Search Results

Search found 538 results on 22 pages for 'subdomains'.

Page 20/22 | < Previous Page | 16 17 18 19 20 21 22  | Next Page >

• Cannot connect to remote mail server for sending emails in ASP.NET

  - by Dave

  I want to migrate a web application from a Windows Server 2003 to a Windows Server 2008 R2. All works fine except sending emails from the application. If I configure the application to use the smtp server on "localhost" it works, but changing it to the "real" host name (e.g. mail.example.org) no mail is sent. The error message says, that the remote server needs a secure connection or smtp authentication. But since it works when using "localhost" instead of the host name I doubt that this is the problem. Also it's unlikely a problem with the mail server, I also tried it with another one. So for me it seems like the firewall is blocking the outgoing connection to the mail server. I tried to open port 25, but it still did not work. Maybe I just did it the wrong way. Update: For clarifying my setup: I have a Windows Server 2008 R2 with hMailServer installed (set up for some of the hosted domains) For the website I'm talking about I need to use an external mail server (totally different hosting provider) Apparently I was a bit off the track. It seems like it works when using connecting to the local mail server either with the host name "localhost" or "mail.somedomain.com" (while somedomain.com is set up in my mail server). But when using the host name of the external mail server ("mail.externaldomain.com") it seems like it tries to connect to the local server again, although this domain is not set up in the mail server. Thanks to Evan Anderson for the tip to use telnet - why I have not thought of it myself?... :-) Note, the website www.externaldomain.com is hosted on my server but the DNS entries are maintained by the other hosting provider. "externaldomain.com" is the only entry which points to my server all other records (MX, subdomains) are pointing to the other server. So I think the question is now, how do i bring my server to connect to the external mailserver. Do I have to configure this in my mail server or is it a windows server thing?

  Read the article

• Setting up self signed cert and CA [plesk / linux]

  - by microchasm

  I'm about ready to give up and do a clean wipe of this machine and start over with ISPConfig or some other variant. I installed Plesk on this machine to help with some of the handiwork. It is the free version (single domain); I don't need it for much. It's nice, though, to use to set up db's email, etc. Anyway, I would like to set it up as a CA (which I can add to users' trusted root servers to alleviate those warnings). It seems like Plesk does all it can to obfuscate where things are. Despite trying to find the conf files, and crt/pem/key etc. I am (5 hours later) now left with a machine that won't even get to the ssl page. The browser will sit there, until a 'connection reset' error comes up. In error_log, I get messages saying CN doesn't match server name -- which it does. ssl_error_log: [Thu May 13 16:02:14 2010] [warn] RSA server certificate is a CA certificate (BasicConstraints: CA == TRUE !?) [Thu May 13 16:12:19 2010] [warn] RSA server certificate is a CA certificate (BasicConstraints: CA == TRUE !?) not very helpful. If anyone has any experience, and/or recommendations (including other software), I'd be much obliged. NB RHEL5; 1 domain, 3 subdomains; everything local only. Thanks.

  Read the article

• SSL wildcard certificates and trailing 'www'

  - by user173326

  I've got a wildcard SSL certificate for *.mydomain.com. I'm using nginx, and redirecting all traffic for http to https, and also rewriting the URLs without a trailing www (if there is one). So it has, 1) http://subdomain.mydomain.com ---> https://subdomain.mydomain.com 2) http://www.subdomain.mydomain.com ---> https://subdomain.mydomain.com 3) https://www.subdomain.mydomain.com ---> https://subdomain.mydomain.com 4) https://subdomain.mydomain.com ---> https://subdomain.mydomain.com However, since my cert is for *.mydomain.com, case 3 gets an SSL error in chrome ('This is probably not the site that you are looking for!'), but if you click through it gets redirected and all is well. I understand why, since the initial connection is for https with a www (2 levels of subdomains), which doesn't match what is on the wildcard certificate. I thought a solution would be to get an additional cert for *.*.mydomain.com to cover www.*.mydomain.com. But it seems like that won't work. I spoke to agents from namecheap and comodo, and both said *.*.mydomain.com was not possible. I also came across this: https://support.quovadisglobal.com/KB/a60/will-ssl-work-with-multilevel-wildcards.aspx Is there a solution to this? To be able to cover www.*.mydomain.com?

  Read the article

• Homebrew large data cluster access for 2 user levels?

