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  • Problem with Zend Project

    - by Fincha
    Hello, i write a script and it works perfectly, on my local server. I have uploaded it on my server and now I getting this Problem Parse error: syntax error, unexpected '{' in /homepages/46/d319011794/htdocs/suche/public/index.php on line 18 an here is my index.php <?php error_reporting(E_ALL || E_STRICT); define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__)) . '/../application'); set_include_path( APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . '../application/models' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path() ); require_once 'Zend/Loader.php'; Zend_Loader::registerAutoload(); new App_Connect(); try { //Line 18 require '../application/bootstrap.php'; } catch(Exception $exception) { echo "<html><body>Fehler beim bootstraping"; if(defined('APPLICATION_ENVIROMENT') && APPLICATION_EVIROMENT != 'production') { echo "<br><br>" . $exception->getMessage() . "<br>" . "<div align='left'>Stack Trace: " . "<pre> " . $exception->getTraceAsString() . "</pre></div>"; } echo "</body></html>"; exit(1); } Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance()->dispatch(); This is a Zend Project... so may be some one know what to do...

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  • How do I run a command as a different user from a root cronjob?

    - by rob
    I seem to be stuck between an NFS limitation and a Cron limitation. So I've got root cron (on RHEL5) running a shell script that, among other things, needs to rsync some files over an NFS mount. And the files on the NFS mount are owned by the apache user with mode 700, so only the apache user can run the rsync command -- running as root yields a permission error (NFS being a rare case, apparently, where the root user is not all-powerful?) When I just want to run the rsync by hand, I can use "sudo -u apache rsync ..." But sudo no workie in cron -- it says "sudo: sorry, you must have a tty to run sudo". I don't want to run the whole script as apache (i.e. from apache's crontab) because other parts of the script do require root -- it's just that one command that needs to run as apache. And I would really prefer not to change the mode on the files, as that will involve significant changes to other applications. There's gotta be a way to accomplish "sudo -u apache" from cron?? thanks! rob

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  • What issues to consider when rolling your own data-backend for Silverlight / AJAX on non-ASP.NET ser

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have read-only Silverlight and AJAX apps which read static text and XML files from a PHP/Apache server, which works very nicely with features such as asynchronous loading, lazy-loading only what I need for each page, loading in the background, developed a little query language to get a PHP script to create custom XML files etc. it's pragmatic read-only REST, and all works fast and fine for read-only sites. Now I want to also add the ability to write data from these apps to a database on the same PHP/Apache server. For those of you who have built similar data-access layers, what do I need to consider while building this, especially regarding security so that not just any client can write and alter my database, e.g.: check HTTP_USER_AGENT for security check REMOTE_ADDR for security require a special code for security, perhaps a list of TAN codes (such as banks use for online transactions) each which can only be used once, both the client and server have these I wonder if there is some kind of standard REST query I should lean on for e.g. building SQL-like statements in the URL parameters, e.g. http://www.thedatalayersite.com/query?insertinto=customers&... Any thoughts, notes from experience, ideas, gotchas, especially ideas on tightening down security in this endeavor would be helpful.

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • Database sharing/versioning

    - by DarkJaff
    Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

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  • Dependency injection and factory

    - by legenden
    Trying to figure out how to best handle the following scenario: Assume a RequestContext class which has a dependency to an external service, such as: public class RequestContext : IRequestContext { private readonly ServiceFactory<IWeatherService> _weatherService; public RequestContext(ServiceFactory<IWeatherService> weatherService, UserLocation location, string query) { _weatherService = weatherService; ... What sort of dependency should I require in the class that will ultimately instantiate RequestContext? It could be ServiceFactory<IWeatherService>, but that doesn't seem right, or I could create an IRequestContextFactory for it along the lines of: public class RequestContextFactory : IRequestContextFactory { private readonly ServiceFactory<IWeatherService> _weatherService; public RequestContextFactory(ServiceFactory<IWeatherService> weatherService) { _weatherService = weatherService; } public RequestContext Create(UserLocation location, string query) { return new RequestContext(_weatherService, location, query); } } And then pass the IRequestContextFactory through constructor injection. This seems like a good way to do it, but the problem with this approach is that I think it hinders discoverability (devs must know about the factory and implement it, which is not really apparent). Is there a better/more discoverable way that I'm missing?

