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• How to create an SaaS Application?

  - by Andrew

  I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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• Infinite loop in regex in java

  - by carpediem

  Hello, My purpose is to match this kind of different urls: url.com my.url.com my.extended.url.com a.super.extended.url.com and so on... So, I decided to build the regex to have a letter or a number at start and end of the url, and to have a infinite number of "subdomains" with alphanumeric characters and a dot. For example, in "my.extended.url.com", "m" from "my" is the first class of the regex, "m" from "com" is the last class of the regex, and "y.", "extended." and "url." are the second class of the regex. Using the pattern and subject in the code below, I want the find method to return me a false because this url must not match, but it uses 100% of CPU and seems to stay in an infinite loop. String subject = "www.association-belgo-palestinienne-be"; Pattern pattern = Pattern.compile("^[A-Za-z0-9]\\.?([A-Za-z0-9_-]+\\.?)*[A-Za-z0-9]\\.[A-Za-z]{2,6}"); Matcher m = pattern.matcher(subject); System.out.println(" Start"); boolean hasFind = m.find(); System.out.println(" Finish : " + hasFind); Which only prints: Start I can't reproduce the problem using regex testers. Is it normal ? Is the problem coming from my regex ? Could it be due to my Java version (1.6.0_22-b04 / JVM 64 bit 17.1-b03) ? Thanks in advance for helping.

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• asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

  - by ajitatif

  i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

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• firefox lead dot in cookie issue

  - by Jon

  Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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• CakePHP Routes: Messing With The MVC

  - by thesunneversets

  So we have a real-estate-related site that has controller/action pairs like "homes/view", "realtors/edit", and so forth. From on high it has been deemed a good idea to refactor the site so that URLS are now in the format "/realtorname/homes/view/id", and perhaps also "/admin/homes/view/id" and/or "/region/..." As a mere CakePHP novice I'm finding it difficult to achieve this in routes.php. I can do the likes of: Router::connect('/:filter/h/:id', array('controller'=>'homes','action'=>'view')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/:id'); But I'm finding that the id is no longer being passed simply and elegantly to the actions, now that controller and action do not directly follow the domain. Therefore, questions: Is it a stupid idea to play fast and loose with the /controller/action format in this way? Is there a better way of stating these routes so that things don't break egregiously? Would we be better off going back to subdomains (the initial method of achieving this type of functionality, shot down on potentially spurious SEO-related grounds)? Many thanks for any advice! I'm sorry that I'm such a newbie that I don't know whether I'm asking stupid questions or not....

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• Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

  - by David Murdoch

  Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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• How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

  - by Jon Cram

  Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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• Bizarre Bug with our Rails app in IE

  - by Callmeed

  We're experiencing a really bizarre bug in our Rails 2.3.4 app. This bug only happens in Internet Explorer (7 and 8). Here's what happens: A new customer creates an account at https://domain.com/signup/free (notice no subdomain) Their account is identified by a subdomain like "example.domain.com" After signing up, they get a welcome screen with a link to their account's home page They follow the link, then click the "log in" button and attempt to login Even though they provide valid credentials, the app redirects back to their account's root url ... they can never reach their admin area The only way they can login (on IE) is by quitting and re-opening IE ... then it works fine ... Something with their initial session is preventing them from logging in. If it matters, we are using restful_authentication and the ssl_requirement plugin ... I'm not sure if one or both of those has a problem with IE but we are stumped here. Also, I've read IE has an issue with subdomains that contain underscores ... this isn't what's going on.