  - by Yegor

  The title probably makes little sense, so here is an example. I have a file hosting site, that serves a large amount of semi-randomly accessed files. The setup is as follows: High horsepower front-end +DB server that also does encoding for files that need encoding Fresh file server, which stores newly uploaded content, thats probably (and usually) rapidly accessible, which has 500GB of raided SSD storage, that can push over 3GBit of traffic. 3 cheap node servers, containing 2 x 750GB SATA drives in raid1, where files older than 2 weeks are archived, from the SSD server (mentioned above). Files on each server are accessed via subdomains (via modsec) in a straight forward fashion (server1.domain.com, server2.domain.com, etc) Where I have the problem is this. I introduced a "premium" service where people pay a small fee every month, and get ad-free, quick accesses to stuff on the site. Once they are logged in, they access same files via premium.server1.domain.com via a different modsec script, with a different pass phrase. That all works fine and dandy.... except the cheap node servers are all IO bound, so accessing the files on them via a different, unsaturated network makes no difference, since it cannot read off the drive fast enough. What would be a good way to make files on the site be accessible via 2 different network routes, 1 of which will be saturated (the "free network") while all other files are on an un-saturated "premium" network?

  Read the article

• Domain changes required for SSL integration

  - by user131003

  Currently my site supports regular payment options (User is taken to Payment Gateway/PG website). Now I'm trying to implement "seamless" PG integration. I need SSL for this. I'm having a dedicated server with 5 static IPs from Hostgator/HG. options: I take SSL for www.my_domain.com. According to HG, I need to change IP of main site as current IP is not really dedicated as it is being shared by cpanel etc. So They need to bind another dedicated IP to main domain for SSL to work. This would required DNS change for main website and hence cause few hours downtime (which is ok). I've noticed that most of the e-commerce websites are using subdomains like secure.my_domain.com for ssl/https. This sounds like a better approach. But I've got few doubts in this case: a) Would I need to re-register with existing PGs (Paypal, Google Checkout, Authorize.net) if I switch to subdomain? Re-registering is not an option for me. b) Would DNS change be required for www.my_domain.com in this case. This confusion arose because of following reply from HG : "If the sub domain secure.my_domain.com is added to an existing cPanel it will use the IP for that cPanel so as long as it is a Dedicated IP that will be fine. If secure.my_domain.com gets setup as its own cPanel it will need to be assigned to a Dedicated IP which would have a DNS change involved.". PLease suggest.

  Read the article

• How to set up hosts file for local environment?

  - by n00b0101

  I'm trying to create subdomains on my localhost and am way out of my territory... I'm running MAMP on my Mac OS X and I thought/think I had/have to do the following: (Assuming I want to create me.localhost.com and you.localhost.com) (1) Edit /private/etc/hosts Right now, it looks like this: 127.0.0.1 localhost 255.255.255.255 broadcasthost ::1 localhost fe80::1%lo0 localhost So, do I just make it: 127.0.0.1 localhost 127.0.0.1 me.localhost.com 127.0.0.1 you.localhost.com 255.255.255.255 broadcasthost ::1 localhost fe80::1%lo0 localhost (2) I'm assuming I don't need to mess with DNS at all because it's local? So, the hosts file should suffice? (3) And then, I need to edit my httpd.conf file to include virtual hosts? I tried this, but it's not picking it up... NameVirtualHost * <VirtualHost *> DocumentRoot "/Applications/MAMP/htdocs" ServerName localhost </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *> DocumentRoot "/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/me.localhost.com" ServerName me.localhost.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *> DocumentRoot "/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/you.localhost.com" ServerName you.localhost.com </VirtualHost> Not sure if I'm way off-base here... Help is greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Two servers, two domains, one ip. mod_proxy beginner

  - by Gutsav

  I run two virtual web servers (both running apache2 on debian). I have just one external IP, but two domains, and I want a domain going to each of the servers. I've understood that I need a Reverse Proxy, and I enabled both the mod_proxy and the mod_proxy_http modules on the "primary server". Do I need to enable anything on the "secondary server"? I also understood that I need to write some things in a virtual host file, but what? On the primary server, I have a virtual host file for one of the domains, and some for subdomains. I want domain1.tld to go to the primary server (port 80 is forwarded to it, so that works) and domain2.tld to go to the other server (internal ip 192.168.0.x). No ports needs to be forwarded to it, right? So, what to add and in which virtual host file? Or a new one? Other questions suggest adding ProxyPass and ProxyPassReverse, but I'm lost anyway, and I just don't understand the apache documentation. Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Why is this setting for Name-based Virtual Host settings not working?

