Search Results

Search found 7418 results on 297 pages for 'argument passing'.

Page 218/297 | < Previous Page | 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225  | Next Page >

• "Instance variable 'xxx' accessed in class method....why?

  - by Michael Levy

  So please forgive me as I am very new to stackoverflow and to ios programming in general. I am attempting to change the text of a button i have, replacing current text with a date string (dateStringForInput) I am passing in from another class. The button is called myTodayButton and is declared in my .h file for my class inputMilesViewController... @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UIButton *myTodayButton; Below is the code from my .m. +(void) changeButtonText:(NSString*) dateStringForInput{ NSLog(@"we got to changebuttontext"); [_myTodayButton setTitle:dateStringForInput forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } I am getting the following error "Instance variable "_myTodayButton" accessed in class method. I understand that this is written in a class method rather than an instance method but i cant figure out how to get this change to happen. the button which prompts this call to changeButtonText is in the other class which is creating dateStringForInput. please help! thanks so much! be gentle with me....a bit overwhelmed . :-)

  Read the article

• How to fix: "NPMethod called on non-NPObject wrapped JSObject" error?

  - by chandra

  HI, I am trying to call a method defined in flash object from javascript (firefox-3.0/Linux) and getting the exception: "NPMethod called on non- NPObject wrapped JSObject". If I use eval on window.document.flash_object.func() it throws "NPMethod called on non-NPObject wrapped JSObject". Where as, if I define a javascript function in side the page as given below: function myFunc() { return flash_object.func(); } and later do a eval of window.document.myFunc() it works fine. I am running the two evals through a test framework called Selenium. [eval(window.document.flash_object.func()) and eval(window.document.myFunc())]. The issues seems to be issue with invoking the flash-object method without passing 'this' reference. Here is sample html/js code to reproduce this issue: "NPMethod called on non-NPObject wrapped JSObject". <script> function changeColor() { mymovie.changeColor(); } function getColorNP() { var func = mymovie.getColor; func(); } </script> <button type="button" onclick="getColorNP();">getColorNP</button> <button type="button" onclick="getColor();">getColor</button> getColorNP throws the exception Error: NPMethod called on non-NPObject wrapped JSObject! Source File: http://my.host/Colors/colors.html getColorNP throws the exception Error: NPMethod called on non-NPObject wrapped JSObject! Source File: http://my.host/Colors/colors.html Now, question to javascript gurus: Given flash object and a method name, how do I invoke the method on that object. Lets say, a function takes two arguments: a flash object, and a method name as string. I want to do an eval on object.method() inside that function. Is this possible, if so, can you please explain me how this can be done. As flash object's method is not a standard javascript function, i think its not possible to function binding through bind(). Is there any other alternative? Thx, Chandra

  Read the article

• "Does not make sense to draw an image" - Warning after upgrade to MountainLion

  - by Tom

  After I upgraded my programming machine to MountainLion and XCode to the new version I get this warning printed into the console everytime I run my application: It does not make sense to draw an image when [NSGraphicsContext currentContext] is nil. This is a programming error. Break on void _NSWarnForDrawingImageWithNoCurrentContext() to debug. This will be logged only once. This may break in the future. I'm not using an Image anywhere in my Application and I searched the whole project for an image but couldn't find one. Does anybody know what could cause this? I'm using 2 nib files btw: One Popover and the Mainwindow. Neither of them contains an image. Edit: I found the line when this appears: [self.popover showRelativeToRect:[appDelegate.menulet frame] ofView:appDelegate.menulet preferredEdge:NSMinYEdge]; But none of those object is nil. Any suggestions? Edit 2: The Menulet is a NSView subclass btw. So I'm passing a view.