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• PHP - dynamic page via subdomain

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hi, im creating profile pages based on a subdomains using the wildcard DNS setting. Problem being, if the subdomain is incorrect, I want it to redirect to the same page but without the subdomain infront ie; if ( preg_match('/^(www\.)?([^.]+)\.domainname\.co.uk$/', $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'], $match)) { $DISPLAY_NAME = $match[2]; $query = "SELECT * FROM `" . ACCOUNT_TABLE . "` WHERE DISPLAY_NAME = '$DISPLAY_NAME' AND ACCOUNT_TYPE = 'premium_account'"; $q = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_" . mysql_error() ); if( mysql_num_rows( $q ) != 0 ) { }else{ mysql_close( $CON ); header("location: http://www.domainname.co.uk"); exit; } } I get a browser error: Firefox has detected that the server is redirecting the request for this address in a way that will never complete. I think its because when using header("location: http://www.domainname.co.uk"); it still puts the sub domain infront i.e. ; header("location: http://www.sub.domainname.co.uk"); Does anyone know how to sort this and/or what is the problem. Regards, Phil

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• Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

  - by digidave0205

  I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

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• Chache problem running two consecutive HTTP GET requests from an APP1 to an APP2

  - by user502052

  I use Ruby on Rails 3 and I have 2 applications (APP1 and APP2) working on two subdomains: app1.domain.local app2.domain.local and I am tryng to run two consecutive HTTP GET requests from APP1 to APP2 like this: Code in APP1 (request): response1 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local?test=first&id=1") ) response2 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local/test=second&id=1") ) Code in APP2 (response): respond_to do |format| if <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "first" <model_name>.find(params[:id]).update_attribute ( <field_name>, <field_value> ) format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } elsif <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "second" format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } end end After the first request I get the correct XML (response1 is what I expect), but on the second it isn't (response2 isn't what I expect). Doing some tests I found that the second time that <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> run (for the elsif statements) it returns always a blank value so that the code in the elseif statement is never run. Is it possible that the problem is related on caching <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name>? P.S.: I read about eTag and Conditional GET, but I am not sure that I must use that approach. I would like to keep all simple.

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• Subdomain Routing Rules (using chaining) Broke after upgrading to Zend Framework 1.9.5, but only for

  - by Dan

  I asked a similar question months ago (see How do I write Routing Chains for a Subdomain in Zend Framework in a routing INI file?), on how to write chaining rules in an app.ini format. The answer to this question worked wonderfully! Now, however, I have upgraded to the latest version of the Zend Framework 1.9.5 (I needed to upgrade for another issue) and now my subdomains no longer work! To clarify, if I visit subdomain.domain.com, it does not recognize my rule. However, if I visit subdomain.domain.com/somepage/ it does recognize my routing rule. Here is my code: ;; the following is apparently being ignored, and does not work routes.manager.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" routes.manager.route = "manager.sitename.com" routes.manager.defaults.module = "manager" ;; this is not being ignored and works! routes.manager.chains.settings.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Static" routes.manager.chains.settings.route = "/settings" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.controller = "manager" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.action = "settings" So for example, if I go to manager.sitename.com, it just redirects to my default index and controller (does not access the module, $this-getRequest()-getModuleName() is blank). However, if I go to manager.sitename.com/settings, the page comes up! This app.ini configuration works fine in ZF 1.7.8, But now since I upgraded to 1.9.5, it no longer works. I have tried adding routes.manager.defaults.controller = "manager" and routes.manager.defaults.action = 'index" to my configuration as well, but this didn't work. There is not much out there on the internet with chaining and app.ini dealing with Zend Framework. Any help on this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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• .htaccess - alias all www-only requests to subdirectory

  - by CodeMoose

  Trying to install the wonderful Concrete5 CMS to use as my main site engine - the problem is it has about 15 different files and directories, and they clutter up my root. I'd really like to move it to a /_concrete/ subdirectory, and still maintain it in the domain root. htaccess has never been my strong suit - after a lot of research and learning, and a lot of error 500s, my frustration is overriding my pride and I'm posting here. Here's exactly what I'm trying to accomplish: Any requests that come through www.domain.com are forwarded to www.domain.com/_concrete/, except in the case of an existing file. The end-user URL shouldn't change - they will still see the site as www.domain.com, even though they're being served www.domain.com/_concrete/. Multiple subdomains exist on this site as sub-folders within the root - thus, only requests coming through www.domain.com should be redirected. Here's the closest I got with my htaccess, which produces an error 500: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?domain\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !^_concrete RewriteRule ^(.*)$ _concrete/$1 [L,QSA] This is the result of 4 hours of sweat and blood (mostly blood), so I have to be close. I'm hoping one of your fine minds can point out a stupid mistake and put this thing to rest swiftly. Thanks for your time! Addendum: I previously posted .htaccess - alias domain root to subfolder a while ago, which got me started. Please don't fall into the trap of thinking it's a duplicate.

