Search Results

Search found 6942 results on 278 pages for 'enabled'.

Page 223/278 | < Previous Page | 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230  | Next Page >

  • How to figure out which key was pressed on a BlackBerry

    - by Skrud
    What I want: To know when the user has pressed the button that has the number '2' on it, for example. I don't care whether "Alt" or "Shift" has been pressed. The user has pressed a button, and I want to evaluate whether this button has '2' printed on it. Naturally, if I switch devices this key will change. On a Bold 9700/9500 this is the 'E' key. On a Pearl, this is the 'T'/'Y' key. I've managed to get this working in what appears to be a roundabout way, by looking up the keycode of the '2' character with the ALT button enabled and using Keypad.key() to get the actual button: // figure out which key the '2' is on: final int BUTTON_2_KEY = Keypad.key(KeypadUtil.getKeyCode('2', KeypadListener.STATUS_ALT, KeypadUtil.MODE_EN_LOCALE)); protected boolean keyDown(int keycode, int time) { int key = Keypad.key(keycode); if ( key == BUTTON_2_KEY ) { // do something return true; } return super.keyDown(keycode,time); } I can't help but wonder if there is a better way to do this. I've looked at the constants defined in KeypadListener and Keypad but I can't find any constants mapped to the actual buttons on the device. Would any more experienced BlackBerry devs care to lend a helping hand? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problem: How to display a Wordpress RSS feed in a browser that doesn't have a built in RSS reader?

    - by StephenMeehan
    If I can, i'd rather not use a service like FeedBurner. My setup: I've setup a RSS feed link on a self-hosted Wordpress website, clicking the RSS link in Safari shows the feed - because Safari has a built in RSS reader. Great. Unfortunately clicking the same RSS link in Chrome displays the raw XML feed. I know why this happens - Chrome doesn't have a built in RSS reader. I also assume this will be the same in older versions of Internet Explorer. Possible solution? I've noticed http://www.bbc.co.uk/news has a nice solution: Click the RSS feed (top tight of the page) in a RSS enabled browser (Safari) and it uses the built in RSS reader to display the RSS feed. Click the same RSS feed link in Chrome (Chrome has no built in RSS reader) it displays the RSS feed using what looks like a custom page. Is there a way to check if a browser has a built in RSS reader? How would I provide alternative content (like the BBC site) to a browser that doesn't have a RSS reader installed? Any help on this would be brilliant, thanks for taking the time to read this. Stephen

    Read the article

  • How to disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5 (asp net mvc3)

    - by troebr
    I'm struggling with my IIS setup regarding caching, here's a brief description of my problem: I'm making a site for mobile and non-mobile, sharing the same controllers. IE: mysite/page will serve either mysite/page.cshtml, or mysite/M/page.cshtml, depending on the device. Here's the catch, it worked fine with my local and integration environment (cassiini and iis 6), but on another machine (2008r2/iis 7.5), apparently there is an aggressive server-side caching policy: If I access the website from a desktop machine, I have the correct pages (desktop version) If now I use my mobile phone to access the site, I will have the desktop version, (which implies a server-side cache, my phone is not using the same network). On the contrary, if I were to restart the server and access the site using my phone first, then I will get the mobile version on my desktop (only for the pages I already visited of course). I tried 2 solutions so far: Disabling OutputCache from my Web.config: <httpModules> [..] <remove name="OutputCache" /> </httpModules> And unchecking "Enable output cache" in "Output Caching" for my site in IIS. What's bugging me is that I do not have this problem with my other server (iis 6.0), although caching is enabled on this one, which leads me to think it is related to iis 7 caching addition. My question is simple: how does one disable server-side caching on IIS 7.5? Thanks in advance for your iis lights!

    Read the article

  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

    Read the article

  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

    Read the article

  • Screen information while Windows system is locked (.NET)

    - by Matt
    We have a nightly process that updates applications on a user's pc, and that requires bringing the application down and back up again (not looking to get into changing that process). The problem is that we are building a Windows AppBar on launch which requires a valid screen, and when the system is locked there isn't one in the Screen class. So none of the visual effects are enabled and it shows up real ugly. The only way we currently have around this is to detect a locked screen and just spin and wait until the user unlocks the desktop, then continue launching. Leaving it down isn't an option, as this is a key part of our user's workflow, and they expect it to be up and running if they left it that way the night before. Any ideas?? I can't seem to find the display information anywhere, but it has to be stored off someplace, since the user is still logged in. The contents of the Screen.AllScreens array: ** When Locked: Device Name : DISPLAY Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 0 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=2560,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} ** When Unlocked: Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY1 Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=994} Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY2 Primary : False Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=964}

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to touch-enable scrolling in a WPF ScrollViewer?

