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  • Creating a framework for ASP.NET web forms similar to Flex states.

    - by Shawn Simon
    I really enjoy the flex states framework. You define a few states for your control, and then can set child controls to only appear in certain states. Check out this code: <s:states> <s:State name="signin"/> <s:State name="register"/> </s:states> <mx:FormItem label="Last name:" includeIn="register" id="lastNameItem" alpha="0.0"> <s:TextInput id="lastName" width="220"/> </mx:FormItem> Now the last name form will only appear in the register screen. This would be really useful I think in .NET where you use the page for views like update / insert. I was considering extending the Page element to have a states property using extension methods, and adding the include in to controls. This way I could auto-hide controls based on the current view at render time. What is even cooler in Flex, is that you can use different handlers / properties based on the current state. <s:Button label="Sign in" label.register="Register" id="loginButton" enabled="true" click.signin="signin()" click.register="register()"/> I'm sure there's a way I could implement something similar to this as well. Do you think this is a good idea? Or does it just add a level of abstraction to framework that already has a poor separation of concerns?

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  • How to: Searchlogic and Tags

    - by bob
    I have installed searchlogic and added will_paginate etc. I currently have a product model that has tagging enabled using the acts_as_taggable_on plugin. I want to search the tags using searchlogic. Here is the taggable plugin page: http://github.com/mbleigh/acts-as-taggable-on Each product has a "tag_list" that i can access using Product.tag_list or i can access a specific tag using Product.tags[0] I can't find the scope to use for searching however with search logic. Here is my part of my working form. <p> <%= f.label :name_or_description_like, "Name" %><br /> <%= f.text_field :name_or_description_like %> </p> I have tried :name_or_description_or_tagged_with_like and :name_or_description_or_tags_like and also :name_or_description_or_tags_list_like to try and get it to work but I keep have an error that says the options i have tried are not found (named scopes not found). I am wondering how I can get this working or how to create my own named_scope that would allow me to search the tags added to each product by the taggable plugin. Thanks!

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  • How do you configure an SDL Tridion CME extension for a subset of views?

    - by Chris Summers
    I have created a new editor for SDL Tridion which adds some new functionality to the ribbon bar. This is enabled by adding the following snippet to the editor.config <!-- ItemCommenting PowerTool --> <ext:extension assignid="ItemCommenting" name="Save and&lt;br/&gt;Comment" pageid="HomePage" groupid="ManageGroup" insertbefore="SaveCloseBtn"> <ext:command>PT_ItemCommenting</ext:command> <ext:title>Save and Comment</ext:title> <ext:issmallbutton>false</ext:issmallbutton> <ext:dependencies> <cfg:dependency>PowerTools.Commands</cfg:dependency> </ext:dependencies> <ext:apply> <ext:view name="*" /> </ext:apply> </ext:extension> This is applied to all views by using a wildcard value in the node. This has results in my new button being added to the ribbon of every view, including the main dashboard. Is there a way to add this to all views except for the dashboard? Or do I have to create something like this? <ext:apply> <ext:view name="PageView" /> <ext:view name="ComponentView" /> <ext:view name="SchemaView" /> </ext:apply> If this is the only way to achieve the result I need, is there a list of all the view names somewhere?

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error: '(function name)' is undefined

    - by Velika2
    Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'txtGivenName_OnFocus' is undefined After adding what I thought was unrelated javascript code to a web page, I am suddenly getting errors that suggest that the browser cannot locate a javascript function that, to me, appears plain as day in design mode. I'm thinking that this is a load sequence order problem of some sort. Originally, my script was at the bottom of the page. I did this with the intent of helping my site's SEO ranking. When I moved the function to the top of the web page, the error went away. Now it is back. I have a feeling someone is going to suggest a jQuery solution to execute some code only when the page is fully loaded. I'm I ignorant of jQuery. IfjQuery is given in the answer, please explain what I need to do (references, placement of script files) for VS 2010 RTM. I am trying to set the focus to the first textbox on the webpage and preselect all of the text in the textbox More info: If I disable this Validator, the problem goes away: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Required" ClientValidationFunction="txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate" Display="Dynamic" Enabled="False"></asp:CustomValidator> function txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate(source, args) { var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%=optOccupationRetired.ClientID %>"); if (optOccupationRetired.checked) { args.IsValid = true; } else { var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%=txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientID %>"); args.IsValid = ValidatorTrim(txtSpecifyOccupation.value) != ""; } }