  - by Kave

  I have two domains (siteA.com & SiteB.com) that point to the same webserver and I would like to show different web pages for each. The steps I have taken so far are: Copy the default site (siteA) to siteB 1) sudo cp /etc/apache2/sites-available/default /etc/apache2/sites-available/siteB 2) sudo vim /etc/apache2/sites-available/siteB <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/siteB <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /var/www/siteB> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride FileInfo Indexes Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost *:80> Then I created under /var/www/siteB and created a sample index.html in there. However when I load my domain siteB.com I still get directed to /var/www/siteA. Why is that? Do I have to rename the /etc/apache2/sites-available/default to /etc/apache2/sites-available/siteA as well? UPDATE: Thanks to the answer below it seems I had forgotten next to enabling the site also another entry: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName siteB.com ServerAlias www.siteB.com </VirtualHost *:80> in order to include all subdomains as well then do: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName siteB.com ServerAlias *.siteB.com </VirtualHost *:80> Same goes for siteA.

  Read the article

• Guide To Setting Accessing PhpMyAdmin On NGINX, Ubuntu 11.04, EC2 Remote MySQL Instance

  - by darkAsPitch

  I have setup a domain name to run on amazon ec2 running ubuntu 11.04, nginx and php5-fpm. The domain name works great, I have setup it's own sites-available configuration file and sym-linked it to sites-enabled. I installed phpmyadmin via sudo apt-get install phpmyadmin and followed the instructions. I then added this just above my /etc/nginx/nginx.conf file and restarted nginx. server { listen 80; server_name phpmyadmin.domain.com; location / { root /usr/share/phpmyadmin; index index.php; } #make sure all php files are processed by fast_cgi location ~ \.php { # try_files $uri =404; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(/.+)$; fastcgi_param PATH_INFO $fastcgi_path_info; fastcgi_param PATH_TRANSLATED $document_root$fastcgi_path_info; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; } } I have also added the appropriate dns A records for phpmyadmin.domain.com phpmyadmin.domain.com just shows a 404 error code. All other subdomains do not respond at all so at least something is working here. FYI I have edited the /etc/phpmyadmin/config.inc.php file so that I can connect to a remote MySQL Database. What else do I need to do?

  Read the article

• Last (I think and hope) problems configuring SSL certificate with Apache and VirtualHosts

  - by user65567

  Finally I set apache2 to get a single certificate for all subdomains. [...] # Go ahead and accept connections for these vhosts # from non-SNI clients SSLStrictSNIVHostCheck off # Apache setup which will listen for and accept SSL connections on port 443. Listen 443 # Listen for virtual host requests on all IP addresses NameVirtualHost *:443 # Because this virtual host is defined first, it will # be used as the default if the hostname is not received # in the SSL handshake, e.g. if the browser doesn't support # SNI. <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName domain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/domain/public" <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/domain/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName subdomain1.domain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/subdomain1/public" <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/subdomain1/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName subdomain2.domain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/subdomain2/public" <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/subdomain2/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> So, for example, I can correctly access https://subdomain1.domain.localhost https://subdomain2.domain.localhost ... Now, anyway, I have problems on accessing http://subdomain1.domain.localhost http://subdomain2.domain.localhost ... Since I use a Mac Os, on accessing the "http: version", I get a default page "Your website." (instead of a error). Why does it happen?

  Read the article

• Best method to redirect internal DNS to external website?

  - by ProfessionalAmateur

  We host several web based applications outside of intranet. The URL's to these applications are long, complex and overall not user friendly. Ex: http://hostingsite:port/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx <-- (production) http://hostingsite:port22/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx <-- (dev) http://hostingsite:port33/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx <-- (test) I'd like to create an internal DNS entry to allow users to access these sites with ease. Ex: http://prod --> http://hostingsite:port/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx http://dev --> http://hostingsite:port22/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx I'm not familiar with the DNS process and setup, as far as I know a DNS can only be redirected to an IP, but not to subdomains for directory paths as described above? Is this a correct assumption? I am thinking for throwing up an internal webserver that will listen to the internal DNS entries and redirect to the external sites. http://prod --> [internal webserver] --> redirect --> http://hostingsite:port/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx Is there a better way to do this?