    - by Brian Sullivan
    I'm trying to create a form in a WPF application that will allow the user to use iPhone-like gestures to scroll through the available fields. So, I've put all my form controls inside a StackPanel inside a ScrollViewer, and the scrollbar shows up as expected when there are too many elements to be shown on the screen. However, when I try to test this on my touch-enabled device, a panning gesture (placing a finger down on the surface and dragging it upward) does not move the viewable area down as I would expect. When I simply put a number of elements inside a ListView, the touch gestures work just fine. Is there any way to enable the same kind of behavior in a ScrollViewer? My window is structured like this: <Window x:Class="TestTouchScrolling.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <ScrollViewer Name="viewer" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <StackPanel Name="panel"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 1:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox1"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 2:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox2"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 3:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox3"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <!-- Lots more like these --> </StackPanel> </ScrollViewer> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • Unable to register achievements

    - by abe
    I've been unable to register any achievements. I keep getting the following: {"error":{"message":"(#3502) Object at achievement URL is not of type game.achievement","type":"OAuthException","code":3502}} When I run my URL through the linter, I get: Open Graph Warnings That Should Be Fixed Inferred Property: The 'og:url' property should be explicitly provided, even if a value can be inferred from other tags. Inferred Property: The 'og:title' property should be explicitly provided, even if a value can be inferred from other tags. Although when I load the URL myself I clearly see those set in the meta tags. My HTML looks like: <html> <head prefix="og: http://ogp.me/ns# fb: http://ogp.me/ns/fb# game: http://ogp.me/ns/game#"> <meta property="fb:app_id" content="<MY_APP_ID>" /> <meta property="og:type" content="game.achievement" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://<MY_DOMAIN>/ach10.html" /> <meta property="og:title" content="Title" /> <meta property="og:description" content="Description" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://placekitten.com/g/200/300" /> </head> <body> Hmm.. </body> </html> Also interesting, is the graph API sees it as: { "url": "http://<MY_DOMAIN>/ach10.html", "type": "website", "title": "http://<MY_DOMAIN>/ach10.html", "updated_time": "2012-03-09T19:49:14+0000", "id": "<ID>" } And the scraped URL returns nothing ... anyone have any ideas? I've also tried adding the Game Achievement object in the Open Graph settings and every combination of Sandbox Mode/Social Discovery enabled and disabled.

    Read the article

  • Resizing a GLJPanel with JOGL causes my model to disappear.

    - by badcodenotreat
    I switched over to using a GLJPanel from a GLCanvas to avoid certain flickering issues, however this has created several unintended consequences of it's own. From what I've gleaned so far, GLJPanel calls GLEventListener.init() every time it's resized which either resets various openGL functions i've enabled in init() (depth test, lighting, etc...) if i'm lucky, or completely obliterates my model if i'm not. I've tried debugging it but I'm not able to correct this behavior. This is my init() function: gl.glShadeModel( GL.GL_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_DEPTH_TEST ); gl.glDepthFunc( GL.GL_LEQUAL ); gl.glDepthRange( zNear, zFar ); gl.glDisable( GL.GL_LINE_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable(GL.GL_NORMALIZE); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_BLEND ); gl.glBlendFunc( GL.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA ); // set up the background color gl.glClearColor( ((float)backColor.getRed () / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getGreen() / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getBlue () / 255.0f), 1.0f); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHTING ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_AMBIENT, Constants.AMBIENT_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_DIFFUSE, Constants.DIFFUSE_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHT0 ); gl.glTexEnvf( GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL.GL_MODULATE ); gl.glHint( GL.GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL.GL_NICEST ); // code to generate model Is there any way around this other than removing everything from init(), adding it to my display() function? Given the behavior of init() and reshape() for GLJPanel, i'm not sure if that will fix it either.