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• Converting IIS Redirect to .htaccess

  - by user1641321

  I am having trouble getting the rewrite to work on an apache server. The end result is so i can make subdomains on the fly just by adding a directory. For example anysubdomain.domain.com will redirect to domain.com/anysubdomain and still appear as anysubdomain.domain.com. Is there anyone out there that convert this for me? <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Subdomain Redirect" patternSyntax="ECMAScript" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(.*)$" /> <conditions trackAllCaptures="true"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^www\.obdevsite\.com" negate="true" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(.*)\.obdevsite\.com" /> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="^(.*)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="/{C:1}/{C:2}" appendQueryString="false" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite>

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• Apache config that uses two document roots based on whether the requested resource exists in the first [closed]

  - by mattalexx

  Background I have a client site that consists of a CakePHP installation and a Magento installation: /web/example.com/ /web/example.com/app/ <== CakePHP /web/example.com/app/webroot/ <== DocumentRoot /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ <== Magento /web/example.com/config/ <== Site-wide config /web/example.com/vendors/ <== Site-wide libraries The server runs Apache 2.2.3. The problem The whole company has FTP access and got used to clogging up the /web/example.com/, /web/example.com/app/webroot/, and /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ directories with their own files. Sometimes these files need HTTP access and sometimes they don't. In any case, this mess makes my job harder when it comes to maintaining the site. Code merges, tarring the live code, etc, is very complicated and usually requires a bunch of filters. Abandoned solution At first, I thought I would set up a new subdomain on the same server, move all of their files there, and change their FTP chroot. But that wouldn't work for these reasons: Firstly, I have no idea (and neither do they remember) what marketing materials they've sent out that contain URLs to certain resources they've uploaded to the server, using the main domain, and also using abstract subdomains that use the main virtual host because it has ServerAlias *.example.com. So suddenly having them only use static.example.com isn't feasible. Secondly, The PHP scripts in their projects are potentially very non-portable. I want their files to stay in as similar an environment as they were built as I can. Also, I do not want to debug their code to make it portable. Half-baked solution After some thought, I decided to find a way to section off the actual website files into another directory that they would not touch. The company's uploaded files would stay where they were. This would ensure that I didn't break any of their projects that needed HTTP access. It would look something like this: /web/example.com/ <== A bunch of their files are in here /web/example.com/app/webroot/ <== 1st DocumentRoot; A bunch of their files are in here /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ <== Some more are in here /web/example.com/site/ <== New dir; Contains only site files /web/example.com/site/app/ <== CakePHP /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ <== 2nd DocumentRoot /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/store/ <== Magento /web/example.com/site/config/ <== Site-wide config /web/example.com/site/vendors/ <== Site-wide libraries After I made this change, I would not need to pay attention to anything except for the stuff within /web/example.com/site/ and my job would be a lot easier. I would be the only one changing stuff in there. So here's where the Apache magic would happen: I need an HTTP request to http://www.example.com/ to first use /web/example.com/app/webroot/ as the document root. If nothing is found (no miscellaneous uploaded company projects are found), try finding something within /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/. Another thing to keep in mind is, the site might have some problems if the $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] variable reads /web/example.com/app/webroot/ but the actual files are within /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/. It would be better if the DOCUMENT_ROOT environment variable could be /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ for anything within the /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ directory. Conclusion Is my half-baked solution possible with Apache 2.2.3? Is there a better way to solve this problem?

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• How to reference a Domain Controller out of the Local Network?