  Read the article

• Troubles with apache and virtual hosts

  - by xZero

  I have a BIG problem. I have VPS with Debian OS, and LAMP installed. Fresh install. For control panel i using Webmin. Now i trying to setup multiple sub-domains on my server using webmin for example: downloads.my-domain.com cpanel.my-domains.com forum.my-domains.com But problem what is happening is next, while i using no virtual hosts, everything works perfectly when i accessing it using my-domain.com, but when i add Virtual host, i cann access it but my-domain.com becomes unavilable because it redirects to virtual hosts i added. When i add more than 2 virtual hosts, problem is still here. Also, when i try to access to virtual server for example downloads.my-domain.com, it redirects again to cpanel.my-domains.com When i delete virtual hosts, access to my-domain.com is succesfull... What i known: - That is not problem with my domain provider. I correctly added subdomains and added host record to my VPS IP. - I added unique name to every single virtual host. - There are no two same virtual hosts - Every virtaul hosts have own directory: for example: downloads.my-domain.com have own WWW dir: /var/downloads Can somebody help me? Thanks.

  Read the article

• mod_rewrite redirect subdomain to folder

  - by kitensei

  I have a wordpress blog at the url http://www.orpheecole.com, I would like to setup 3 subdomains (cycle1, cycle2, cycle3) being redirected to their folders (1 subdomain = 1 wp blog, no multisite enabled) The file tree looks like this: /var/www/orpheecole.com/ /var/www/cycle1.orpheecole.com/ /var/www/cycle2.orpheecole.com/ /var/www/cycle3.orpheecole.com/ the following .htaccess try to redirect to /var/www/orpheecole.com/cycleX instead of its own directory, but id it's possible i'd rather redirect every subdomain to its own www folder. my sites-enabled file for main site is # blog orpheecole <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName orpheecole.com ServerAlias *.orpheecole.com DocumentRoot /var/www/orpheecole.com/ <Directory /var/www/orpheecole.com/> Options -Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/orpheecole.com-error_log TransferLog /var/log/apache2/orpheecole.com-access_log </VirtualHost> and the .htaccess located on /var/www/orpheecole.com/ looks like this <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^\.]+)\.orpheecole\.com$ RewriteCond /var/www/orpheecole.com/%1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*) www\.orpheecole\.com/%1/$1 [L] # BEGIN WordPress RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^index\.php$ - [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] # END WordPress </IfModule> I tried to remove wordpress directives but nothing change, and the rewrite mod is enabled and working.

  Read the article

• Make nginx config like apache2 virtualhosts

  - by user2104070

  I have web server with apache2 with many subdomains on it like, domain.com, abc.domain.com, def.domain.com etc. etc. Now I got a new nginx server and want to set it up like apache2, so to test I created configs (2 files in /etc/nginx/sites-available/ and link to them from sites-enabled/) as shown, domain.config: server { listen 80 default_server; listen [::]:80 default_server ipv6only=on; root /srv/www/; index index.html index.htm; # Make site accessible from http://localhost/ server_name domain.com; location / { # First attempt to serve request as file, then # as directory, then fall back to displaying a 404. try_files $uri $uri/ =404; } } abc-domain config: server { listen 80; listen [::]:80; root /srv/www/tmp1/; index index.html index.htm; # Make site accessible from http://localhost/ server_name abc.domain.com; location / { # First attempt to serve request as file, then # as directory, then fall back to displaying a 404. try_files $uri $uri/ =404; } } but when I access with domain.com I am getting index.html from /var/www/tmp1 only. Is there something I'm doing wrong in the nginx config?