  Read the article

• IndexOutOfBoundsException when updating a contact in contact list - Blackberry

  - by Taha

  Software and Simulator version i am using Blackberry Smartphone simulator: 2.13.0.65 Blackberry software version 5.0.0_5.0.0.14 I am looking at modifying contacts. Below is the code snippet i am using. I am getting a IndexOutOfBounds Exception at line String wtel = blackBerryContact.getString(BlackBerryContact.TEL, supportedAttributes[i]); Can someone advise what is going wrong here. Following is the code snippet ..... // Load the addressbook and let the user choose from list of contact BlackBerryContactList contactList = (BlackBerryContactList) PIM.getInstance().openPIMList(PIM.CONTACT_LIST,PIM.READ_WRITE); PIMItem pimItem = contactList.choose(); BlackBerryContact blackBerryContact = (BlackBerryContact)pimItem; PIMList pimList = blackBerryContact.getPIMList(); // get the supported attributes for Contact.TEL int[] supportedAttributes = pimList.getSupportedAttributes(Contact.TEL); Dialog.alert("Supported Attributes "+supportedAttributes.length); // gives me 8 for (int i=0; i < supportedAttributes.length;i++){ if(blackBerryContact.ATTR_WORK == supportedAttributes[i]){ Dialog.alert("updating Work"); // This alert is shown Dialog.alert("is supported "+ pimList.isSupportedAttribute(BlackBerryContact.TEL, supportedAttributes[i])+" "+pimList.getAttributeLabel(supportedAttributes[i])); // shows true and work String wtel = blackBerryContact.getString(BlackBerryContact.TEL, supportedAttributes[i]); // I get a IndexOutOfBounds Exception here if(wtel != ""){ pimItem.removeValue(BlackBerryContact.TEL, supportedAttributes[i]); } pimItem.addString( Contact.TEL, BlackBerryContact.ATTR_WORK, number); // passing the number that has to be updated if(pimItem.isModified()) { pimItem.commit(); Dialog.alert("Updated Work Number"); } } } ..... I want to update all the supported attributes for Contact.TEL field http://www.blackberry.com/developers/docs/5.0.0api/net/rim/blackberry/api/pdap/BlackBerryContact.html Field Values Per Field Supported Attributes ----------------------------------------------------------------------------- Contact.TEL 8 Contact.ATTR_WORK, Contact.ATTR_HOME, Contact.ATTR_MOBILE, Contact.ATTR_PAGER, Contact.ATTR_FAX, Contact.ATTR_OTHER, Contact.ATTR_HOME2, Contact.ATTR_WORK2

  Read the article

• Legacy URL rewriting with query string parameters

  - by John Kaster

  I've looked at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/817325/asp-net-mvc-routing-legacy-urls-passing-querystring-ids-to-controller-actions and several other similar posts for legacy URL routing, but I can't get past the error "The RouteData must contain an item named 'controller' with a non-empty string value." Looking this up on line didn't give me any hints to solve my problem. I've implemented the Legacy routing class described in the link above, and this is what I've defined in the routing table: routes.Add( "Legacy", new LegacyRoute("fooref.aspx", "FooRef", new LegacyRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "FooRef", "{controller}/{action}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", foo_id = UrlParameter.Optional, bar_id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); When I use Phil Haack's route debugger, it indicates that fooref.aspx has a match, but when I turn the route debugger off, I get the error above. If I reverse the statement order, I get "Resource not found" for /ctprefer.aspx, which makes sense -- so it appears to be finding that as a valid route when put in the other order. Where do I need to declare this missing controller reference? Have routing requirements changed for ASP.NET MVC 2 RTM?

  Read the article

• Invoking WCF functions using Reflection

  - by Jankhana

  I am pretty new to WCF applications. I have a WCF application that is using NetTcpBinding. I wanted to invoke the functions in WCF service using the System.Reflection's Methodbase Invoke method. I mean I wanted to Dynamically call the Function by passing the String as the Function name. Reflection works great for Web Service or a Windows application or any dll or class. So their is certain way to do this for WCF also but I am not able to find that. I am getting the Assembly Name than it's type everything fine but as we cannot create an instance of the Interface class I tried to open the WCF connection using the binding and tried to pass that object but it's throwing the exception as : "Object does not match target type." I have opened the connection and passed the object and type is of interface only. I don't know whether I'm trying wrong thing or in wrong way. Any idea how shall I accomplish this??? The NetTCPBinding all are properly given while opening the connection. And one more thing I am using WCF as a Windows Service using NETTCPBinding.

