai!")->call(); I get an empty string on the standard output. I believe the problem is that the reference gets out of scope after callback initialization. I tried using pointers and references, but it's impossible to have a pointer/reference to reference, so I failed. The only solution I had was to forbid substituting reference type as T (for example, T cannot be std::string&) but that's a sad solution since I have to create another singleArgCallbackAcceptingReference class accepting a function pointer with following signature: void (*callbackMethod)(T& arg); thus, my code gets duplicated 2^n times, where n is the number of arguments of a callback function. Does anybody know any workaround or has any idea how to fix it? Thanks in advance!

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• SVN: Release branch headaches, how to merge in website revisions as and when cleared to go live?

  - by Pete Duncanson

  I need a sanity check here if we can, any ideas on correcting/changing the following are very welcome! We've been getting ourselves in knots of late with our SVN and are trying to correct it by putting a Trunk/Release system in place. We have a large website that we develop on and we store it all in SVN. Heres what we had in mind: We have trunk and a release branch All work gets checked into Trunk. When a feature is deemed ready for the next release it is merged into a Release branch. We only have one release branch and just tag "Latest" when we do a push to live We hope to be able to get all the files changed from Latest to Head to give us a zip that we can upload (any ideas on an easy way to do this via scripting?) So we set all this up and where very happy with ourselves. Except its not working and heres why. We work on lots a different features/fixes/problems at once and they don't all get nicely checked in feature complete (but always working at least). Then sometimes you have to wait for Clients to sign off. As a result you end up with revisions which are "ready for live" being scattered with ones which are "still being worked on" in trunk. That means that the completed revisions are not getting merged in sequentially but out of order. I thought SVN could handle this, clever little thing it is, but apparently not. Heres an example: Pete changes some CSS to make a new button look pretty (Revision 1) Dave add some CSS to the bottom of the same CSS file as Pete's for a new feature (Revision 2) Dave's mod gets the nod so he merges it into Release and commits it with a log message mentioning revision number and bug tracking id. Pete adds more buttons to finish this mod, no CSS changes here though (Revision 3) Pete then merges his mods (Revision 1 and 3) into the Head of Release (which has Daves merge in it) but this over-writes Daves CSS additions which now dissapear completely. This leads to the site being broken and the Release branch being pretty much useless. So we tried some other ideas like reverting Release back to "Latest" and then just merging in all the Revisions 1,2 and 3 in order. This worked fine until we had Revision 4 which was not ready for live and Revision 5 which was. Suddenly we are getting ourselves in knots again with exactly the same problem! Ok so take three. Revert to Latest, merge in Revision 5, then do any update back to Head. Tree conflicts galore! So thats a no no. I cracked in the end and built it all up manaually but its not something I want to do regular, ideally I want to script our deployment but can't while Release is in such a mess. HELP! What the heck are we doing wrong? I can't seem to find any solutions to this problem of wanting different none sequential Revisions in Release. If its not possible thats fine but how the heck are we meant to get stuff live easily. We can't branch for every single change, the site takes 30 minutes+ to check out it would take too long. Side note, we are using TortoiseSVN so can we keep command line examples to a minimum in any answers? Latest version of TSVN and SVN Version 1.6 so we have the funky merge tracking etc. EDIT: An excellent blog post which deals with the dev/release cycle (although using GIT but still relivant) thought everyone would like to read it if they found this question interesting. (http://nvie.com/git-model) EDIT 2: I wrote a blog post on how to show which branch you are working on in your website which others have asked me about (http://www.offroadcode.com/2010/5/14/which-svn-branch-are-you-working-on.aspx). Hope that helps. In the meantime we are looking at Kiln and hoping to make the switch next month (gulp!)