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  • Autocompleting \cite{} with emacs + auctex gives "cite: no such database entry"

    - by Alejandro Weinstein
    Hi: I am running Emacs 23.1.1 and AucTeX 11.85 in an Ubuntu 8.10 machine. After opening a tex file, the first time I try to use the autocompletion of the \cite{} command, I get "cite: info not available, use `C-c &' to get it." in the minibuffer. After doing the 'C-c &', I get "byte-code: No BibTeX entry with citation key". Subsequent calls to \cite gives me the message "cite: no such database entry" . I have a \bibliography{library} in my tex file, and the \cite{} entries that I did manually work as expected. I have the following in my .emacs (require 'reftex) (setq-default TeX-master nil) (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'TeX-PDF-mode) ;turn on pdf-mode. AUCTeX ;will call pdflatex to ;compile instead of latex. (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'LaTeX-math-mode) ;turn on math-mode by ;default (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'reftex-mode) ;turn on REFTeX mode by ;default (add-hook 'LaTeX-mode-hook 'flyspell-mode) ;turn on flyspell mode by ;default (setq reftex-plug-into-AUCTeX t) (setq TeX-auto-save t) (setq TeX-save-query nil) (setq TeX-parse-self t) (setq-default TeX-master nil) I also tried the suggestions in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2699017/suggestion-for-cite-in-emacs-with-auctex, but it didn't work either. Alejandro.

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  • Generating All Permutations of Character Combinations when # of arrays and length of each array are

    - by Jay
    Hi everyone, I'm not sure how to ask my question in a succinct way, so I'll start with examples and expand from there. I am working with VBA, but I think this problem is non language specific and would only require a bright mind that can provide a pseudo code framework. Thanks in advance for the help! Example: I have 3 Character Arrays Like So: Arr_1 = [X,Y,Z] Arr_2 = [A,B] Arr_3 = [1,2,3,4] I would like to generate ALL possible permutations of the character arrays like so: XA1 XA2 XA3 XA4 XB1 XB2 XB3 XB4 YA1 YA2 . . . ZB3 ZB4 This can be easily solved using 3 while loops or for loops. My question is how do I solve for this if the # of arrays is unknown and the length of each array is unknown? So as an example with 4 character arrays: Arr_1 = [X,Y,Z] Arr_2 = [A,B] Arr_3 = [1,2,3,4] Arr_4 = [a,b] I would need to generate: XA1a XA1b XA2a XA2b XA3a XA3b XA4a XA4b . . . ZB4a ZB4b So the Generalized Example would be: Arr_1 = [...] Arr_2 = [...] Arr_3 = [...] . . . Arr_x = [...] Is there a way to structure a function that will generate an unknown number of loops and loop through the length of each array to generate the permutations? Or maybe there's a better way to think about the problem? Thanks Everyone!

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  • Submit WordPress form programmatically

    - by songdogtech
    How can I let a user access a WordPress protected page with a URL that will submit the password in the form below? I want to be able to let a user get to a password protected WordPress page without needing to type the password, so when they go to the page, the password is submitted by a POST URL on page load. This not intended to be secure in any respect; I'll need to hardcode the password in the URL and the PHP. It's just for simplicity for the user, and once they're in, the cookie will let them in for 10 more days. I will select the particular user with separate PHP function that determines their IP or WordPress login status. I used Wireshark to find the POST string: post_password=mypassword&Submit=Submit but using this URL mydomain.com/wp-pass.php?post_password=mypassword&Submit=Submit gives me a blank page. This is the form: <form action="http://mydomain.com/wp-pass.php" method="post"> Password: <input name="post_password" type="password" size="20" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /></form> This is wp-pass.php: <?php require( dirname(__FILE__) . '/wp-load.php'); if ( get_magic_quotes_gpc() ) $_POST['post_password'] = stripslashes($_POST['post_password']); setcookie('wp-postpass_' . COOKIEHASH, $_POST['post_password'], time() + 864000, COOKIEPATH); wp_safe_redirect(wp_get_referer()); ?> What am I doing wrong? Or is there a better way to let a user into a password protected page automatically?

