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• ASP.NET application - Error when trying to connect to a SQL Server 2008 instance

  - by Pablo Dami

  Hi everyone! Despite that I’m a regular reader of this great forum, this is my first post on it. I believe that this community can help me with the following problem that I have. I’m trying to publish an ASP.NET website over an IIS 6.0 (Windows 2003 Server), and I have some troubles trying to connect to the database. Curiously, I have installed another ASP.NET website into the same IIS 6.0 with the same properties and security parameters and can connect without problems with the same database. The application that works fine is almost the same that the one that can’t connect with SQL Server (actually is the same but with several modifications). I’ll enumarate some information related to the problem: S.O: Windows 2003 Server SQL Server Engine: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server accept remote connections? Yes. ASP.NET version: 2.0.50727 The connections via TCP/IP are enabled to the SQL Server instance? Yes. The corresponding user that I have in the connection string, actually exists into the database with the “owner” role? Yes. ORM Tool used: nHibernate I get the following error when I try to run the aplication into the browser: Error while establishing a connection to the server. When connecting to SQL Server 2005, this failure may occur because the default settings SQL Server does not allow remote connections. (provider: Shared Memory Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) In order to isolate the problem, I made some test. For example, using the web app that works fine I can connect without any problema with the database that uses the web app that can’t. With this evidence I concluded that the problem is within the web app and not into the SQL Server instance. I also google it my problem but sadly I can't find nothing usefull to solve it. If someone can help me I’ll appreciate that. Thank you so much for your time!

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• POST xml to php with apache2

  - by Berry

  I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

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• TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

  - by larryq

  (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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• OpenGL Tearing Problem

  - by kaykun

  Hi, I'm using win32 and opengl and I have a window set up with the projection at glOrtho of the window's coordinates. I have double buffering enabled, tested it with glGet as well. My program always seems to tear any primitives that I try to draw on it if it's being constantly translated. Here is my OpenGL initialization function: glClearColor(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glViewport(0, 0, 640, 480); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); glOrtho(0, 640, 0, 480, 0, 100); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); glDrawBuffer(GL_BACK); glLoadIdentity(); And this is my rendering function, gMouseX and gMouseY are the coordinates of the mouse: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glTranslatef(gMouseX, gMouseY, 0.0f); glColor3f(0.5f, 0.5f, 0.5f); glBegin(GL_TRIANGLES); glVertex2f(0.0f, 128.0f); glVertex2f(128.0f, 0.0f); glVertex2f(0.0f, 0.0f); glEnd(); SwapBuffers(hDC); The same tearing problem occurs regardless of how often the rendering function runs. Is there something I'm doing wrong or missing here? Thanks for any help.

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• Editing list properties using DataGridview

  - by toom

  Ok, I have my custom class: public class FileItem : INotifyPropertyChanged { int id=0; string value=""; public int Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; Changed("Id"); } } public string Value { get { return value; } set { this.value = value; Changed("Value"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void Changed(string name) { if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)); } } public BindingList<FileItem> FilesystemEntries = new BindingList<FileItem>(); And I have DatagridView1 with DataSource set to FilesystemEntries: binding.DataSource = FilesystemEntries; Already I can Add and remove rows - these chnages are reflected on collection. However, Value and Id are not saved into bidning list when i change them in DataGridView, id is always 0 and value is "". How can I make this work? Do I need to implement some interface to FileItem to allow editing properties? ReadOnly of DGV is set to false, same to all columns. Editing, Deleting and Changing are enabled.

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• Date Picker Control Not Displaying Proper Date (Access 2003)

  - by JPM

  Hi everyone, I just have a quick question. I am maintaining an app for my summer co-op position, and a new requirement came down today where the user requested to have a date control added to a form to mark the date of when an employee is "laid off". This control is enabled/disabled by a toggle button, and has its control source bound to a field that I added in the database. All the functionality has been added and tested, but.... The issue I am having is that the date picker is on a tab control (the 2nd page) and I am having problems trying to get the control to display the date that is stored in the field I created. I know the control is storing any changes made using it, but since the user asked to move the control over to the 2nd tab (it was on the first), it just shows today's date, not the date entered using the control. To make things a little more strange, if I place the control anywhere except the tab control, it seems to be working fine. I've even placed a textbox on the tab and set its control source to the database field, and it displays just fine. What gives? And I have registered the .ocx with Access, and as I mentioned before, the actual database is storing the data. Just not displaying it. Any ideas as to what I am doing wrong?