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• Mercurial "hg clone" on Windows via ssh with plink issue

  - by Kyle Tolle

  I have a Windows Server 2008 machine (iis7) that has CopSSH set up on it. To connect to it, I have a Windows 7 machine with Mercurial 1.5.1 (and TortoiseHg) installed. I can connect to the server using PuTTY with a non-standard ssh port and a .ppk file just fine. So I know the server can be SSH'd into. Next, I wanted to use the CLI to connect via hg clone to get a private repo. I've seen elsewhere that you need to have ssh configured in your mercurial.ini file, so my mercurial.ini has a line: ssh = plink.exe -ssh -C -l username -P #### -i "C:/Program Files/PuTTY/Key Files/KyleKey.ppk" Note: username is filled in with the username I set up via copSSH. #### is filled in with the non-standard ssh port I've defined for copSSH. I try to do the command hg clone ssh://inthom.com but I get this error: remote: bash: inthom.com: command not found abort: no suitable response from remote hg! It looks like hg or plink parses the hostname such that it thinks that inthom.com is a command instead of the server to ssh to. That's really odd. Next, I tried to just use plink to connect by plink -P #### ssh://inthom.com, and I am then prompted for my username, and next password. I enter them both and then I get this error: bash: ssh://inthom.com: No such file or directory So now it looks like plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly. I fiddled around for a while trying to figure out how to do call hg clone with an empty ssh:// field and eventually figured out that this command allows me to reach the server and clone a test repo on the inthom.com server: hg clone ssh://!/Repos/test ! is the character I've found that let's me leave the hostname blank, but specify the repo folder to clone. What I really don't understand is how plink knows what server to ssh to at all. neither my mercurial.ini nor the command specify a server. None of the hg clone examples I've seen have a ! character. They all use an address, which makes sense, so you can connect to any repo via ssh that you want to clone. My only guess is that it somehow defaults to the last server I used PuTTY to SSH to, but I SSH'd into another server, and then tried to use plink to get to it, but plink still defaults to inthom.com (verified with the -v arg to plink). So I am at a loss as to how plink gets this server value at all. For "fun", I tried using TortoiseHg and can only clone a repo when I use ssh://!/Repos/test as the Source. Now, you can see that, since plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly, I had to specify the port number and username in the mercurial.ini file, instead of in the hostname like [email protected]:#### like you'd expect to. Trying to figure this out at first drove me insane, because I would get errors that the host couldn't be reached, which I knew shouldn't be the case. My question is how can I configure my setup so that ssh://[email protected]:####/Repos/test is parsed correctly as the username, hostname, port number, and repo to copy? Is it something wrong with the version of plink that I'm using, or is there some setting I may have messed up? If it is plink's fault, is there an alternative tool I can use? I'm going to try to get my friend set up to connect to this same repo, so I'd like to have a clean solution instead of this ! business. Especially when I have no idea how plink gets this default server, so I'm not sure if he'd even be able to get to inthom.com correctly. PS. I've had to use a ton of different tutorials to even get to this stage. Therefore, I haven't tried pushing any changes to the server yet. Hopefully I'll get this figured out and then I can try pushing changes to the repo.

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• If 'Architect' is a dirty word - what's the alternative; when not everyone can actually design a goo

  - by Andras Zoltan

  Now - I'm a developer first and foremost; but whenever I sit down to work on a big project with lots of interlinking components and areas, I will forward-plan my interfaces, base classes etc as best I can - putting on my Architect hat. For a few weeks I've been doing this for a huge project - designing whole swathes of interfaces etc for a business-wide platform that we're developing. The basic structure is a couple of big projects that consists of service and data interfaces, with some basic implementations of all of these. On their own, these assemblies are useless though, as they are simply intended intended as a scaffold on which to build a business-specific implementation (we have a lot of businesses). Therefore, the design of the core platform is absolutely crucial, since consumers of the system are not intended to know which implementation they are actually using. In the past it's not worked so well, but after a few proof-of-concepts and R&D projects this new platform is now growing nicely and is already proving itself. Then somebody else gets involved in the project - he's a TDD man who sees code-level architecture as an irrelevance and is definitely from the camp that 'architect' is a dirty word - I should add that our working relationship is very good despite this :) He's open about the fact that he can't architect in advance and obviously TDD really helps him because it allows him to evolve his systems over time. That I get, and totally understand; but it means that his coding style, basically, doesn't seem to be able to honour the architecture that I've been putting in place. Now don't get me wrong - he's an awesome coder; but the other day he needed to extend one of his components (an implementation of a core interface) to bring in an extra implementation-specific dependency; and in doing so he extended the core interface as well as his implementation (he uses ReSharper), thus breaking the independence of the whole interface. When I pointed out his error to him, he was dismayed. Being test-first, all that mattered to him was that he'd made his tests pass, and just said 'well, I need that dependency, so can't we put it in?'. Of course we could put it in, but I was frustrated that he couldn't see that refactoring the generic interface to incorporate an implementation-specific feature was just wrong! But it is all very Charlie Brown to him (you know the sound the adults make when they're talking to the children) - as far as he's concerned we don't need to worry about it because we can always refactor. The problem is, the culture of test-write-refactor is all very well and good - but not when you're dealing with a platform that is going to be shared out among so many projects that you could never get them all in one place to make the refactorings work. In my opinion, sometimes you actually have to think about what you're doing, and not just let nature take its course. Am I simply fulfilling the role of Architect as a dirty word here? I believe that architecture is important and should be thought about before code gets written; unless it's a particularly small project. But when you're working in a team of people who don't think that way, or even can't think that way how can you actually get this across? Is it a case of simply making the architecture off-limits to changes by other people? I don't want to start having bloody committees just to be able to grow the system; but equally I don't want to be the only one responsible for it all. Do you think the architect role is a waste of time? Is it at odds with TDD and other practises? Can this mix of different practises be made to work, or should I just be a lot less precious (and in so doing allow a generic platform become useless!)? Or do I just lay down the law? Any ideas/experiences/views gratefully received.