  Read the article

• Choosing local versus public domain name for Active Directory

  - by DSO

  What are the pros and cons of choosing a local domain name such as mycompany.local versus a publicly registered domain name such as mycompany.com (assuming that your org has registered the public name)? When would you choose one over the other? UPDATE Thanks to Zoredache and Jay for pointing me to this question, which had the most useful responses. That also led me to find this Microsoft Technet article, which states: It is best to use DNS names that are registered with an Internet authority in the Active Directory namespace. Only registered names are guaranteed to be globally unique. If another organization later registers the same DNS domain name, or if your organization merges with, acquires, or is acquired by other company that uses the same DNS names, then the two infrastructures cannot interact with one another. Note Using single label names or unregistered suffixes, such as .local, is not recommended. Combining this with mrdenny's advice, I think the right approach is to use either: Registered domain name that will never be used publicly (e.g. mycompany.org, mycompany.info, etc). Subdomain of an existing public domain name which will never be used publicly (e.g. corp.mycompany.com). The "never used publicly" part is a business decision so its probably best to get sign off from those in the company authorized to reserve domain names and subdomains. E.g. you don't want to use a registered name or subdomain that the marketing dept later wants to use for some public marketing campaign.

  Read the article

• Routing connections through VPN based on hostname (not IP range)

  - by Michal M

  This bugs me immensly. I need to connect to client's network through VPN. But I definitely do not want to send all the traffic through client's network so this option is out of question. What I need basically is for the OS to know that all client's network subdomains (*.example.com) need to go through the VPN connection. I tried a couple of options: Changing order of services and setting the VPN on top, but this works the same as "Send all traffic over VPN connection". Using "VPN on Demand" option from network advanced options, but this feature is quite rubbish to be honest. Seems to work only in Safari (?!) and it doesn't route the connection, but it basically triggers the OS to connect to the selected VPN. The reason I need it to work based on hostnames rather than IP range is simple - my client has a lot of servers inside his network and it's impossible for me to remember all IPs. They are all within a range, but this doesn't help me remembering. Another option would be to put the VPN connection on the bottom of network services and untick "Send all traffic..." and then put all known hostnames in hosts file, but considering there could be hundreds of servers (therefore hostnames and ips too) it ridiculous job. And if new server appears on the network I'd need to edit the hosts file again. Sisyphean labours. However this works on Windows very simply. If a hostname is not available through default network interface, then it seems to try VPN connection and this works brilliantly. So, how can I achieve that on Mac, then? I know client's internal DNS addresses if that is of any help (like directing a certain domains through a different DNS)? PS. Using latest version 10.6.6. PS2. I am using VPN to access intranet, version control servers (svn://), samba shares and for SSH access to servers.

  Read the article

• Adding a 2008 server to a 2003 Domain with DNS devolution?

  - by mvdwege

  I'm running into a problem adding a 2008 server to our existing 2003 domain, and as I am not a Windows admin, I'm not getting the problem here. Some reading around on Technet seems to indicate that DNS devolution is the issue. Here's the setup: DNS for the entire company is hosted on a Unix server running Bind, including the service records for the Windows domain. Our toplevel is company.local, and functional domains are in subdomains, such as mgt.company.local (our management servers). Our Windows servers live mostly in office.company.local, but some of them live in .mgt.company.local and .customers.company.local. The 2003 servers all succesfully authenticate against company.local as the Windows domain. Their position in the infrastructure is set by setting the primary DNS suffix under the network settings and the computer name dialog. Trying to do the same with a brand new 2008 install throws an error though: "Changing the Primary Domain DNS name of this computer to office.company.local failed [...] The specified server cannot perform the requested operation" I tried googling, but the closest I came was the Technet article on DNS Devolution, and I can't make heads nor tails on how to apply that to my case. Addendum 2012-10-23: The problem is not joining the domain, that works, the problem is that it joins with the wrong name, as .company.local, instead of .office.company.local. So far everything works, but I'm rather afraid to run production like this, because sooner or later something is going to complain about the AD name not matching DNS.

  Read the article

• Google.com and clients1.google.com/generate_204

  - by David Murdoch

  I was looking into google.com's Net activity in firebug just because I was curious and noticed a request was returning "204 No Content." It turns out that a 204 No Content "is primarily intended to allow input for actions to take place without causing a change to the user agent's active document view, although any new or updated metainformation SHOULD be applied to the document currently in the user agent's active view." Whatever. I've looked into the JS source code and saw that "generate_204" is requested like this: (new Image).src="http://clients1.google.com/generate_204" No variable declaration/assignment at all. My first idea is that it was being used to track if Javascript is enabled. But the "(new Image).src='...'" call is called from a dynamically loaded external JS file anyway, so that would be pointless. Anyone have any ideas as to what the point could be? UPDATE "/generate_204" appears to be available on many google services/servers (e.g., maps.google.com/generate_204, maps.gstatic.com/generate_204, etc...). You can take advantage of this by pre-fetching the generate_204 pages for each google-owned service your web app may use. Like This: window.onload = function(){ var two_o_fours = [ // google maps domain ... "http://maps.google.com/generate_204", // google maps images domains ... "http://mt0.google.com/generate_204", "http://mt1.google.com/generate_204", "http://mt2.google.com/generate_204", "http://mt3.google.com/generate_204", // you can add your own 204 page for your subdomains too! "http://sub.domain.com/generate_204" ]; for(var i = 0, l = two_o_fours.length; i < l; ++i){ (new Image).src = two_o_fours[i]; } };