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc compress stream and remove whitespace

  - by Bigfellahull

  Hi, So I am compressing my output stream via an action filter: var response = filterContext.HttpContext.Response; response.Filter = new DeflateStream(response.Filter), CompressionMode.Compress); Which works great. Now, I would also like to remove the excess whitespace present. I found Mads Kristensen's http module http://madskristensen.net/post/A-whitespace-removal-HTTP-module-for-ASPNET-20.aspx. I added the WhitespaceFilter class and added a new filter like the compression: var response = filterContext.HttpContext.Response; response.Filter = new WhitepaperFilter(response.Filter); This also works great. However, I seem to be having problems combining the two! I tried: var response = filterContext.HttpContext.Response; response.Filter = new DeflateStream(new WhitespaceFilter(response.Filter), CompressionMode.Compress); However this results in some major issues. The html gets completely messed up and sometimes I get an 330 error. It seems that the Whitespace filter write method gets called multiple times. The first time the html string is fine, but on subsequent calls its just random characters. I thought it might be because the stream had been deflated, but isnt the whitespace filter using the untouched stream and then passing the resulting stream to the DeflateStream call? Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Logging in worker threads spawned from a pylons application does not seem to work

  - by TimM

  I have a pylons application where, under certain cirumstances I want to spawn multiple worker threads to process items in a queue. Right now we aren't making use of a ThreadPool (would be ideal, but we'll add that in later). The main problem is that the worker threads logging does not get written to the log files. When I run the code outside of the pylons application the logging works fine. So I think its something to do with the pylons log handler but not sure what. Here is a basic example of the code (trimmed down): import logging log = logging.getLogger(__name__) import sys from Queue import Queue from threading import Thread, activeCount def run(input, worker, args = None, simulteneousWorkerLimit = None): queue = Queue() threads = [] if args is not None: if len(args) > 0: args = list(args) args = [worker, queue] + args args = tuple(args) else: args = (worker, queue) # start threads for i in range(4): t = Thread(target = __thread, args = args) t.daemon = True t.start() threads.append(t) # add ThreadTermSignal inputData = list(input) inputData.extend([ThreadTermSignal] * 4) # put in the queue for data in inputData: queue.put(data) # block until all contents are downloaded queue.join() log.critical("** A log line that appears fine **") del queue for thread in threads: del thread del threads class ThreadTermSignal(object): pass def __thread(worker, queue, *args): try: while True: data = queue.get() if data is ThreadTermSignal: sys.exit() try: log.critical("** I don't appear when run under pylons **") finally: queue.task_done() except SystemExit: queue.task_done() pass Take note, that the log lin within the RUN method will show up in the log files, but the log line within the worker method (which is run in a spawned thread), does not appear. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks ** EDIT: I should mention that I tried passing in the "log" variable to the worker thread as well as redefining a new "log" variable within the thread and neither worked. ** EDIT: Adding the configuration used for the pylons application (which comes out of the INI file). So the snippet below is from the INI file. [loggers] keys = root [handlers] keys = wsgierrors [formatters] keys = generic [logger_root] level = WARNING handlers = wsgierrors [handler_console] class = StreamHandler args = (sys.stderr,) level = WARNING formatter = generic [handler_wsgierrors] class = pylons.log.WSGIErrorsHandler args = () level = WARNING format = generic

  Read the article

• Silverlight WCF access returning an IList of LLBLGen entities?

  - by Tim

  Hi I'm having a problem passing an entity collection back from LLBLGen to silverlight. My contract looks like this. I don't even know if this is possible. My web service code looks like this: public IEnumerable GetCustomer(long custId, string acctKey) { var toReturn = new WaterWorksCustomersEntity(custId, acctKey); using (var adapter = new DataAccessAdapter()) { adapter.ConnectionString = "data source=CWCPROD.cwc.local;user.."; adapter.FetchEntity(toReturn); } IList customers = new List(); customers.Add(toReturn); return customers; } On the silverlight client I'm doing ... var client = new Service1Client(); client.GetCustomerCompleted +=new EventHandler(client_GetCustomerCompleted); client.GetCustomerAsync(2,"110865"); The compilation is failing with this error: Error 1 The type or namespace name 'ArrayOfXElement' does not exist in the namespace 'AppointmentClientSL.ServiceReference1' (are you missing an assembly reference?) c:\work\Appointment\Appointment\AppointmentClientSL\Service References\ServiceReference1\Reference.cs 63 54 AppointmentClientSL It looks like SL is not able to deal with the data the web service is returning. Can anyone help???