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• Common Mercator Projection formulas for Google Maps not working correctly

  - by Tom Halladay

  I am building a Tile Overlay server for Google maps in C#, and have found a few different code examples for calculating Y from Latitude. After getting them to work in general, I started to notice certain cases where the overlays were not lining up properly. To test this, I made a test harness to compare Google Map's Mercator LatToY conversion against the formulas I found online. As you can see below, they do not match in certain cases. Case #1 Zoomed Out: The problem is most evident when zoomed out. Up close, the problem is barely visible. Case #2 Point Proximity to Top & Bottom of viewing bounds: The problem is worse in the middle of the viewing bounds, and gets better towards the edges. This behavior can negate the behavior of Case #1 The Test: I created a google maps page to display red lines using the Google Map API's built in Mercator conversion, and overlay this with an image using the reference code for doing Mercator conversion. These conversions are represented as black lines. Compare the difference. The Results: Check out the top-most and bottom-most lines: The problem gets visually larger but numerically smaller as you zoom in: And it all but disappears at closer zoom levels, regardless of screen orientation. The Code: Google Maps Client Side Code: var lat = 0; for (lat = -80; lat <= 80; lat += 5) { map.addOverlay(new GPolyline([new GLatLng(lat, -180), new GLatLng(lat, 0)], "#FF0033", 2)); map.addOverlay(new GPolyline([new GLatLng(lat, 0), new GLatLng(lat, 180)], "#FF0033", 2)); } Server Side Code: Tile Cutter : http://mapki.com/wiki/Tile_Cutter OpenStreetMap Wiki : http://wiki.openstreetmap.org/wiki/Mercator protected override void ImageOverlay_ComposeImage(ref Bitmap ZipCodeBitMap) { Graphics LinesGraphic = Graphics.FromImage(ZipCodeBitMap); Int32 MapWidth = Convert.ToInt32(Math.Pow(2, zoom) * 255); Point Offset = Cartographer.Mercator2.toZoomedPixelCoords(North, West, zoom); TrimPoint(ref Offset, MapWidth); for (Double lat = -80; lat <= 80; lat += 5) { Point StartPoint = Cartographer.Mercator2.toZoomedPixelCoords(lat, -179, zoom); Point EndPoint = Cartographer.Mercator2.toZoomedPixelCoords(lat, -1, zoom); TrimPoint(ref StartPoint, MapWidth); TrimPoint(ref EndPoint, MapWidth); StartPoint.X = StartPoint.X - Offset.X; EndPoint.X = EndPoint.X - Offset.X; StartPoint.Y = StartPoint.Y - Offset.Y; EndPoint.Y = EndPoint.Y - Offset.Y; LinesGraphic.DrawLine(new Pen(Color.Black, 2), StartPoint.X, StartPoint.Y, EndPoint.X, EndPoint.Y); LinesGraphic.DrawString( lat.ToString(), new Font("Verdana", 10), new SolidBrush(Color.Black), new Point( Convert.ToInt32((width / 3.0) * 2.0), StartPoint.Y)); } } protected void TrimPoint(ref Point point, Int32 MapWidth) { point.X = Math.Max(point.X, 0); point.X = Math.Min(point.X, MapWidth - 1); point.Y = Math.Max(point.Y, 0); point.Y = Math.Min(point.Y, MapWidth - 1); } So, Anyone ever experienced this? Dare I ask, resolved this? Or simply have a better C# implementation of Mercator Project coordinate conversion? Thanks!