  Read the article

• ASP.Net FormsAuthentication Redirect Loses the cookie between Redirect and Application_AuthenticateR

  - by Joel Etherton

  I have a FormsAuthentication cookie that is persistent and works independently in a development, test, and production environment. I have a user that can authenticate, the user object is created, the authentication cookie is added to the response: 'Custom object to grab the TLD from the url authCookie.Domain = myTicketModule.GetTopLevelDomain(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_HOST")) FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(authTicket.Name, False) Response.SetCookie(authCookie) The user gets processed a little bit to check for a first time login, security questions, etc, and is then redirected with the following tidbit: Session.Add("ForceRedirect", "/FirstTimeLogin.aspx") Response.Redirect("~/FirstTimeLogin.aspx", True) With a debug break, I can verify that the cookie collection holds both a cookie not related to authentication that I set for a different purpose and the formsauthentication cookie. Then the next step in the process occurs at the ApplicationAuthenticateRequest in the global.asax: Sub Application_AuthenticateRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim formsCookieName As String = myConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FormsCookieName") Dim authCookie As HttpCookie = Request.Cookies(formsCookieName) At this point, for this ONE user authCookie is nothing. I have 15,000 other users who are not impacted in this manner. However, for one user the cookie just vanishes without a trace. I've seen this before with w3wp.exe exceptions, state server exceptions and other IIS process related exceptions, but I'm getting no exceptions in the event log. w3wp.exe is not crashing, the state server has some timeouts but they appear unrelated (as verified by timestamps) and it only happens to this one user on this one domain (this code is used across 2 different TLDs with approximately 10 other subdomains). One avenue I'm investigating is that the cookie might just be too large. I would think that there would be a check for the size of the cookie going into the response, and I wouldn't think it would impact it this way. Any ideas why the request might dumping the cookie? NOTE: The secondary cookie I mentioned that I set also gets dumped (and it's very tiny). EDIT-NOTE: The session token is NOT lost when this happens. However, since the authentication cookie is lost, it is ignored and replaced on a subsequent login.

  Read the article

• Losing sessions with window.open and cakephp redirection in PHP with cakephp

  - by vsecades

  Hi guys, Ok, here goes a very strange problem... Our team is using cakephp to develop a large application. Everything session related is working properly so far. The only issues we've had so far are related to iframes and opening windows in other subdomains. I'll explain: User opens up site A and logs into it, creation a User in a session. Cookies are set, everything works as expected. The user clicks a link that opens up Site B via Javascript. When they go to that site, they are automatically logged in by a backend mechanism and infrastructure. Site B is a subdomain of Site A. On that site there is another mechanism to go back to the first page (a link rather) that logs them back in to site A. The fun part about this whole process is the following, and that on step 3, when we click on the link, the session on Site A has been lost. I know it's lost because it is forcing login again. I am a bit lost, as the rest of the application that work with AJAX and uses iframes and stuff works flawlessly, just this one item does not work as one would expect. Any assistance would be appreciated. Cheers, Valentin