  - by Adrian

  We have multiple servers scattered over different hosting providers. For learning, experimenting and, ultimately, production purposes, I set one of them as a Domain Controller. That went well, most of our services are now authenticating via AD, which helps us a lot. What I want to do now is to simplify the authentication for the multiple servers, by making each of them look at the Domain Controller. This way, our Devs can log into (Remote Desktop) the multiple servers with the same credentials from AD. I know I have to configure each server to look at the Domain Controller. But when I try to add the Domain Controller to the Computer, it cannot find it, although the Domain Controller address is a valid, reachable internet sub-domain (as in "ad.ourcompany.com"). This is the detailed error message: Note: This information is intended for a network administrator. If you are not your network's administrator, notify the administrator that you received this information, which has been recorded in the file C:\Windows\debug\dcdiag.txt. The following error occurred when DNS was queried for the service location (SRV) resource record used to locate an Active Directory Domain Controller for domain ad.ourcompany.com: The error was: "DNS name does not exist." (error code 0x0000232B RCODE_NAME_ERROR) The query was for the SRV record for _ldap._tcp.dc._msdcs.ad.ourcompany.com Common causes of this error include the following: - The DNS SRV records required to locate a AD DC for the domain are not registered in DNS. These records are registered with a DNS server automatically when a AD DC is added to a domain. They are updated by the AD DC at set intervals. This computer is configured to use DNS servers with the following IP addresses: 109.188.207.9 109.188.207.10 - One or more of the following zones do not include delegation to its child zone: ad.ourcompany.com ourcompany.com com . (the root zone) For information about correcting this problem, click Help. What am I missing? I'm an experienced Dev, but a newbie Sysdamin experimenting with new stuff. Disclaimer All IP addresses and domains/subdomains were changed to preserve security. If by any chance you still can see private information, please let me know so that I can change it.

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• How to configure DNS so that www.example.com goes to one server, *.example.com to another

  - by fishwebby

  I'm trying to set up my domain as follows, but I'm not actually sure if it's possible. I have a domain where I would like the base and www addresses to go to my static site, but others to go to my application server. For example: My domain is registered with Dreamhost, and my application is on a VPS at Webbynode. I've set up the domain in Dreamhost to use Webbynode's nameservers: ns1.dnswebby.com ns2.dnswebby.com ns3.dnswebby.com And in Webbynode I've set up a wildcard A record to point to the IP address of my VPS: * 1.2.3.4 A and this works nicely, if I go to app.example.com it resolves to my application server at Webbynode. However, what I'd like to do is have example.com and www.example.com go to my static site, hosted back at Dreamhost, whilst still having any other domain go to my app. What I've done to try and achieve this is set up these DNS "NS" entries at Webbynode, trying to get Dreamhost to resolve these domain names: (empty) ns1.dreamhost.com NS (empty) ns2.dreamhost.com NS (empty) ns3.dreamhost.com NS www ns1.dreamhost.com NS www ns2.dreamhost.com NS www ns3.dreamhost.com NS (I don't have a fixed IP address at Dreamhost so I can't just set up simple A records). However this doesn't work... does anyone have any idea if this is possible and if so how it could be done? Update: I've got this working now, as above for the domain (i.e. registered with Dreamhost, but using Webbynode's nameservers). To delegate the DNS for www.example.com to Dreamhost, I've got the following DNS entries set up: www.example.com. ns1.dreamhost.com. NS www.example.com. ns2.dreamhost.com. NS www.example.com. ns3.dreamhost.com. NS (note the full stops at the end) And to get example.com to resolve to my static site, I set up CNAME record: example.com. www.example.com. CNAME So now, example.com and www.example.com go to my static site on Dreamhost, and if they change the IP address of my shared hosting it won't affect me, and all other subdomains go to my application server. This seems to work nicely, but if anyone knows a better way to do it I'd be happy to hear it. Thanks to all who replied.

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• Choosing my first Domain Registrar?