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  • Send form when hitting enter

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I have a form in a jQuery enabled site. The form does not feature an <input type="submit"> button. For that reason, it's not submitted when you hit enter. What's the recommended way to emulate such behaviour? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- $(function(){ $("form input:first").focus(); }); //--></script> </head> <body> <form action="" method="post"> <input type="text" name="user"> <input type="password" name="pass"> </form> </body> </html>

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  • How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to build Graceful Degradation AJAX web page?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to build web page with "Graceful Degradation". That is, the web page functions even javascript is disabled. Now I have to make design decision on the format of AJAX response. If javascript is disabled, each HTTP request to server will generate HTML as response. The browser refreshes with the returned HTML. That's fine. If javascript is enabled, each AJAX HTTP request to server will generate ... well, JSON or HTML. If it is HTML, it is easy to implement. Just have javascript to replace part of page with the returned HTML. And, in server side, not much code change is needed. If it is JSON, then I have to implement JSON-to-html logic in javascript again which is almost duplicate of server side logic. Duplication is evil. I really don't like it. The benefit is that the bandwidth usage is better than HTML, which brings better performance. So, what's the best solution to Graceful Degradation? AJAX request better to return JSON or HTML?

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  • How to transform SoapFault to SoapMessage via Interceptor in CXF?

    - by Michal Mech
    I have web-service created and configured via Spring and CXF. See beans below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans <!-- ommited -->> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf.xml" /> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf-extension-soap.xml" /> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf-servlet.xml" /> <bean id="internalActService" class="package.InternalActServiceImpl" /> <jaxws:endpoint implementor="#internalActService" address="/InternalActService"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> <jaxws:outFaultInterceptors> <bean class="package.InternalActServiceFaultOutInterceptor" /> </jaxws:outFaultInterceptors> </jaxws:endpoint> </beans> As can you see I added schema validation to my web service. But CXF throws SoapFault when request is not corresponding with schema. I want to send to the client SoapMessage instead of SoapFault, that's why I added outFaultInterceptors. My question is how to transform SoapFault to SoapMessage? I've made few tries but I don't know how to implement outFaultInterceptor.

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  • How do I get multimonth plugin of the jQuery datePicker to load with certain dates already selected?

    - by imHavoc
    well im using this script right here: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/ and I have a multiMonth plugin and multiple select enabled. I want to be able to on load have certain dates already selected and those dates come from a database I found two possible clues to help me out, but since I have not strictly learned JS yet, I can not made heads or tails. http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/renderCalendarBankHolidays.html http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/datePickerDefaultToday.html here's the code right now im using: <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(function() { jQuery('#multimonth').datePickerMultiMonth({ numMonths: 12, inline: true, selectMultiple: true, startDate: '01/09/2009', // DD/MM/YY month: 8, // 0=JAN 1=FEB ... year: 2009 }).bind( 'dpMonthChanged', function(event, displayedMonth, displayedYear) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dpMonthChanged', arguments); }).bind( 'dateSelected', function(event, date, jQuerytd, status) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dateSelected', arguments); }).val( new Date().asString()).trigger('change'); jQuery('#getSelected').bind( 'click', function(e) { alert(jQuery('#multimonth').dpmmGetSelected()); return false; }); }); </script> and this part is not being selected, I took it from the select todays date demo .val(new Date().asString()).trigger('change');

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  • WPF: Once I set a property in code, it ignores XAML binding forever more... how do I prevent that?

    - by Timothy Khouri
    I have a button that has a datatrigger that is used to disable the button if a certain property is not set to true: <Button Name="ExtendButton" Click="ExtendButton_Click" Margin="0,0,0,8"> <Button.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding IsConnected}" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Button.IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> That's some very simple binding, and it works perfectly. I can set "IsConnected" true and false and true and false and true and false, and I love to see my button just auto-magically become disabled, then enabled, etc. etc. However, in my Button_Click event... I want to: Disable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = false;) Run some asynchronous code (that hits a server... takes about 1 second). Re-enable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = true;) The problem is, the very instant that I manually set IsEnabled to either true or false... my XAML binding will never fire again. This makes me very sad :( I wish that IsEnabled was tri-state... and that true meant true, false meant false and null meant inherit. But that is not the case, so what do I do?