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  • Broken ssl, what to do

    - by TIT
    I have a site and i implemented ssl there. but when i browse it, the security seals dont come. i asked to godaddy, they replaid: Thank you for contacting online support. I cannot replicate the issue you have described. The error you described is caused by the way your site has been designed. If you receive this error, you have a combination of secure and non-secure objects on the page. For example, if your secure website was https://www.domain.tld and you added an object (an image, script, flash file, etc.) to that page that was located at http://www.domain.tld/image.jpg, you would break the seal. You will need to change your design to link to objects using https (ie https://www.domain.tld/image.jpg) or modify your site design to use relative paths (/image.jpg). This error can only be corrected by modifying your site design. Please contact your web designer or the manufacturer of your web design software if you require additional assistance modifying your site design. but the problem is i made everything,all my images javascripts are unders https, but the seal still not coming, saying: some content insecure. what is the problem.

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  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

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  • lightweight webserver to integrate on client end.

    - by Gopal
    Hi ,... I need to create a python module that will be installed on end-user machines. One of the scripts in that module should be able to receive http POSTS (usually with some JSON formatted data in the body) and then pass on that data to an appropriate python script. I can think of two ways to do this: a) Open a listening server socket on port 80, wait for that http request to come in, parse it and then pass that data to another python script depending on the url that arrived. This method will not require the end-user to install a webserver. End user only has to install the python module. b) Have a mini-webserver installed along with the python module. The webserver will do the same job as [a] via CGI without me requiring to write the CGI functionality. But then the user will have to install the web-server (ie., the hassle of yet another install). Would like to avoid that if possible. IF [b] is the easier option, what is the smallest simplest webserver there is (preferably one that can be packaged as part of the python module itself so that it does not have to be separately installed). Must be opensource of course. regards Gopal

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  • Close application on error

    - by poke
    I’m currently writing an application for the Android platform that requires a mounted SD card (or ExternalStorage). I know that it might not be the best way to require something like that, but the application will work with quite a lot of data, and I don’t even want to think about storing that on the device’s storage. Anyway, to ensure that the application won’t run without the external storage, I do a quick check in the activity’s onCreate method. If the card is not mounted, I want to display an error message and then quit the application. My current approach looks like this: public void onCreate ( Bundle savedInstanceState ) { super.onCreate( savedInstanceState ); setContentView( R.layout.main ); try { // initialize data storage // will raise an exception if it fails, or the SD card is not mounted // ... } catch ( Exception e ) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder( this ); builder .setMessage( "There was an error: " + e.getMessage() ) .setCancelable( false ) .setNeutralButton( "Ok.", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick ( DialogInterface dialog, int which ) { MyApplication.this.finish(); } } ); AlertDialog error = builder.create(); error.show(); return; } // continue ... } When I run the application, and the exception gets raised (I raise it manually to check if everything works), the error message is displayed correctly. However when I press the button, the application closes and I get an Android error, that the application was closed unexpectedly (and I should force exit). I read some topics before on closing an application, and I know that it maybe shouldn’t happen like that. But how should I instead prevent the application from continuing to run? How do you close the application correctly when an error occurs?

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  • How can I work around the fact that in C++, sin(M_PI) is not 0?

    - by Adam Doyle
    In C++, const double Pi = 3.14159265; cout << sin(Pi); // displays: 3.58979e-009 it SHOULD display the number zero I understand this is because Pi is being approximated, but is there any way I can have a value of Pi hardcoded into my program that will return 0 for sin(Pi)? (a different constant maybe?) In case you're wondering what I'm trying to do: I'm converting polar to rectangular, and while there are some printf() tricks I can do to print it as "0.00", it still doesn't consistently return decent values (in some cases I get "-0.00") The lines that require sin and cosine are: x = r*sin(theta); y = r*cos(theta); BTW: My Rectangular - Polar is working fine... it's just the Polar - Rectangular Thanks! edit: I'm looking for a workaround so that I can print sin(some multiple of Pi) as a nice round number to the console (ideally without a thousand if-statements) edit: In case anyone's curious, this was what I landed on: double sin2(double theta) // in degrees { double s = sin(toRadians(theta)); if (fabs(s - (int)s) < 0.000001) { return floor(s + 0.5); } return s; } where toRadians() is a macro that converts to radians

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  • How do I start up an NSRunLoop, and ensure that it has an NSAutoreleasePool that gets emptied?