  - by user36914

  This will be the first domain i've ever registered. So i'm at a loss what to look for. I definitely don't want to go with GoDaddy. Here are my requirements: Must have unlimited email forwards for my domain Easy to transfer away if i choose. Must not be one of those shady registrars that will try to auction your domain at the end. Ability to create sub domains Domain Registration is Private I would like a domain registrar that would let me use my dynamic ip of my ISP (Cable) if i want to. So hopefully they would have some type program that would detect IP changes and update accordingly So i've looked at a variety of registrars so far. The three left were really NameCheap, DreamHost, & DomainMonster. I have heard good things about DreamHost but i think its off the list because they don't give you any information about the features you get when you register your domain with them. They have a "Whats included" button the page but it mainly list the features with hosting not registration. DomainMonster looks pretty cool but i don't see anything about subdomains. Also i would assume they don't have a system for dynamic ip address updating. So you would have to constantly check that your ip of your ISP has changed or not and update it manually. NameCheap also looks nice. There are two things i really like about them. Right on their feature page they list "Free Dynamic DNS With Client" which is pretty cool. They also have a free SSL certificate for the first year. Haven't messed a lot with certificates but this would definitely be something i would use. Only minus i can see is you only get free private whois for the first year. After that its $2.99 which isn't that big of a deal. I'm leaning towards NameCheap now. Is this a good choice. Is there anything else i should be looking at?

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• Handling site not found and page not found with dynamic mass virtual hosting

  - by Rick Moynihan

  I have recently setup mass virtual hosting in Apache so that all we need to do is create a directory to create a new vhost. We're then also using wildcard DNS to map all subdomains to the server running our Apache instance. This works excellently, however I'm now having trouble configuring it to fail-over to an appropriate default/error-page when the vhost directory does not exist. The problem appears to be conflated between by my desire to handle the two error conditions: vhost not found i.e. there was no directory found matching the host supplied in the HTTP host header. I'd like this to display an appropriate site not found error page. The 404 page not found condition of the vhost. Additionally I have a specialised "api" vhost in its own vhost block. I've tried a number of variations and none seem to exhibit the behaviour I want. Here's what I'm working with right now: NameVirtualHost *:80 <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/site-not-found ServerName sitenotfound.mydomain.org ErrorDocument 500 /500.html ErrorDocument 404 /500.html </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName api.mydomain.org DocumentRoot /var/www/vhosts/api.mydomain.org/current # other directives, e.g. setting up passenger/rails etc... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> # get the server name from the Host: header UseCanonicalName Off VirtualDocumentRoot /var/www/vhosts/%0/current # other directives ... e.g proxy passing to api etc... ErrorDocument 404 /404.html </VirtualHost> My understanding is that the first vhost block is used as the default, so I have this here as my catch all site. Next I have my API vhost, and then finally my mass vhost block. So for a domain that doesn't match the first two ServerName's and has no corresponding directory in /var/www/vhosts/ I'd expect it to fall-over to the first vhost, however with this setup, all domains resolve to my default site-not-found. Why is this? By putting the mass-vhost block first, I can get the mass-vhosts to resolve properly, but not my site-not-found vhost... and in this case I can't seem to find a way to distinguish between a page-level 404 in the vhost, and the case where the VirtualDocumentRoot fails to find a vhost directory (this appears to use the 404 also). Any help out of this bind is much appreciated!

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• Best way to handle PHP sessions across Apache vhost wildcard domains