  Read the article

• nHibernate Mapping with Oracle Varchar2 Data Types

  - by Blake Blackwell

  I am new to nHibernate and having some issues getting over the learning curve. My current question involves passing a string value as a parameter to a stored sproc. The error I get is: Input string is not in correct format. My mapping file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyCompany.MyProject.Core" namespace="MyCompany.MyProject.Core" > <class name="MyCompany.MyProject.Core.MyTable" table="My_Table" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"></id> <property name="Name" column="Name" /> </class> <sql-query name="sp_GetTable" callable="true"> <query-param name="int_Id" type="int"/> <query-param name="vch_MyId" type="String"/> <return class="MyCompany.MyProject.Core.MyTable" /> call procedure MYPKG.MYPROC(:int_Id,:vch_MyId) </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> When I debug nHibernate it looks like it is not an actual string value, but instead just an object value. Not sure about that though... EDIT: Adding additional code for clarification: UNIT Test List<ProcedureParameter> parms = new List<ProcedureParameter>(); parms.Add( new ProcedureParameter { ParamName = "int_Id", ParamValue = 1} ); parms.Add( new ProcedureParameter { ParamName = "vch_MyId", ParamValue = "{D18BED07-84AB-494F-A94F-6F894E284227}" } ); try { IList<MyTable> myTables = _context.GetAllByID<MyTable>( "sp_GetTable", parms ); Assert.AreNotEqual( 0, myTables.Count ); } catch( Exception ex ) { throw ex; } Data Context Method IQuery query = _session.GetNamedQuery( queryName ); foreach( ProcedureParameter parm in parms ) { query.SetParameter(parm.ParamName, "'" + parm.ParamValue + "'"); } return query.List<T>(); Come to think of it, it may have something to do with my DataContext method.

  Read the article

• Confusion about Kerberos, delegation and SPNs.

  - by Vilx-

  I'm trying to write a proof-of-concept application that performs Kerberos delegation. I've written all the code, and it seems to working (I'm authenticating fine), but the resulting security context doesn't have the ISC_REQ_DELEGATE flag set. So I'm thinking that maybe one of the endpoints (client or server) is forbidden to delegate. However I'm not authenticating against an SPN. Just one domain user against another domain user. As the SPN for InitializeSecurityContext() I'm passing "[email protected]" (which is the user account under which the server application is running). As I understand, domain users have delegation enabled by default. Anyway, I asked the admin to check, and the "account is sensitive and cannot be delegated" checkbox is off. I know that if my server was running as a NETWORK SERVICE and I used an SPN to connect to it, then I'd need the computer account in AD to have the "Trust computer for delegation" checkbox checked (off by default), but... this is not the case, right? Or is it? Also - when the checkbox in the computer account is set, do the changes take place immediately, or must I reboot the server PC or wait for a while?

  Read the article

• How to convert datatable to json string using json.net?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  How to convert datatable to json using json.net? Any suggestion... I ve downloaded the necessary binaries... Which class should i use to get the conversion of my datatable to json? Thus far used this method to get json string by passing my datatable... public string GetJSONString(DataTable table) { StringBuilder headStrBuilder = new StringBuilder(table.Columns.Count * 5); //pre-allocate some space, default is 16 bytes for (int i = 0; i < table.Columns.Count; i++) { headStrBuilder.AppendFormat("\"{0}\" : \"{0}{1}¾\",", table.Columns[i].Caption, i); } headStrBuilder.Remove(headStrBuilder.Length - 1, 1); // trim away last , StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(table.Rows.Count * 5); //pre-allocate some space sb.Append("{\""); sb.Append(table.TableName); sb.Append("\" : ["); for (int i = 0; i < table.Rows.Count; i++) { string tempStr = headStrBuilder.ToString(); sb.Append("{"); for (int j = 0; j < table.Columns.Count; j++) { table.Rows[i][j] = table.Rows[i][j].ToString().Replace("'", ""); tempStr = tempStr.Replace(table.Columns[j] + j.ToString() + "¾", table.Rows[i][j].ToString()); } sb.Append(tempStr + "},"); } sb.Remove(sb.Length - 1, 1); // trim last , sb.Append("]}"); return sb.ToString(); } Now i thought of using json.net but dont know where to get started....