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• Rails with passenger only runs in development

  - by Ignace

  Hey, I have a problem on one of our webservers. I'll try to explain it as clear as possible, but I'm not 100% aware of all the configuration of the server. There are 2 sites running next to eachother (blcc_preprod and blcc_prod), so in the 'sites-enabled' of apache this i have a file 'blcc' like this: <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /opt/dn/blcc/www RailsBaseURI /blcc_preprod RailsBaseURI /blcc_prod RailsEnv production </VirtualHost> My config/environments/production.log (from both) looks like this(I removed all comments, because it messes with the layout) config.cache_classes = true config.action_controller.consider_all_requests_local = false config.action_controller.perform_caching = true config.action_view.cache_template_loading = true config.log_level = :debug The weird thing is, that my production log dates from months ago, so something is really wrong. Could someone help? If you need more info, just ask. Thanks! Edit: Error.log from apache show the normal output for a event to the server (the situation here is that the webserver plugs in to another business (java) server via a framework) Access.log is empty Content from other_vhosts_access.log after we surf to ip/blcc_preprod is the following blcc.localdomain:80 192.168.21.194 - - [25/May/2010:08:33:04 +0200] "GET/ blcc_preprod HTTP/1.1" 500 594 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727)"

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• how to recieve text sms to specific port..

  - by Umesh

  recieve text sms to specific port.. I have been looking for an answer to this question but but to no avail. This question has been popped a few times but nobody seems to have a clear answer. my code is as follows.. --MANIFEST FILE-- <receiver android:name=".SMSRecieve" android:enabled="true" <intent-filter <action android:name="android.intent.action.DATA_SMS_RECEIVED"/ <data android:scheme="sms" / <data android:host="localhost" / <data android:port="15005" / </intent-filter </receiver --SMS sending method-- String messageText = msgTxt.getText().toString(); short SMS_PORT = 15005; SmsManager smsManager = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsManager.sendDataMessage("5556", null, SMS_PORT, messageText.getBytes(), null, null); --Broadcast Reciever code-- static final String ACTION = "android.intent.action.DATA_SMS_RECEIVED"; //static final String ACTION = "android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED";(tried this too, but failed) if (intent.getAction().equals(SMSNotifyExample.ACTION)) { ...do some work.. } I also tried to replace android:name to "android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED" but the result is the same. my application does not recieve the SMS on the specified port. Once i remove the following line its works fine <data android:scheme="sms" / <data android:host="localhost" / <data android:port="15005" / could you suggest me what am i missing??

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• C#- move a shape to a point which is half way from the top of the form

  - by hello-all

  Hello all, Here I have to create a diamond using drawlines method and make it move horizontally along a path that is half way from the top of the form. I created a diamond and it is moving horizontally, but i want it to start moving from a position which is half way from the top of the form. This is the code to create a diamond, private void Form1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { Graphics g = e.Graphics; Point p1 = new Point(5+x, 0); Point p2 = new Point(10+x, 5); Point p3 = new Point(5+x, 10); Point p4 = new Point(0+x, 5); Point[] ps = { p1, p2, p3, p4, p1 }; Pen p_yellow = new Pen(Color.Yellow, 5); g.DrawLines(p_yellow, ps); this.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.DarkBlue; } I can make it move using the timer and following is the code, private void timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (x < 500) x += 2; else timer1.Enabled = false; this.Invalidate(); } please tell me how to bring the diamond to a point which is half way from the top of the form?

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• Excel 2010 64 bit can't create .net object

  - by aboes81

  I have a simple class library that I use in Excel. Here is a simplification of my class... using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace SimpleLibrary { [ComVisible(true)] public interface ISixGenerator { int Six(); } public class SixGenerator : ISixGenerator { public int Six() { return 6; } } } In Excel 2007 I would create a macro enabled workbook and add a module with the following code: Public Function GetSix() Dim lib As SimpleLibrary.SixGenerator lib = New SimpleLibrary.SixGenerator Six = lib.Six End Function Then in Excel I could call the function GetSix() and it would return six. This no longer works in Excel 2010 64bit. I get a Run-time error '429': ActiveX component can't create object. I tried changing the platform target to x64 instead of Any CPU but then my code wouldn't compile unless I unchecked the Register for COM interop option, doing so makes it so my macro enable workbook cannot see SimpleLibrary.dll as it is no longer regsitered. Any ideas how I can use my library with Excel 2010 64 bit?