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• How to associate newly created SurfaceHolder to MediaPlayer

  - by fayerth

  In my code, I want to be able to temporarily hide (and subsequently show) a video. I am using a SurfaceView + MediaPlayer combination instead of the VideoView due to requirements. However, I am facing difficulties in getting video playback to occur as expected after I show the SurfaceView. My code excerpts includes the following: public void show() { if (mSurface != null) mSurface.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); } public void hide() { if (mSurface != null) { if (isInPlaybackState()) pause(); mSurface.setVisibility(View.INVISIBLE); } } @Override public void surfaceCreated(final SurfaceHolder holder) { mHolder = holder; openVideo(); } @Override public void surfaceDestroyed(final SurfaceHolder holder) { // After this, the surface can't be used again mHolder = null; } private void openVideo() { if (mAssetPath == null || !mAssetPath.isEmpty() || mHolder == null) { // Not ready yet; try again later return; } // Pause music playback service Intent i = new Intent("com.android.music.musicservicecommand"); i.putExtra("command", "pause"); getActivity().sendBroadcast(i); if (mPlayer == null) { initializePlayer(); } else { mPlayer.setDisplay(mHolder); } } Based on the above, when I call hide(), surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder) gets triggered. When I later call show(), surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder) gets triggered, which will call openVideo() and associate the player with the newly provided SurfaceHolder. The above works as expected, and I believe this should be the correct process; however, when I call mPlayer.start(), I would hear the video's audio playing without any video and see the following error messages (which eventually causes the media playback to stop and complete, as noted by the disconnect logs): 10-23 11:29:42.775: E/MediaPlayer(4204): Error (1,-2147483648) 10-23 11:29:42.795: E/MediaPlayer(4204): Error (-38,0) 10-23 11:29:42.805: E/MediaPlayer(4204): Error (1,-2147483648) 10-23 11:29:42.810: V/MediaPlayer(4204): message received msg=100, ext1=1, ext2=-2147483648 10-23 11:29:42.810: E/MediaPlayer(4204): error (1, -2147483648) 10-23 11:29:42.810: V/MediaPlayer(4204): callback application 10-23 11:29:42.810: V/MediaPlayer(4204): back from callback 10-23 11:29:42.825: E/MediaPlayer(4204): Error (1,-2147483648) 10-23 11:29:42.850: V/MediaPlayer-JNI(4204): getCurrentPosition: 671668 (msec) 10-23 11:29:42.850: V/MediaPlayer-JNI(4204): getCurrentPosition: 671668 (msec) 10-23 11:29:42.850: V/MediaPlayer(4204): message received msg=100, ext1=1, ext2=-2147483648 10-23 11:29:42.850: E/MediaPlayer(4204): error (1, -2147483648) 10-23 11:29:42.850: V/MediaPlayer(4204): callback application 10-23 11:29:42.850: V/MediaPlayer(4204): back from callback 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer-JNI(4204): stop 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer(4204): stop 10-23 11:29:42.875: E/MediaPlayer(4204): stop called in state 0 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer(4204): message received msg=100, ext1=-38, ext2=0 10-23 11:29:42.875: E/MediaPlayer(4204): error (-38, 0) 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer(4204): callback application 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer(4204): back from callback 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer-JNI(4204): reset 10-23 11:29:42.875: V/MediaPlayer(4204): reset 10-23 11:29:42.900: V/MediaPlayer-JNI(4204): release 10-23 11:29:42.900: V/MediaPlayer(4204): setListener 10-23 11:29:42.900: V/MediaPlayer(4204): disconnect 10-23 11:29:42.910: V/MediaPlayer(4204): destructor 10-23 11:29:42.910: V/MediaPlayer(4204): disconnect Has anyone encountered this issue before and found a workaround? Or would the only option be to create a new MediaPlayer as well?