  - by joshholat

  I'm currently running a site that allows users to use custom domains (i.e. so instead of mysite.com/myaccount, they could have myaccount.com). They just change the A record of their domain and we then use a wildcard vhost on Apache to catch the requests from the custom domains. The setup is basically as seen below. The first vhost catches the mysite.com/myaccount requests and the second would be used for myaccount.com. As you can see, they have the exact same path and php cookie_domain. I've noticed some weird behavior surrounding the line below "#The line below me". When active, the custom domains get a new session_id every page load (that isn't the same as the non-custom domain session). However, when I comment that line out, the user keeps the same session_id on each page load, but that session_id is not the same as the one they'd see on a non-custom domain site either despite being completely on the same server. There is a sort of "hack" workaround involving redirecting the user to mysite.com/myaccount, getting the session ID, redirecting back to myaccount.com, and then using that ID on the myaccount.com. But that can get kind of messy (i.e. if the user logs out of mysite.com/myaccount, how does myaccount.com know?). For what it's worth, I'm using a database to manage the sessions (i.e. so there's no issues with being on different servers, etc, but that's irrelevant since we only use one server to handle all requests currently anyways). I'm fairly certain it is related to some sort of CSRF browser protection thing, but shouldn't it be smart enough to know it's on the same server? Note: These are subdomains, they're separate domains entirely (but on the same server). <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "/opt/local/www/mysite.com" ServerName mysite.local ErrorLog "/opt/local/apache2/logs/mysite.com-error.log" CustomLog "/opt/local/apache2/logs/mysite.com-access.log" common <Directory "/opt/local/www/mysite.com"> AllowOverride All #php_value session.save_path "/opt/local/www/mysite.com/sessions" php_value session.cookie_domain "mysite.local" php_value auto_prepend_file "/opt/local/www/mysite.com/core.php" </Directory> </VirtualHost> #Wildcard (custom domain) vhost <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "/opt/local/www/mysite.com" ServerName default ServerAlias * ErrorLog "/opt/local/apache2/logs/mysite.com-error.log" CustomLog "/opt/local/apache2/logs/mysite.com-access.log" common <Directory "/opt/local/www/mysite.com"> AllowOverride All #php_value session.save_path "/opt/local/www/mysite.com/sessions" # The line below me php_value session.cookie_domain "mysite.local" php_value auto_prepend_file "/opt/local/www/mysite.com/core.php" </Directory> </VirtualHost>

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• Google Apps For Business, SSO, AD FS 2.0 and AD

  - by Dominique dutra

  We are a small company with 22 people in the office. We had a lot of problems with e-mail in the past so I decided to change over to Google Apps for Business. It is the perfect solution for us, except for one thing: I need to be able to control the access to the mailboxes. Only users inside the office, authenticated to AD, or users authenticated to our VPN can connect to gmail. From what I've read it is possible using the SSO (Single Sign On) solution provided by Google - but i am having some trouble finding consistent information about it. First of all, our infrastructure: Windows Server 2008 R2 Active Directory, one domain only. Kerio Control for QoS and VPN. That's about it on our side. On Google Apps' side, I have one account, and 03 domains that my users use to log in. The main domain has most of the users, but the are a couple of people that login using one of the subdomains. I have a 03 domains because I run mail for 03 companies and wanted all to be in within the same control panel. Well, I found some guides on the internet but none of them cover the AD FS installation part. I've read somewhere that I needed to download AD FS 2.0 directly from Microsoft.com, because the one that came with Windows Server was a old version. I downloaded it (adfsSetup.exe) and tried to install but got an error, saying that I needed a Windows Server 2008 Sp2 for that program. My Windows Server 2008 is R2. I really need some help here, this is very importand, I dont want to have to pay $1000 for a SSO solution when i have an AD set up. Can someone please point me out to the right direction? Where can I find an AD FS 2.0 setup compatible with R2 would be a good start, or the one that came with r2 is already the 2.0 version. After the initial setup, there are some guides on the internet about the Google Apps part. It seems to be really easy. I also tried adding AD FS role, but there are a bunch of options wich I have no idea what means, and I coudn't find any guide covering that on the internet. I dont have a lot of experience with Windows Server, but I have a company wich is certificated and provide us with support. I can ask for their help in the later setup, but I dont think ADFS is a very common thing to deal with.