  Read the article

• Amazon ELB CNAME record not working

  - by BarthQuay

  Hi there, I have set up my EC2 infrastructure behind an ELB instance and by using the ELBs DNS name everything works as expected. Now i wanted to forward a subdomain of my main project domain to the ELBs DNS Name with a CNAME entry. I did this about 12 hours ago and it doesnt seem to work, and i dont know why. The subdomain just cant be resolved. This is the DNS entry which was processed from my DNS provider without errors yesterday: @ IN A 111.111.111.111 localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 mail IN A 111.111.111.111 www IN A 111.111.111.111 ftp IN CNAME www beta IN CNAME myelbnamehere.eu-west-1.elb.amazonaws.com imap IN CNAME www loopback IN CNAME localhost pop IN CNAME www relay IN CNAME www smtp IN CNAME www @ IN MX 10 mail Using nslookup, all the subdomains and main domain gets looked up correctly, but beta.domain.com doesnt. I get "** server can't find beta.domain.com: NXDOMAIN" What am i doing wrong ? Do i need to wait longer ? When i use the ELB DNS name directly everything works as expected. When i do an NSlookup on my providers DNS Server, the CNAME gets resolved, but it looks like any other DNS server cant find the subdomain thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Use multiple WSGI mount points in Apache with an Nginx reverse proxy

  - by Thomas

  I am trying to set up multiple virtual hosts on the same server with Nginx and Apache and have run into a curious configuration issue. I have nginx is configured with a generic upstream to apache. upstream backend { server 1.1.1.1:8080; } I'm trying to set up multiple subdomains in nginx that hit different mountpoints in apache. Each would act like the following examples. server { listen 80; server_name foo.yoursite.com; location / { proxy_pass http://backend/bar/; include /etc/nginx/proxy.conf; } ... } server { listen 80; server_name delta.yoursite.com; location / { proxy_pass http://backend/gamma/; include /etc/nginx/proxy.conf; } ... } These mountpoints are pointed at django projects, however each of the url entries are coming back prepended with the apache mountpoint path. So, if I called the django url entry for foo.yoursite.com/wiki/biz/, django appears to be returning foo.yoursite.com/bar/wiki/biz/. Similarly, if I call for the url entry for delta.yoursite.com/wiki/biz/, I get delta.yoursite.com/gamma/wiki/biz/. Is there any way get rid of the prefix being returned on the url entries by django and apache?

  Read the article

• What is the proper query to get all the children in a tree?

  - by Nathan Adams

  Lets say I have the following MySQL structure: CREATE TABLE `domains` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `domain` CHAR(50) NOT NULL, `parent` INT(11) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MYISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=10 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (1,'.com',0); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (2,'example.com',1); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (3,'sub1.example.com',2); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (4,'sub2.example.com',2); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (5,'s1.sub1.example.com',3); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (6,'s2.sub1.example.com',3); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (7,'sx1.s1.sub1.example.com',5); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (8,'sx2.s2.sub1.example.com',6); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (9,'x.sub2.example.com',4); In my mind that is enough to emulate a simple tree structure: .com | example / \ sub1 sub2 ect My problem is that give sub1.example.com I want to know all the children of sub1.example.com without using multiple queries in my code. I have tried joining the table to itself and tried to use subqueries, I can't think of anything that will reveal all the children. At work we are using MPTT to keep in hierarchal order a list of domains/subdomains however, I feel that there is an easier way to do it. I did some digging and someone did something similar but they required the use of a function in MySQL. I don't think for something simple like this we would need a whole function. Maybe I am just dumb and not seeing some sort of obvious solution. Also, feel free to alter the structure.

  Read the article

• Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

  - by Sergej Andrejev

  Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

  Read the article

• How to best implement Version Control for Web Development?

  - by Adam Taylor

  Version control systems are obviously important in development projects but there use in web development projects appears to be more complex, what with the requirement of having a web server to run all but the simplest of web applications. With that in mind, I have looked around and discovered a few different methods of using version control in web development projects: Provide each developer with a virtual machine which is a replication of the development server and have the developer run their working copy of the application in the virtual machine. Have each developer use a sub domain on the development server, e.g. john.project.com and checkout their working copy of the app to the directories the sub domain points to. Use the version control system to checkout code, make a change, commit the code and then check it on the development server (which points to the head of the repository). I can see a drawback of 1 being the added time required to create the virtual machines and ensure that the virtual machines are kept insync with the development server (also the need(?) to continuously change the developers host file to point at the virtual machine not the development server). I can see 2 possibly being a problem if absolute URLs are used within the site unless there is an easy way to update the configuration to use the new subdomains as well. 3 is the easiest to set up but is rather primitive and it will presumably become quite tedious for a developer to keep checking in the code after every time change. How have the users of stackoverflow used version control with web development projects and which method/workflow was most effective. Please also include extra methods I haven't thought of / read about.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 16 17 18 19 20 21 22  | Next Page >