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• JPA IndirectSet changes not reflected in Spring frontend

  - by Jon

  I'm having an issue with Spring JPA and IndirectSets. I have two entities, Parent and Child, defined below. I have a Spring form in which I'm trying to create a new Child and link it to an existing Parent, then have everything reflected in the database and in the web interface. What's happening is that it gets put into the database, but the UI doesn't seem to agree. The two entities that are linked to each other in a OneToMany relationship like so: @Entity @Table(name = "parent", catalog = "myschema", uniqueConstraints = @UniqueConstraint(columnNames = "ChildLinkID")) public class Parent { private Integer id; private String childLinkID; private Set<Child> children = new HashSet<Child>(0); @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = IDENTITY) @Column(name = "id", unique = true, nullable = false) public Integer getId() { return this.id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name = "ChildLinkID", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 6) public String getChildLinkID() { return this.childLinkID; } public void setChildLinkID(String childLinkID) { this.childLinkID = childLinkID; } @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "parent") public Set<Child> getChildren() { return this.children; } public void setChildren(Set<Child> children) { this.children = children; } } @Entity @Table(name = "child", catalog = "myschema") public class Child extends private Integer id; private Parent parent; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = IDENTITY) @Column(name = "id", unique = true, nullable = false) public Integer getId() { return this.id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "ChildLinkID", referencedColumnName = "ChildLinkID", nullable = false) public Parent getParent() { return this.parent; } public void setParent(Parent parent) { this.parent = parent; } } And of course, assorted simple properties on each of them. Now, the problem is that when I edit those simple properties from my Spring interface, everything works beautifully. I can persist new entities of these types and they'll appear when using the JPATemplate to do a find on, say, all Parents (getJpaTemplate().find("select p from Parent p")) or on individual entities by ID or another property. The problem I'm running into is that now, I'm trying to create a new Child linked to an existing Parent through a link from the Parent's page. Here's the important bits of the Controller (note that I've placed the JPA foo in the controller here to make it clearer; the actual JpaDaoSupport is actually in another class, appropriately tiered): protected Object formBackingObject(HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { String parentArg = request.getParameter("parent"); int parentId = Integer.parseInt(parentArg); Parent parent = getJpaTemplate().find(Parent.class, parentId); Child child = new Child(); child.setParent(parent); NewChildCommand command = new NewChildCommand(); command.setChild(child); return command; } protected ModelAndView onSubmit(Object cmd) throws Exception { NewChildCommand command = (NewChildCommand)cmd; Child child = command.getChild(); child.getParent().getChildren().add(child); getJpaTemplate().merge(child); return new ModelAndView(new RedirectView(getSuccessView())); } Like I said, I can run through the form and fill in the new values for the Child -- the Parent's details aren't even displayed. When it gets back to the controller, it goes through and saves it to the underlying database, but the interface never reflects it. Once I restart the app, it's all there and populated appropriately. What can I do to clear this up? I've tried to call extra merges, tried refreshes (which gave a transaction exception), everything short of just writing my own database access code. I've made sure that every class has an appropriate equals() and hashCode(), have full JPA debugging on to see that it's making appropriate SQL calls (it doesn't seem to make any new calls to the Child table) and stepped through in the debugger (it's all in IndirectSets, as expected, and between saving and displaying the Parent the object takes on a new memory address). What's my next step?

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• Javascript/ajax/php question: sending from server to client works, sending from client to server fai