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• Moving from VPS to Cloud

  - by GRIGORE-TURBODISEL

  ...and I have a few questions. I'm basically working on a MySQL+PHP based webapp. Since I don't have on-demand scaling with VPS, I'm planning to move from VPS to Cloud when I hit the 1000 subscribers barrier. I'm looking at Windows Azure but I'm ok with other suggestions. So here are my questions: Will it really cost me a kidney? Every subscriber needs to download around 4-5MB of static resources each day. Bandwidth is free on the VPS but here I see costs can easily get to $800.00/mo; this makes me very insecure about the whole thing, I mean VPS is just $2,000/yr. Do I need another VM or is PHP included in the Web Sites? I have basic sysadmin skills, I think I can handle setting up a PHP install, but will I have to do this? If yes, what other service do I need to setup manually? What about Memcached, MySQL, etc? What security protections does it include? For example I have some basic protection included, like directory traversals and executable files upload; I also have CloudFlare on my other websites for DDoS protection; will I need to do the same thing here too, can it even be installed, can I edit my DNS records, etc? How are e-mails, subdomains, add-on domains, parked domains, etc. handled? I haven't seen any references to e-mail boxes. On the VPS I simply add them from cPanel ([email protected] / whatever.mysite.com / ...); do I have a similar management interface here? Do I get SSH access? Or at least FTP, remote MySQL access and maybe some incremental back-ups or something? Can I see my quotas and advanced traffic info? I must mention that I really like the idea of the whole "cloud" concept, the added reliability and everything but I really need maybe a parallel to regular hosting or something so I know what to expect.

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• Mac OSX 10.8 Server DNS Domain Routing

  - by Oldek

  I just cant seem to figure out the logic in how to configure my Mac Server. So I have set up an DNS, which will take the domain and all subdomains and point towards an IP. File: db.mydomain.com (in /var/named/) mydomain.com. 10800 IN SOA mydomain.com. admin.mydomain.com. ( 2012110903 ; serial 3600 ; refresh (1 hour) 900 ; retry (15 minutes) 1209600 ; expire (2 weeks) 86400 ; minimum (1 day) ) 10800 IN NS mydomain.com. 10800 IN A 10.0.1.2 www.mydomain.com. 10800 IN A 10.0.1.2 So I want all of these requests to be requested to the 10.0.1.2 server, as I run 2 servers in my cluster. This one has always handled the requests, and now I want to add a server in between. So the server in between will get all the signals from my router which NAT the trafic coming from outside. So after setting this up and trying to point my port 80 towards my new server which will be the middle point, it doesn't work. Is it even possible to do it this way? First server: Mac Second server: Linux So what I try to achieve once more: 1. User goes to mydomain.com or www.mydomain.com 2. User request gets handled by my first server 3. First server refers to a local server, which is only available locally (it is configured to allow requests on port 80 and handle them) 4. Second server receives signal 5. Second server returns a request (either directly send to user or send through first server, whichever is most secure and configurable) I also want to be able to set up domains that lead to other servers in the future, and some that are only available within the VPN. (If that changes anything) I hope some kind soul could help me with this, it is really cumbersome for my mind to get the logic here. Do I have to configure my other server in any way? /Marcus

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• How to use ResourceManager in a "website" mode ?

  - by Erick

  I am trying here to do a manual translation for the application I am working with. (There is already a working LocalizationModule but it's working dodgy, so I can't use <asp:Localize /> tags. Normally with ResourceManager you are supposed to be using it as Namespace.Folder.Resourcename (in an application). Currently I am translating an existing asp.net "website" (not web application so no namespace here....). The resources are located into a folder name "Locales/resources" which contains "fr-ca.resx" and "en-us.resx". So I used a code with something like this : public static string T(string search) { System.Resources.ResourceManager resMan = new System.Resources.ResourceManager( "Locales", System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(), null ); var text = resMan.GetString(search, System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture); if (text == null) return "null"; else if (text == string.Empty) return "empty"; else return text; } and inside the page I have something like this <%= Locale.T("T_HOME") %> When I refresh I have this : Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure "Locales.resources" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly "App_Code.9yopn1f7" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Resources.MissingManifestResourceException: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure "Locales.resources" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly "App_Code.9yopn1f7" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. Source Error: Line 14: System.Resources.ResourceManager resMan = new System.Resources.ResourceManager( "Locales", System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(), null ); Line 15: Line 16: var text = resMan.GetString(search, System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture); Line 17: Line 18: if (text == null) Source File: c:\inetpub\vhosts\galerieocarre.com\subdomains\dev\httpdocs\App_Code\Locale.cs Line: 16 I even tried to load the resource with Locales.fr-ca or only fr-ca nothing quite work here.

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• On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

  - by Craig Russell

  Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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