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  • Fun things you can do by mutating Java strings

    - by polygenelubricants
    So I've come around since I asked how to limit setAccessible to only “legitimate” uses and have come to embrace its power for fun. Enabled by its power, of course, is string mutation. import java.lang.reflect.Field; public class Mutator { static void mutate(Object obj, String field, Object newValue) { try { Field f = obj.getClass().getDeclaredField(field); f.setAccessible(true); f.set(obj, newValue); } catch (Exception e) { } } public static void mutate(String from, String to) { mutate(from, "value", to.toCharArray()); mutate(from, "count", to.length()); } public static void main(String args[]) { Mutator.mutate(System.getProperty("line.separator"), "<br/>\n"); System.out.println("Hello world!"); Mutator.mutate(Integer.toString(Integer.MIN_VALUE), "OMG!"); System.out.println(-2147483648); Mutator.mutate(String.valueOf((Object) null), "LOL!"); System.out.println(Arrays.toString(new int[3][])); Mutator.mutate(Arrays.toString(new int[0]), ":("); System.out.println(Arrays.toString(new byte[0])); } } Output (if no exception is thrown): Hello world!<br/> OMG!<br/> [LOL!, LOL!, LOL!]<br/> :(<br/> Let's see what other fun things we can come up with.

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  • Problems pulling data from NSMutableArray for MapKit?

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items). Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the items NSMutableArray. I'm struggling to transfer the data into the new class (mapView) to show it in the map - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the map. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) to the mapView? Thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

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  • WCF done broke.

    - by SteveCav
    WCF is completely fouled up on my machine. I start a new sln in VS2008. Add a project (WCF Service Lib).Build the project (builds ok). debug the project -- it gets halfway through the progress bar and bombs out with the error below (real path changed to "my mex path" so codeproject doesn't think its spam). I'm assuming it's file permissions but don't know where to start. Any ideas?: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from my mex path If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at somewhere unhelpful Exchange Error URI: my mex path Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'my mex path'. Could not connect to my mex path. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731HTTP GET Error URI: my mex path There was an error downloading 'my mex path'. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731

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  • Possible to have multiple Profiles in ASP.NET for different users?

    - by asple
    My application has a few different user types with their own members. For example, I have the student user as well as the teacher user. I authenticate my users through active directory in my custom MembershipProvider's ValidateUser method. While querying AD, I pull out all their relevant information. I'd like to put that information into a Profile, but from what I've read and the examples I've sen, you can only define a single Profile (like so): <profile defaultProvider="CustomProfileProvider" enabled="true"> <properties> <add name="YearLevel" type="String" /> <add name="Name" type="String" /> <add name="Age" type="String" /> </properties> </profile> The above profile would work for a student, but not for a teacher, who does not have a value for "YearLevel" in AD. Is it possible to have multiple profiles to accomplish this? Or is it easier to add all properties from AD spanning all user types, then in my code, just check what user type they are and then access their specific properties?

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  • iPhone app rejection for using ICU (Unicode extensions)

    - by nickbit
    I received the following mail form Apple, considering my application: *Thank you for submitting your update to ??µ??es?a to the App Store. During our review of your application we found it is using private APIs, which is in violation of the iPhone Developer Program License Agreement section 3.3.1; "3.3.1 Applications may only use Documented APIs in the manner prescribed by Apple and must not use or call any private APIs." While your application has not been rejected, it would be appropriate to resolve this issue in your next update. The following non-public APIs are included in your application: u_isspace ubrk_close ubrk_current ubrk_first ubrk_next ubrk_open If you have defined methods in your source code with the same names as the above mentioned APIs, we suggest altering your method names so that they no longer collide with Apple's private APIs to avoid your application being flagged with future submissions. Please resolve this issue in your next update to ??µ??es?a. Sincerely, iPhone App Review Team* The functions mentioned in this mail are used in the ICU library (International Components for Unicode). Although my app is not rejected at this point, I don't feel very secure for the future of my app, because it relies heavily on the Unicode protocol and on this components in particular. Another thing is that I do not call these functions directly, but they are called by a custom 'sqlite' build (with FTS3 extensions enabled). Am I missing something here? Any suggestions?