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• Windows SQL wildcards and ASP.net parameters

  - by Vinzcent

  Hey In my SQL statement I use wildcards. But when I try to select something, it never select something. While when I execute the querry in Microsoft SQL Studio, it works fine. What am I doing wrong? Click handler protected void btnTitelAuteur_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cvalTitelAuteur.Enabled = true; cvalTitelAuteur.Validate(); if (Page.IsValid) { objdsSelectedBooks.SelectMethod = "getBooksByTitleAuthor"; objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Clear(); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("title", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("author", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.Select(); gvSelectedBooks.DataBind(); pnlZoeken.Visible = false; pnlKiezen.Visible = true; } } In my Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getBooksByTitleAuthor(string title, string author) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.GENRE " + "FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID " +"WHERE (tblBooks.TITLE LIKE '%@title%');"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add("@title", SqlDbType.Text); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["@title"].Value = title; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Books"); return ds.Tables["Books"]; } Thanks, Vincent

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• How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

  - by prepbgg

  My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

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• "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

  - by Tony_Henrich

  I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

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• Reading from a database located in the Program Files folder using ODBC

  - by Dabblernl

  We have an application that stores its database files in a subfolder of the Program Files directory. These files are redirected to the VirtualStore in Vista and Windows 7. We represent data from the database using Microsoft DataReports (VB6). So far so good. But we now want to use Crystal Reports XI to represent data from the database. Our idea is to NOT pass this data to CR from our program, but to have CR retreive it from the database using a a system DSN through ODBC. In this way we hope to present our users with more flexibility in designing their own reports. What we do want to ensure though is that these system DSNs are configured correctly when the user installs our program or when the program calls the Crystal Report. Is there a smart way to do this using System variables for instance, instead of having to write a routine that checks for OS-version, whether UAC is enabled on the OS, whether the write restrictions on the Program Files folder have been lifted, etc and then adapts he System DSN to point to either the C:\Program Files\OurApp\Data folder, or the C:\Users\User\AppData\VirtualStore\Program Files\OurApp\Data folder? Suggestions for an entirely different approach are welcome too!

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• Login page shows blank

  - by user481913

  The login page on a project i'm currently fixing up shows blank. i tried echoing some words to find out where the fault lied. I found out that commenting out the below piece of code made it to display. elseif( isset($_POST['do_login'] ) ){//Login user $email = (isset($_POST['login']) && is_string($_POST['login']) && strlen($_POST['login'])<100)?$_POST['login'] : null; $password = (isset($_POST['password']) && is_string($_POST['password']) && strlen($_POST['password'])<100)?$_POST['password'] : null; $remember = isset($_POST['chkremember']) ? true : false; $result = $auth->login($email, $password, $remember); switch($result){ case 1: $msg = 'You have successfully logged in.' break; case 2: $msg = 'Your account has not yet been confirmed. <br/> Please check the e-mail message sent by us and click the confirmation code to validate this account. <a href="user_login.php?view=resend&resend_email='.$email.'">resend activation e-mail</a>'; break; case 3: $msg = 'Your account is not enabled!'; break; case 4: $msg = 'Account with given login credentials does not exist!'; break; } } Can anyone help me figiure out what's wrong with this piece of code?

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• Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

  - by Brian McCleary

  We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

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• Generating SQL change scripts in SSMS 2008

  - by Munish Goyal

  I have gone through many related SO threads and got some basic info. Already generated DB diagram. After that i am unable to find a button/option to generate SQL scripts (create) for all the tables in diagram. "Generate script" button is disabled, even on clicking the table in diagram. However i enabled the auto-generate option in tools-designer. But what to do with previous diagrams. I just want an easy way to auto-generate such scripts (create/alter) and would be gud if i get auto-generated stored procs for insert/selects/update etc. EDIT: I could do generate scripts for DB objects. Now: 1. How to import DB diagram from another DB. 2. How to generate (and manage their change integrated with VS source control) routine stored-procs like insert, update and select. Ok let me ask another way, can experts guide on the usual flow of creating/altering tables (across releases), creating stored-procs (are stored-procs the best way to go ?) and their change-management using SSMS design tools and minimal effort ?

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• Is this the right way to organize my database tables?