  Read the article

• how to rethrow same exception in sql server

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I want to rethrow same exception in sql server that has been occured in my try block. I am able to throw same message but i want to throw same error. BEGIN TRANSACTION BEGIN TRY INSERT INTO Tags.tblDomain (DomainName, SubDomainId, DomainCode, Description) VALUES(@DomainName, @SubDomainId, @DomainCode, @Description) COMMIT TRANSACTION END TRY BEGIN CATCH declare @severity int; declare @state int; select @severity=error_severity(), @state=error_state(); RAISERROR(@@Error,@ErrorSeverity,@state); ROLLBACK TRANSACTION END CATCH RAISERROR(@@Error, @ErrorSeverity, @state); This line will show error, but i want functionality something like that. This raises error with error number 50000, but i want erron number to be thrown that i am passing @@error, I want to capture this error no at frontend i.e. catch (SqlException ex) { if ex.number==2627 MessageBox.show("Duplicate value cannot be inserted"); } I want this functionality. which can't be achieved using raiseerror. I dont want to give custom error message at back end.

  Read the article

• ASP Classic page quit working

  - by justSteve

  I've had a set of legacy pages running on my IIS7 server for at least a year. Sometime last week something changed and now this line: Response.Write CStr(myRS(0).name) & "=" & Cstr(myRS(0).value) which used to return nothing more exciting than the string: 'Updated=true' (the sproc processing input params, stores them to a table, checks for errors and when that's all done returns a success code by executing this statement: select 'true' as [Updated] Now my pageside error handler is being involved and offers: myError=Error from /logQuizScore.asp Error source: Microsoft VBScript runtime error Error number: 13 Error description: Type mismatch Important to note that all lots of pages use the same framework - same db, same coding format, connecitonstrings and (so far as I can tell) all others are working. Troubleshot to this point: The call to the stored procedure is working correctly (stuff is stored to the given table). The output from the stored procedure is working correctly (i can execute a direct call with the given parameters and stuff works. I can see profiler calling and passing. I can replace all code with 'select 'true' as updated' and the error is the same. everything up to the response.write statement above is correct. So something changed how ADO renders that particular recordset. So i try: Response.Write myRS.Item.count and get: Error number: 424 Error description: Object required The recordset object seems not to be instantiating but the command object _did execute. Repeat - lots of other pages just the same basic logic to hit other sprocs without a problem. full code snippet set cmd1 = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") cmd1.ActiveConnection = MM_cnCompliance4_STRING cmd1.CommandText = "dbo._usp_UserAnswers_INSERT" ... cmd1.CommandType = 4 cmd1.CommandTimeout = 0 cmd1.Prepared = true set myRS = cmd1.Execute Response.Write CStr(myRS(0).name) & "=" & Cstr(myRS(0).value)

  Read the article

• How can I pass an arbitrary object to jasper report as parameter?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I would like to pass as a parameter to my .jrxml an arbitrary object of my domain, e.g a Person. InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Person> parameters = new HashMap<String, Person>(); parameters.put("person", new Person("John", "Doe")); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JREmptyDataSource()); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); And on the .jrxml do something like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jasperReport xmlns="http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/jasperreports" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/jasperreports http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/xsd/jasperreport.xsd" name="test" pageWidth="595" pageHeight="842" columnWidth="555" leftMargin="20" rightMargin="20" topMargin="20" bottomMargin="20"> <property name="ireport.zoom" value="1.0"/> <property name="ireport.x" value="0"/> <property name="ireport.y" value="0"/> <parameter name="PERSON" isForPrompting="false" class="myApp.domain.person"/> <background> <band splitType="Stretch"/> </background> <title> <band height="20"> <staticText> <reportElement x="180" y="0" width="200" height="20"/> <text><![CDATA[$P{PERSON.lastName}]]></text> </staticText> </band> </title> ... Is something like this possible? Where can I find more complex tutorials that show more than just passing a java.lang.String? Thanks