    - by Nick Forge
    I have a "sync" task that relies on several "sub-tasks", which include asynchronous network operations, but which all require access to a single NSManagedObjectContext. Due to the threading requirements of NSManagedObjectContexts, I need every one of these sub-tasks to execute on the same thread. Due to the amount of processing being done in some of these tasks, I need them to be on a background thread. At the moment, I'm launching a new thread by doing this in my singleton SyncEngine object's -init method: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(initializeSyncThread) withObject:nil]; The -initializeSyncThread method looks like this: - (void)initializeSyncThread { self.syncThread = [NSThread currentThread]; self.managedObjectContext = [(MyAppDelegate *)[UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate createManagedObjectContext]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; [runLoop run]; } Is this the correct way to start up the NSRunLoop for this thread? Is there a better way to do it? The run loop only needs to handle 'performSelector' sources, and it (and its thread) should be around for the lifetime of the process. When it comes to setting up an NSAutoreleasePool, should I do this by using Run Loop Observers to create the autorelease pool and drain it after every run-through?

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  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

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  • Visual Studio: How to attach a debugger dynamically to a specific process

    - by Jeff Cyr
    I am building an internal dev tool to manage different processes commonly used in our development environment. The tool show the list the monitored processes, indicate their running state and allow to start or stop each process. I'd like to add the functionality of attaching a debugger to a monitored process from my tool instead of going in 'Debug-Attach to process' in visual studio and finding the process. My goal is to have something like Debugger.Launch() that would show a list of the available visual studio. I can't use Debugger.Launch() because it lauches the debugger on the process that make the call. I would need something like Debugger.Launch(processId). Does anyone know how to acheive this functionality? A solution could be to implement a command in each monitored process to call Debugger.Launch() when the command is received from the monitoring tool, but I would prefer something that does not require to modify the code of the monitored processes. Side question: When using Debugger.Launch(), instances of Visual Studio that already have a debugger attached are not listed. Visual Studio is not limited to one attached debugger, you can attach on multiple process when using 'Debug - Attach to process'. Anyone know how to bypass this limitation when using Debugger.Launch() or an alternative?

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  • How can I print a web page on a server?

    - by Gavin Schultz
    Suppose I develop a web page using the cool Google visualization API, and it does everything the user wants. They can the parameters, look at the graphs, and print the page to get a reasonable-looking report. All good. Now suppose I want to do the same thing server-side. For example, say we need a set of report generated at a specific time of day, printed to a PDF and emailed to a manager. It's not a user-initiated action, so we don't have a user's browser or their printer. We have a URL that would render the report if we had a browser, and that's it. Is there a good way to do this server-side? Is this just foolish? Has anyone done anything like that before? Do any of the major browsers have APIs that might provide such functionality? Keep in mind too that it's not just static HTML; probably javascript will be running first to shift the DOM around. I know we could implement a whole different reporting engine on the server side to do this, but that will (a) generate reports that look a bit different, and (b) require me to build/maintain two sets of functionality. Instead, I'd be happy if I could just render the page / pages I want in an invisible server-side browser and print it to a PDF (let's mostly ignore that step - I know any number of PDF printer drivers that could do this). I don't really want to do it ugly either - i.e. by starting a browser process and then sending keystrokes directly to the window either - that's just bound to fall apart with a slight nudge. The only related question I found had an answer like that. Any advice appreciated!

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  • memory alignment within gcc structs

    - by Mumbles
    I am porting an application to an ARM platform in C, the application also runs on an x86 processor, and must be backward compatible. I am now having some issues with variable alignment. I have read the gcc manual for __attribute__((aligned(4),packed)) I interpret what is being said as the start of the struct is aligned to the 4 byte boundry and the inside remains untouched because of the packed statement. originally I had this but occasionally it gets placed unaligned with the 4 byte boundary. typedef struct { unsigned int code; unsigned int length; unsigned int seq; unsigned int request; unsigned char nonce[16]; unsigned short crc; } __attribute__((packed)) CHALLENGE; so I change it to this. typedef struct { unsigned int code; unsigned int length; unsigned int seq; unsigned int request; unsigned char nonce[16]; unsigned short crc; } __attribute__((aligned(4),packed)) CHALLENGE; The understand I stated earlier seems to be incorrect as both the struct is now aligned to a 4 byte boundary, and and the inside data is now aligned to a four byte boundary, but because of the endianess, the size of the struct has increased in size from 42 to 44 bytes. This size is critical as we have other applications that depend on the struct being 42 bytes. Could some describe to me how to perform the operation that I require. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • I need to run a PHP script via command line but this happens.