  - by Moss

  So I'm making a website that allows users to build contact lists. So their are users, the users have lists, and the lists have contacts. It seems to me that I need 3 tables for this but I just want to make sure. There would be a User table of course, and then a "List of Lists" table that has the username, and listname, as primary key along with whatever other info we want to attach to the lists as a whole. Finally, for lack of a better word, the List table which would again have the username/listname p.k., then the contact ID and notes and such that the user attaches to that contact on that specific list. I hope that is a clear explanation. For some reason I feel unsure about this arrangement. For one thing if the website becomes popular the List table could swell to billions of rows. And it also feels a little weird that everybody's list info is all jumbled up in the same table. I suppose I could create separate tables for each user and even for each list but that seems like a bad idea for other reasons. My db explanation assumes I can use foreign keys on my tables which at the moment isn't actually an option. If I can't get InnoDB tables enabled I will probably use ID's for the lists instead of depending on a compound key. Maybe I should do this anyway?

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• Cann Boost Program_options separate comma separated argument values

  - by lrm

  If my command line is: > prog --mylist=a,b,c Can Boost's program_options be setup to see three distinct argument values for the mylist argument? I have configured program_options as: namespace po = boost::program_options; po::options_description opts("blah") opts.add_options() ("mylist", std::vector<std::string>>()->multitoken, "description"); po::variables_map vm; po::store(po::parse_command_line(argc, argv, opts), vm); po::notify(vm); When I check the value of the mylist argument, I see one value as a,b,c. I'd like to see three distinct values, split on comma. This works fine if I specify the command line as: > prog --mylist=a b c or > prog --mylist=a --mylist=b --mylist=c Is there a way to configure program_options so that it sees a,b,c as three values that should each be inserted into the vector, rather than one? I am using boost 1.41, g++ 4.5.0 20100520, and have enabled c++0x experimental extensions.

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• Django caching seems to be causing problems

  - by Issy

  Hey guys, i have just implemented the Django Cache Local Memory back end in some my code, however it seems to be causing a problem. I get the following error when trying to view the site (With Debug On): Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/servers/basehttp.py", line 279, in run self.result = application(self.environ, self.start_response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/servers/basehttp.py", line 651, in __call__ return self.application(environ, start_response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 245, in __call__ response = middleware_method(request, response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/middleware/cache.py", line 91, in process_response patch_response_headers(response, timeout) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/utils/cache.py", line 112, in patch_response_headers response['Expires'] = http_date(time.time() + cache_timeout) TypeError: unsupported operand type(s) for +: 'float' and 'str' I have checked my code, for caching everything seems to be ok. For example, i have the following in my middleware. MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES = ( 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'django.middleware.cache.UpdateCacheMiddleware', 'django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.middleware.cache.FetchFromCacheMiddleware', 'django.contrib.flatpages.middleware.FlatpageFallbackMiddleware', ) My settings for Cache: CACHE_BACKEND = 'locmem://' CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_SECONDS = '3600' CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_KEY_PREFIX = 'za' CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_ANONYMOUS_ONLY = True And some of my code (template tag): def get_featured_images(): """ provides featured images """ cache_key = 'featured_images' images = cache.get(cache_key) if images is None: images = FeaturedImage.objects.all().filter(enabled=True)[:5] cache.set(cache_key, images) return {'images': images} Any idea what could be the problem, from the error message below it looks like there's an issue in django's cache.py?

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• Licensing iPhone apps per user in existing system

  - by Alxandr

  I've been asked by my job to write a iPhone app for an existing system for managing worktasks. This system is proprietary and costs money, so in order to login you need to be a customer. Now, I've got two questions about the legality of licensing iPhone apps with this system: My company would like to be able to sell the app for profit, but not as a one-time payment, but as a added subscription-fee to the already existing one. Is it legal for us (according with the terms of distributing an iPhone app on the Apple App Store) to do this? That way we'll just add another field to the users-database saying weather or not iPhone is enabled for them, and distribute the app as a free app on App Store. If the previous question is not legal, we'd like to just create a free app and distribute it as part of the existing system. In other words, no extra fee for using the iPhone app for the users, but still free distribution trough App Store. Due to our company not being american or having an office in the U.S. at all enterprice account is not an option. Please let me know if there is anything wrong with any of the above approaches.

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• How can I automatically elevate a COM interface used for automation?