  Read the article

• Recursion in an ASP.NET MVC view

  - by Dennis Palmer

  I have a nested data object for a set of items within categories. Each category can contain sub categories and there is no set limit to the depth of sub categories. (A file system would have a similar structure.) It looks something like this: class category { public int id; public string name; public IQueryable<category> categories; public IQueryable<item> items; } class item { public int id; public string name; } I am passing a list of categories to my view as IQueryable<category>. I want to output the categories as a set of nested unordered list (<ul>) blocks. I could nest foreach loops, but then the depth of sub categories would be limited by the number of nested foreach blocks. In WinForms, I have done similar processing using recursion to populate a TreeView, but I haven't seen any examples of using recursion within an ASPX MVC view. Can recursion be done within an ASPX view? Are there other view engines that include recursion for view output?

  Read the article

• WCF NetTcpBinding Security - how does it work?

  - by RemotecUk

  Hi, encountered the following problems trying to work through the quagmire of settings in WCF... I created a WCF client server service using a NetTcp binding. I didn't make any changes to the security settings and when running on one machine it works very nicely. However, when I ran my client from another machine it complained that the server didnt like the security credentials that were sent. I understand now that NetTCP is "secured" by default and that my client would have been passing the wrong security details - namely the windows user name and password (or some form of domain authentication) to my server which as they are not running on the same domain it would not have liked. However, what I don't understand is as follows: I haven't specified any security in my binding - does the standard settings expect a windows user name or password to be sent? I don't have any certificate installed on my server - I understand that NetTCP bindings need some form of public private key to protect the credentials - yet this seemed to work when both client and server were on the same machine - how was the data getting encrypted? Or wants it as WCF knew it was on the same machine and encryption isn't needed? I have had to set my security mode on my client and server to "none" now and they connect nicely. However is there any way to encrypt my data without a certificate? Finally... what is the difference between Transport and Message security? To check my understanding (excuse the scenario!) message security is like if I sent a letter from person A to person B and I encode my hand writing to ensure that if anyone intercepts it they cannot read it? Transport Security is if I decide to have my letter sent by armed transport so that no one can get at it along the way? Is it possible to have any form of encryption in WCF without a certificate? My project is a private project and I dont want to purchase a certificate and the data isnt that sensitive anyway so its just for my own knowledge. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• C#: How to force "calling" a method from the main thread by signaling in some way from another thread

  - by Fire-Dragon-DoL

  Sorry for long title, I don't know even the way on how to express the question I'm using a library which run a callback from a different context from the main thread (is a C Library), I created the callback in C# and when gets called I would like to just raise an event. However because I don't know what will be inside the event, I would like to find a way to invoke the method without the problem of locks and so on (otherwise the third party user will have to handle this inside the event, very ugly) Are there any way to do this? I can be totally on the wrong way but I'm thinking about winforms way to handle different threads (the .Invoke thing) Otherwise I can send a message to the message loop of the window, but I don't know a lot about message passing and if I can send "custom" messages like this Example: private uint lgLcdOnConfigureCB(int connection, System.IntPtr pContext) { OnConfigure(EventArgs.Empty); return 0U; } this callback is called from another program which I don't have control over, I would like to run OnConfigure method in the main thread (the one that handles my winform), how to do it? Or in other words, I would like to run OnConfigure without the need of thinking about locks

  Read the article

• Is it possible to store ObjectContext on the client when using WCF and Entity Framework?