  - by Jeroen Willemsen

  Hey All, Sorry for reposting(Admins, please delete the other one!). since you guys have been a great help, I was kinda hoping that you could help me once again while having the following question: I am currently trying to work with AJAX by allowing a managerclass in PHP to communicate via an XmlHttpobject with the javascript on the clientside. However, I can send something to the client via JSON, but I cannot read it at the clientside. In fact I am getting the error that the "time" is an undefined index in Session. So I was wondering: what am I doing wrong? The javascriptcode for Ajax: <script type="text/javascript"> var sendReq = GetXmlHttpObject(); var receiveReq = GetXmlHttpObject(); var JSONIn = 0; var JSONOut= 0; //var mTimer; //function to retreive xmlHTTp object for AJAX calls (correct) function GetXmlHttpObject() { var xmlHttp=null; try { // Firefox, Opera 8.0+, Safari xmlHttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e) { // Internet Explorer try { xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { xmlHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } } return xmlHttp; } //Gets the new info from the server function getUpdate() { if (receiveReq.readyState == 4 || receiveReq.readyState == 0) { receiveReq.open("GET", "index.php?json="+JSONIn+"&sid=$this->session", true); receiveReq.onreadystatechange = updateState; receiveReq.send(null); } } //send a message to the server. function sendUpdate(JSONstringsend) { JSONOut=JSONstringsend; if (sendReq.readyState == 4 || sendReq.readyState == 0) { sendReq.open("POST", "index.php?json="+JSONstringsend+"&sid=$this->session", true); sendReq.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); alert(JSONstringsend); sendReq.onreadystatechange = updateCycle; sendReq.send(JSONstringsend); } } //When data has been send, update the page. function updateCycle() { getUpdate(); } function updateState() { if (receiveReq.readyState == 4) { // JSONANSWER gets here (correct): var JSONtext = sendReq.responseText; // convert received string to JavaScript object (correct) alert(JSONtext); var JSONobject = JSON.parse(JSONtext); // updates date from the JSONanswer (correct): document.getElementById("dateview").innerHTML= JSONobject.date; } //mTimer = setTimeout('getUpdate();',2000); //Refresh our chat in 2 seconds } </script> The function that actually uses the ajax code: //datepickerdata $(document).ready(function(){ $("#datepicker").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText){ var JSONObject = {"date": dateText}; var JSONstring = JSON.stringify(JSONObject); sendUpdate(JSONstring); }, dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> And the PHP code: private function handleReceivedJSon($json){ $this->jsonLocal=array(); $json=$_POST["json"]; $this->jsonDecoded= json_decode($json, true); if(isset($this->jsonDecoded["date"])){ $_SESSION["date"]=$this->jsonDecoded["date"]; $this->useddate=$this->jsonDecoded; } if(isset($this->jsonDecoded["logout"])){ session_destroy(); exit("logout"); } header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate( "D, d M Y H:i:s" ) . "GMT" ); header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate" ); header("Pragma: no-cache" ); header("Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8"); exit($json); }

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• Marshal a C# struct to C++ VARIANT

  - by jortan

  To start with, I'm not very familiar with the COM-technology, this is the first time I'm working with it so bear with me. I'm trying to call a COM-object function from C#. This is the interface in the idl-file: [id(6), helpstring("vConnectInfo=ConnectInfoType")] HRESULT ConnectTarget([in,out] VARIANT* vConnectInfo); This is the interop interface I got after running tlbimp: void ConnectTarget(ref object vConnectInfo); The c++ code in COM object for the target function: STDMETHODIMP PCommunication::ConnectTarget(VARIANT* vConnectInfo) { if (!((vConnectInfo->vt & VT_ARRAY) && (vConnectInfo->vt & VT_BYREF))) { return E_INVALIDARG; } ConnectInfoType *pConnectInfo = (ConnectInfoType *)((*vConnectInfo->pparray)->pvData); ... } This COM-object is running in another process, it is not in a dll. I can add that the COM object is also used from another program written in C++. In that case there is no problem because in C++ a VARIANT is created and pparray-pvData is set to the connInfo data-structure and then the COM-object is called with the VARIANT as parameter. In C#, as I understand, my struct should be marshalled as a VARIANT automatically. These are two methods I've been using (or actually I've tried a lot more...) to call this method from C#: private void method1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { pcom.PCom PCom = new pcom.PCom(); pcom.IGeneralManagementServices mgmt = (pcom.IGeneralManagementServices)PCom; m_ci = new ConnectInfoType(); fillConnInfo(ref m_ci); mgmt.ConnectTarget(m_ci); } In the above case the struct gets marshalled as VT_UNKNOWN. This is a simple case and works if the parameter is not a struct (eg. works for int). private void method4_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ConnectInfoType ci = new ConnectInfoType(); fillConnInfo(ref ci); pcom PCom = new pcom.PCom(); pcom.IGeneralManagementServices mgmt = (pcom.IGeneralManagementServices)PCom; ParameterModifier[] pms = new ParameterModifier[1]; ParameterModifier pm = new ParameterModifier(1); pm[0] = true; pms[0] = pm; object[] param = new object[1]; param[0] = ci; object[] args = new object[1]; args[0] = param; mgmt.GetType().InvokeMember("ConnectTarget", BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, mgmt, args, pms, null, null); } In this case it gets marshalled as VT_ARRAY | VT_BYREF | VT_VARIANT. The problem is that when debugging the "target-function" ConnectTarget I cannot find the data I send in the SAFEARRAY-struct (or in any other place in memory either) What do I do with a VT_VARIANT? Any ideas on how to get my struct-data? Update: The ConnectInfoType struct: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public class ConnectInfoType { public short network; public short nodeNumber; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 51)] public string connTargPassWord; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 8)] public string sConnectId; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 16)] public string sConnectPassword; public EnuConnectType eConnectType; public int hConnectHandle; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 8)] public string sAccessPassword; }; And the corresponding struct in c++: typedef struct ConnectInfoType { short network; short nodeNumber; char connTargPassWord[51]; char sConnectId[8]; char sConnectPassword[16]; EnuConnectType eConnectType; int hConnectHandle; char sAccessPassword[8]; } ConnectInfoType;