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  • Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

    - by Vishal
    Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

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  • UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

    - by Jed
    I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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  • How to change the view angle and label value of a chart .NET C#

    - by George
    Short Description I am using charts for a specific application where i need to change the view angle of the rendered 3D Pie chart and value of automatic labels from pie label names to corresponding pie values. This how the chart looks: Initialization This is how i initialize it: Dictionary<string, decimal> secondPersonsWithValues = HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); decimal[] yValues = new decimal[secondPersonsWithValues.Values.Count]; //VALUES string[] xValues = new string[secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.Count]; //LABELS secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.CopyTo(xValues, 0); secondPersonsWithValues.Values.CopyTo(yValues, 0); incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].ChartType = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.SeriesChartType.Pie; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].Points.DataBindXY(xValues, yValues); incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.Enable3D = true; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].CustomProperties = "PieLabelStyle=Outside"; incomeExpenseChart.Legends["Default"].Enabled = true; incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.LightStyle = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.LightStyle.Realistic; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"]["PieDrawingStyle"] = "SoftEdge"; Basically i am querying data from database using the HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); to get pairs as Dictionary<string, decimal> where key is the person and value is ammount. Problem #1 What i need is to be able to change the marked labels from person names to the ammounts or add another label of ammounts with the same colors (See Image). Problem #2 Another problem is that i need to change the view angle of 3D Pie chart. Maybe it's very simple and I just don't know the needed property or maybe i need to override some paint event. Either ways any kind of ways would be appriciated. Thanks in advance George.

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  • Calling a datatrigger for a radio button inside a datagrid

    - by Farax
    I have a datagrid with one column having a radio button. I want to set the GroupName when a certain condition is reached. Below is the code <Custom:DataGrid.Columns> <!-- ONLY ENABLED WHEN THE ITEM TYPE IS SINGLESELECT OR SINGLESELECT WITH ADDIOTIONAL DATA--> <Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn CanUserResize="False" MinWidth="20" > <Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <RadioButton IsChecked="{Binding IsChecked}" d:DesignWidth="16" d:DesignHeight="16" GroupName="SingleChoiceSelection" Template="{DynamicResource RadioButtonTemplate}" Background="{DynamicResource BackgroundNew}" BorderBrush="#FF7A7171" Foreground="#FF6C6C6C" Margin="0" /> </DataTemplate> </Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn> <Custom:DataGridTextColumn Header="Choices" Binding="{Binding ChoiceText}" CellStyle="{DynamicResource DataGridCellStyle2}" MinWidth="150" /> </Custom:DataGrid.Columns> </Custom:DataGrid> The ItemSource contains a property called isChecked and I want to change the foreground color when isChecked is changed to true. How do i do this with a datatrigger?

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  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

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  • My timer code is failing when IAR is configured to do max optimization

    - by Vishal
    Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code [Code] //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled [/code] Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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  • 'JQuery' is undefined

    - by Raja
    I am working on a ASP.net project created with local file system settings. I am using MVC and Jquery. Jquery is working fine when I run the application in debug mode i.e. in ASP.net Development server. I am trying to host the application in IIS 7. In hosted mode, it does not recognize Jquery and gives scripting error 'Jquery is undefined'. The locations of the script files is unchanged in both modes. Can anybody have any clue what can be the reason and how to solve this. My code look like this; <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.2.6.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <!-- YUI Styles --> <link href="../../Content/reset.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="../../Content/fonts.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="../../Content/grids.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <!-- /YUI Styles --> <link href="../../Content/knowledgebase.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> //this hides the javascript warning if javascript is enabled (function($) { $(document).ready(function() { $('#jswarning').hide(); }); })(jQuery); </script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ScriptContent" runat="server" /> ....

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  • Can't send an email using a google apps account with PHPMailer

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to simply send an email using my google apps account with php. I am able to send an email in a .net application using the port 587 host smtp.googlemail.com and SSL enabled. The username is my full email address. require_once('PHPMailer_v5.1\class.phpmailer.php'); try { $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->Mailer = 'smtp'; $mail->SMTPSecure = 'tls'; $mail->Host = $host; $mail->Port = 587; $mail->SMTPAuth = true; $mail->Username = $from; $mail->Password = $password; $mail->AddAddress($to, $to_name); $mail->From = $from; $mail->FromName = $from_name; $mail->Subject = $subject; $mail->MsgHTML($body); $mail->IsHTML(true); $mail->Send(); } catch (phpmailerException $e) { echo $e->errorMessage(); } catch (Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } Haven't been able to get this to work, but I've tried several different variations of this. $mail->SMTPSecure = 'ssl'; // Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. $mail->SMTPSecure = 'tls'; // Takes forever, then I get "this stream does not support SSL/crypto PHPMailer_v5.1\class.smtp.php" I don't care how, but I need to send an email using gmail here. It can be with this library or a different one.

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