  - by Jim Flood

  I have a Windows service built with ATL to expose a LocalServer32 COM interface for a set of admin commands used for configuring the service, and these can be used from VBScript for example: Set myObj = WScript.CreateObject("MySvc.Administrator") myObj.DoSomething() I want DoSomething to run elevated, and I would like the UAC prompt to come up automatically when this is called by the VBScript. Is this possible? I know I can run the script in an elevated command shell, and that I can use objShell.ShellExecute WScript.FullName, Chr(34) & WScript.ScriptFullName & Chr(34), vbNullString, "runas" for example, to run the VBScript itself elevated, and either of those work fine -- the COM method finds itself elevated. However, AFAIK getting an elevated Explorer window on the desktop is convoluted (it's not as simple as right-clicking Start/Accessories/Windows Explorer/Run as Administrator, which doesn't actually elevate.) I want a user in the local admin group to be able to drag-and-drop files and folders onto the script, and then have the script call the admin COM interface with those pathnames as arguments. (And I am hoping for something simpler than monkeying around with the args and using ShellExecute "runas".) I've tried setting UAC Execution Level to requireAdministrator in the service EXE's manifest, and setting Elevated/Enabled = 1 and LocalizedString in the registry for the MySvc.Administrator class, and these don't do the trick.

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• The rules to connect a web service trough the SSL and Certificates

  - by blgnklc

  There is a web service running on tomcat on a server. It is built on Java Servlet. It is listening others to call itself on a SSL enabled http port. so its web service adreess looks like: https://172.29.12.12/axis/services/XYZClient?wsdl On the other hand I want to connect the web service above from a windows application which is built on .NET frame work. Finally, when I want to connect the web service from my computer; I get some specific erros; Firstly I get; Proxy authentication error; then I added some new line to my code; Dim cr As System.Net.NetworkCredential = New System.Net.NetworkCredential("xname", "xsurname", "xdomainname") Dim myProxy As New WebProxy("http://mar.xxxyyy.com", True) myProxy.Credentials = cr Secondly, after this modifications It says that bad request. I did not get over this error. Moreover I did try to connect the web server on the same computer. I copied my executable program to the computer where the web service runs. The error was like; The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for SSL/TLS secure channel PS: When I try to connect to web service by using Internet Explorer; I see firstly some warnings about accepting an unknown certificate and I click take me to web service an I get there clearly. I want to know what are the basic elements to connect a web service, could you please tell me the requirements that I have to use on my windows project. regards bk

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• How to use VC++ intrinsic functions w/o run-time library

  - by Adrian McCarthy

  I'm involved in one of those challenges where you try to produce the smallest possible binary, so I'm building my program without the C or C++ run-time libraries (RTL). I don't link to the DLL version or the static version. I don't even #include the header files. I have this working fine. For some code constructs, the compiler generates calls to memset(). For example: struct MyStruct { int foo; int bar; }; MyStruct blah = {}; // calls memset() Since I don't include the RTL, this results in a missing symbol at link time. I've been getting around this by avoiding those constructs. For the given example, I'll explicitly initialize the struct. MyStruct blah; blah.foo = 0; blah.bar = 0; But memset() can be useful, so I tried adding my own implementation. It works fine in Debug builds, even for those places where the compiler generates an implicit call to memset(). But in Release builds, I get an error saying that I cannot define an intrinsic function. You see, in Release builds, intrinsic functions are enabled, and memset() is an intrinsic. I would love to use the intrinsic for memset() in my release builds, since it's probably inlined and smaller and faster than my implementation. But I seem to be a in catch-22. If I don't define memset(), the linker complains that it's undefined. If I do define it, the compiler complains that I cannot define an intrinsic function. I've tried adding #pragma intrinsic(memset) with and without declarations of memset, but no luck. Does anyone know the right combination of definition, declaration, #pragma, and compiler and linker flags to get an intrinsic function without pulling in RTL overhead? Visual Studio 2008, x86, Windows XP+.

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• Java SWT: wrapping syncExec and asyncExec to clean up code

  - by jonescb

  I have a Java Application using SWT as the toolkit, and I'm getting tired of all the ugly boiler plate code it takes to update a GUI element. Just to set a disabled button to be enabled I have to go through something like this: shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { buttonOk.setEnabled(true); } }); I prefer keeping my source code as flat as I possibly can, but I need a whopping 3 indentation levels just to do something simple. Is there some way I can wrap it? I would like a class like: public class UIUpdater { public static void updateUI(Shell shell, *function_ptr*) { shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { //Execute function_ptr } }); } } And can be used like so: UIUpdater.updateUI(shell, buttonOk.setEnabled(true)); Something like this would be great for hiding that horrible mess SWT seems to think is necessary to do anything. As I understand it, Java cannot do functions pointers. But Java 7 will have something called Closures which should be what I want. But in the meantime is there anything at all I can do to pass a function pointer or callback to another function to be executed? As an aside, I'm starting to think it'd be worth the effort to redo this application in Swing, and I don't have to put up with this ugly crap and non-cross-platformyness of SWT.

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