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• Scaling an image using the mouse in C#

  - by Gaax

  Hey guys... I'm trying to use the position of the mouse to calculate the scaling factor for scaling an image. Basically, the further you get away from the center of the image, the bigger it gets; and the closer to the center you get, the smaller it gets. I have some code so far but it's acting really strange and I have absolutely no more ideas. First I'll let you know, one thing I was trying to do is average out 5 distances to get a more smooth resize animation. Here's my code: private void pictureBoxScale_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (rotateScaleMode && isDraggingToScale) { // For Scaling int sourceWidth = pictureBox1.Image.Width; int sourceHeight = pictureBox1.Image.Height; float dCurrCent = 0; // distance between the current mouse pos and the center of the image float dPrevCent = 0; // distance between the previous mouse pos and the center of the image System.Drawing.Point imgCenter = new System.Drawing.Point(); imgCenter.X = pictureBox1.Location.X + (sourceWidth / 2); imgCenter.Y = pictureBox1.Location.Y + (sourceHeight / 2); // Calculating the distance between the current mouse location and the center of the image dCurrCent = (float)Math.Sqrt(Math.Pow(e.X - imgCenter.X, 2) + Math.Pow(e.Y - imgCenter.Y, 2)); // Calculating the distance between the previous mouse location and the center of the image dPrevCent = (float)Math.Sqrt(Math.Pow(prevMouseLoc.X - imgCenter.X, 2) + Math.Pow(prevMouseLoc.Y - imgCenter.Y, 2)); if (smoothScaleCount < 5) { dCurrCentSmooth[smoothScaleCount] = dCurrCent; dPrevCentSmooth[smoothScaleCount] = dPrevCent; } if (smoothScaleCount == 4) { float currCentSum = 0; float prevCentSum = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { currCentSum += dCurrCentSmooth[i]; } for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { prevCentSum += dPrevCentSmooth[i]; } float scaleAvg = (currCentSum / 5) / (prevCentSum / 5); int destWidth = (int)(sourceWidth * scaleAvg); int destHeight = (int)(sourceHeight * scaleAvg); // If statement is for limiting the size of the image if (destWidth > (currentRotatedImage.Width / 2) && destWidth < (currentRotatedImage.Width * 3) && destHeight > (currentRotatedImage.Height / 2) && destWidth < (currentRotatedImage.Width * 3)) { AForge.Imaging.Filters.ResizeBilinear resizeFilter = new AForge.Imaging.Filters.ResizeBilinear(destWidth, destHeight); pictureBox1.Image = resizeFilter.Apply((Bitmap)currentRotatedImage); pictureBox1.Size = pictureBox1.Image.Size; pictureBox1.Refresh(); } smoothScaleCount = -1; } prevMouseLoc = e.Location; currentScaledImage = pictureBox1.Image; smoothScaleCount++; } }

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