    - by user355367
    I need to run a scrip via command line but the files necessary for me to run it require me to be in the directory of the script. But I cannot do it for every command line i need to run. Their are over five thousand. Could someone tell me how to either format the list easily or add something to the format that would make it run. I have something like this.... php /path/to/the/script/01240/script.php php /path/to/the/script/03770/script.php php /path/to/the/script/02110/script.php php /path/to/the/script/02380/script.php php /path/to/the/script/03220/script.php php /path/to/the/script/02340/script.php php /path/to/the/script/03720/script.php php /path/to/the/script/03460/script.php php /path/to/the/script/0180/script.php php /path/to/the/script/02000/script.php php /path/to/the/script/01830/script.php php /path/to/the/script/0980/script.php php /path/to/the/script/0400/script.php php /path/to/the/script/02750/script.php php /path/to/the/script/0760/script.php php /path/to/the/script/02690/script.php ..... and it goes on for 5000 more lines.

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  • If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • How to send complex types from PHP SoapClient to ASP.NET SOAP server?

    - by xaguilars
    Hello I'm having problems sending arrays, structs and arrays of structs from PHP to an ASP.NET SOAP server... Anyone have a sollution for this? I've googled for days and any sollution worked for me. Perphaps I'm forgetting something... There are examples of my code: $client = new SoapClient($options); $pCriteria = new stdClass(); $pCriteria->type=1; $pCriteria->capacity=4; //Test 1 (fail): $resp = $client->GetRooms(array("pCriteria"=>$pCriteria)); //Test 2 (fail): $resp = $client->GetRooms(array("pCriteria"=>new SoapVar($pCriteria, SOAP_ENC_OBJECT, "TCriteria", "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"))); print_r($resp); I don't know how to code functions that require an array of TCriteria (TCriteria[], TCriteria_Array type) either... i've tried sending the raw array, a SoapVar with SOAP_ENC_ARRAY encoding and TCriteria_Array type, ... but it does not work (the SOAP server becomes unavaiable and needs to be restarted). I've tried creating classes for the complex types too, instead of stdClass, but not working. I don't know where's the problem. The server admins cannot help me and I haven't found any sollution over internet. I'm a bit desperate hehe. Can you help me please? Can you provide samples of code with the three cases (array of simple data, array of struct and struct) ? Thanks!

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  • How to exit an if clause

    - by Roman Stolper
    What sorts of methods exist for prematurely exiting an if clause? There are times when I'm writing code and want to put a break statement inside of an if clause, only to remember that those can only be used for loops. Lets take the following code as an example: if some_condition: ... if condition_a: # do something # and then exit the outer if block ... if condition_b: # do something # and then exit the outer if block # more code here I can think of one way to do this: assuming the exit cases happen within nested if statements, wrap the remaining code in a big else block. Example: if some_condition: ... if condition_a: # do something # and then exit the outer if block else: ... if condition_b: # do something # and then exit the outer if block else: # more code here The problem with this is that more exit locations mean more nesting/indented code. Alternatively, I could write my code to have the if clauses be as small as possible and not require any exits. Does anyone know of a good/better way to exit an if clause? If there are any associated else-if and else clauses, I figure that exiting would skip over them.

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  • Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

    - by Dan Revell
    This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

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  • Reference 3.5 assembly from 4.0 winforms phail

    - by Dean Lunz
    So I have this utility library that is compiled as a dll under .net 3.5 and it is used by my asp.net 3.5 website. I created a .net 4.0 winforms app to push data onto the website. I want to make use of the functionality in the utilities library from this winforms app. The problem lies in that when I make reference to the utilities library and use the code in it intellisense barks at me saying that it can't find the objects in that library. The thing is I would switch the winforms app to 3.5 which fixes the problem, but I am using Tasks which require 4.0. And because my website and utilities library both run 3.5 and my website is hosted at godaddy that currently only supports asp.net 3.5 so compiling my utilities library under 4.0 for my winforms app is not going to work because it breaks my website. I have tried the app.config trick ala useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true" ... But that did not help. Obviously I could start a new utilities project for 4.0 and and copy the code files from the existing utilities library then reference the new 4.0 utilities library in my winforms app but, that strikes me as being rather overkill when all I want to do is reference the library and use it's functionality. Not to mention that I would have two utility libraries both containing the exact same code, and if I update the code in one I will need to make sure that the other is also updated. I could use add file as link, but you get the idea. So is there anything else I could try or any other way to solve or get around this? Or am I just going to have to break down and create a identical clone of the utilities library for 4.0.

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