  - by Sergey

  Hello, I have a WCF service which performs CRUD operation on my data model: Add, Get, Update and Delete. And I'm using Entity Framework for my data model. On the other side there is a client application which calls methods of the WCF service. For example I have a Customer class: [DataContract] public class Customer { public Guid CustomerId {get; set;} public string CustomerName {get; set;} } and WCF service defines this method: public void AddCustomer(Customer c) { MyEntities _entities = new MyEntities(); _entities.AddToCustomers(c); _entities.SaveChanges(); } and the client application passes objects to the WCF service: var customer = new Customer(){CustomerId = Guid.NewGuid, CustomerName="SomeName"}; MyService svc = new MyService(); svc.Add(customer); // or svc.Update(customer) for example But when I need to pass a great amount of objects to the WCF it could be a perfomance issue because of I need to create ObjectContext each time when I'm doing Add(), Update(), Get() or Delete(). What I'm thinking on is to keep ObjectContext on the client and pass ObjectContext to the wcf methods as additional parameter. Is it possible to create and keep ObjectContext on the client and don't recreate it for each operation? If it is not, how could speed up the passing of huge amount of data to the wcf service? Sergey

  Read the article

• PInvoke Unbalances the stack

  - by Giawa

  Good afternoon, I have been working on a dll that can use CORBA to communicate to an application that is network aware. The code works fine if I run it as a C++ console application. However, I have gotten stuck on exporting the methods as a dll. The methods seems to export fine, and if I call a method with no parameters then it works as expected. I'm hung up on passing a C# string to a C++ method. My C++ method header looks like this: bool __declspec(dllexport) SpiceStart(char* installPath) My C# DLL import code is as follows: [DllImportAttribute("SchemSipc.dll", CharSet=CharSet.Ansi)] private static extern bool SpiceStart(string installPath); I call the method like so: bool success = SpiceStart(@"c:\sedatools"); The call to SpiceStart throws the exception "PInvokeStackImbalance", which "is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature." Does anyone have any suggestions? If I remove the char* and string from the parameters, then the method runs just fine. However, I'd like to be able to pass the installation path of the application to the dll from C#. Thanks in advance, Giawa

  Read the article

• How to Global onRouteRequest directly to onBadRequest?

  - by virtualeyes

  EDIT Came up with this to sanitize URI date params prior to passing off to Play router val ymdMatcher = "\\d{8}".r // matcher for yyyyMMdd URI param val ymdFormat = org.joda.time.format.DateTimeFormat.forPattern("yyyyMMdd") def ymd2Date(ymd: String) = ymdFormat.parseDateTime(ymd) override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { import play.api.i18n.Messages ymdMatcher.findFirstIn(r.uri) map{ ymd=> try { ymd2Date( ymd); super.onRouteRequest(r) } catch { case e:Exception => // kick to "bad" action handler on invalid date Some(controllers.Application.bad(Messages("bad.date.format"))) } } getOrElse(super.onRouteRequest(r)) } ORIGINAL Let's say I want to return a BadRequest result type for all /foo URIs: override def onBadRequest(r: RequestHeader, error: String) = { BadRequest("Bad Request: " + error) } override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { if(r.uri.startsWith("/foo") onBadRequest("go away") else super.onRouteRequest(r) } Of course does not work, since the expected return type is Option[play.api.mvc.Handler] What's the idiomatic way to deal with this, create a default Application controller method to handle filtered bad requests? Ideally, since I know in onRouteRequest that /foo is in fact a BadRequest, I'd like to call onBadRequest directly. Should note that this is a contrived example, am actually verifying a URI yyyyMMdd date param, and BadRequest-ing if it does not parse to a JodaTime instance -- basically a catch-all filter to sanitize a given date param rather than handling on every single controller method call, not to mention, avoiding cluttering up application log with useless stack traces re: invalid date parse conversions (have several MBs of these junk trace entries accruing daily due to users pointlessly manipulating the uri date in attempts to get at paid subscriber content)

  Read the article

• How would you implement API key in WCF Data Service?

  - by rushonerok

  Is there a way to require an API key in the URL / or some other way of passing the service a private key in order to grant access to the data? I have this right now... using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Data.Services.Common; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; using Numina.Framework; using System.Web; using System.Configuration; [System.ServiceModel.ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] public class odata : DataService { public static void InitializeService(DataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); //config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); config.DataServiceBehavior.MaxProtocolVersion = DataServiceProtocolVersion.V2; } protected override void OnStartProcessingRequest(ProcessRequestArgs args) { HttpRequest Request = HttpContext.Current.Request; if(Request["apikey"] != ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiKey"]) throw new DataServiceException("ApiKey needed"); base.OnStartProcessingRequest(args); } } ...This works but it's not perfect because you cannot get at the metadata and discover the service through the Add Service Reference explorer. I could check if $metadata is in the url but it seems like a hack. Is there a better way?

  Read the article

• How to approach ninject container/kernel in inheritance situation

  - by Bas

  I have the following situation: class RuleEngine {} abstract class RuleImplementation {} class RootRule : RuleImplementation {} class Rule1 : RuleImplementation {} class Rule2 : RuleImplementation {} The RuleEngine is injected by Ninject and has a kernel at it's disposal, the role of the RuleEngine is to fire off the root rule, which on it's turn will load all the other rules also using Ninject, but using a different Module and creating a new Kernel. Now my question is, some of the rules require some dependencies which I want to inject using Ninject. What would be the best way to create the kernel for these rules and also still do proper unit testing with it? (the kernel shouldn't become a real pain in my tests) I've been thinking of the following possibilitys: The kernel that I use in the RuleEngine class could be tossed around to RuleImplementation and thus be available for every rule. But tossing around Kernels isn't really something I wish to do. When creating the rules, I could give the kernel (which creates the rules) as a constructor argument for each rule. I could create a method inside the RuleImplementation which creates a kernel and makes it possible for the rules to retrieve the kernel using a get() in the abstract class Whats the convention of passing around/creating kernels? Just create new kernels, or reuse them?

  Read the article

• Tricky SQL query involving consecutive values

  - by Gabriel

  I need to perform a relatively easy to explain but (given my somewhat limited skills) hard to write SQL query. Assume we have a table similar to this one: exam_no | name | surname | result | date ---------+------+---------+--------+------------ 1 | John | Doe | PASS | 2012-01-01 1 | Ryan | Smith | FAIL | 2012-01-02 <-- 1 | Ann | Evans | PASS | 2012-01-03 1 | Mary | Lee | FAIL | 2012-01-04 ... | ... | ... | ... | ... 2 | John | Doe | FAIL | 2012-02-01 <-- 2 | Ryan | Smith | FAIL | 2012-02-02 2 | Ann | Evans | FAIL | 2012-02-03 2 | Mary | Lee | PASS | 2012-02-04 ... | ... | ... | ... | ... 3 | John | Doe | FAIL | 2012-03-01 3 | Ryan | Smith | FAIL | 2012-03-02 3 | Ann | Evans | PASS | 2012-03-03 3 | Mary | Lee | FAIL | 2012-03-04 <-- Note that exam_no and date aren't necessarily related as one might expect from the kind of example I chose. Now, the query that I need to do is as follows: From the latest exam (exam_no = 3) find all the students that have failed (John Doe, Ryan Smith and Mary Lee). For each of these students find the date of the first of the batch of consecutively failing exams. Another way to put it would be: for each of these students find the date of the first failing exam that comes after their last passing exam. (Look at the arrows in the table). The resulting table should be something like this: name | surname | date_since_failing ------+---------+-------------------- John | Doe | 2012-02-01 Ryan | Smith | 2012-01-02 Mary | Lee | 2012-01-04 Ann | Evans | 2012-02-03 How can I perform such a query? Thank you for your time.

  Read the article

• Java Swingworker: Not as encapsulated class

  - by Thomas Matthews

  I'm having problems passing information, updating progress and indicating "done" with a SwingWorker class that is not an encapsulated class. I have a simple class that processes files and directories on a hard drive. The user clicks on the Start button and that launches an instance of the SwingWorker. I would like to print the names of the files that are processed on the JTextArea in the Event Driven Thread from the SwingWorker as update a progress bar. All the examples on the web are for an nested class, and the nested class accesses variables in the outer class (such as the done method). I would also like to signal the Event Driven Thread that the SwingWorker is finished so the EDT can perform actions such as enabling the Start button (and clearing fields). Here are my questions: 1. How does the SwingWorker class put text into the JTextArea of the Event Driven Thread and update a progress bar? How does the EDT determine when the {external} SwingWorker thread is finished? {I don't want the SwingWorker as a nested class because there is a lot of code (and processing) done.}

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225  | Next Page >