    Read the article

  • Could DataGridView be this dumb? or its me?lol

    - by Selase
    Am trying to bind data to a dropdown list on pageload based on a condition. Code explains further below. public partial class AddExhibit : System.Web.UI.Page { string adminID, caseIDRetrieved; DataSet caseDataSet = new DataSet(); SqlDataAdapter caseSqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); string strConn = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["CMSSQL3ConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { adminID = Request.QueryString["adminID"]; caseIDRetrieved = Request.QueryString["caseID"]; if (caseIDRetrieved != null) { CaseIDDropDownList.Text = caseIDRetrieved; //CaseIDDropDownList.Enabled = false; } else { try { CreateDataSet(); DataView caseDataView = new DataView(caseDataSet.Tables[0]); CaseIDDropDownList.DataSource = caseDataView; CaseIDDropDownList.DataBind(); } catch (Exception ex) { string script = "<script>alert('" + ex.Message + "');</script>"; } } } The CreateDataset method that is called in the if..else statement is contains the following code. private void CreateDataSet() { SqlConnection caseConnection = new SqlConnection(strConn); caseSqlDataAdapter.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand("Select CaseID FROM Cases", caseConnection); caseSqlDataAdapter.Fill(caseDataSet); } However when i load the page and as usual the condition that is supposed to bid the data is met, the gridview decides to displays as follows... IS IT ME OR ITS THE DATAGRID?...??

    Read the article

  • Sample twitter application

    - by Jack
    I have installed WAMP and running PHP scripts on localhost. I have enabled cURL. Here is my code. <?php function updateTwitter($status) { // Twitter login information $username = 'xxxxx'; $password = 'xxxxx'; // The url of the update function $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; // Arguments we are posting to Twitter $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); // Will store the response we get from Twitter $responseInfo=array(); // Initialize CURL $ch = curl_init($url); // Tell CURL we are doing a POST curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY,"localhost:80"); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // execute the CURL call $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> Here's my output Operation completed without any errors Error: 404 Here's what error 404 means 404 Not Found: The URI requested is invalid or the resource requested, such as a user, does not exists. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Can't see *all* databases in a remote SQL Server instance

    - by George
    Yesterday I posted a related question on StackOverflow. This problem involved not being able to see a SQL Server 2008 instance on another PC. I am not sure why adding the port number enabled me to see a SQL Server that I could not otherwise see, since the port number that I specified was, after all, the default port. Now I notice that I have another problem. While I can connect to the remote SQL 2008 Server instance, I cannot see all the databases in the instance. I am trying to connect to the 2008 instance from another PC using SQL Server 2008 Mgt Studio. I am connecting from a Windows 7 Ultimate PC to a Windows XP Pro PC. I suspect that my problem has something to do with not all database in the remote instance having the same version. For example, I "upgraded" a a SL 2005 database to 2008 by doing a backup frm 2005 and importing it into 2008. When I realized that this was not one of the database that I could see from my other PC, I noticed that the compatability level of the imported was still 2005, so I changed it to 2008. Still I could not see the database. I am sure that this is relevant: I just noticed that on my remote server, the sql node instance node, named "sql2008" says "version 10" when I am on the remote serfver, but when I connect to the sql2008 remote instance fron my local PC, the connection is shown locally as being a "SQL Servr version 8.0" instance. I suspect that locally, I am only being shown databases that are somehow in the remote 2008 instance but have not been upgraded. I guess I don't know what constitutes an upgraded database and I don not know who to connect to see all the databases, even if this requires multiple connections from the source PC.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 - Enabling both Named Pipes & TCP/IP protocols?

    - by Clinemi
    We have a SQL Server 2005 database, and currently all our users are connecting to the database via the TCP/IP protocol. The SQL Server Configuration Manager allows you to "enable" both Named Pipes, and TCP/IP connections at the same time. Is this a good idea? My question is not whether we should use named pipes instead of TCP/IP, but are there problems associated with enabling both? One of our client's IT guys, says that enabling database communication with both protocols will limit the bandwidth that either protocol can use - to like 50% of the total. I would think that the bandwidth that TCP/IP could use would be directly tied (inversely) to the amount of traffic that Named Pipes (or any of the other types of traffic) were occupying on the network at that moment. However, this IT person is indicating that the fact that we have enabled two protocols on the server, artificially limits the bandwidth that TCP/IP can use. Is this correct? I did Google searches but could not come up with an answer to this question. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

    Read the article

  • Problem in Saving Multi Level Models in YII

    - by Waqar
    My Table structure for user and his adress detail is as follows CREATE TABLE tbl_users ( id bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, loginname varchar(128) NOT NULL, enabled enum("True","False"), approved enum("True","False"), password varchar(128) NOT NULL, email varchar(128) NOT NULL, role_id int(20) NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', name varchar(70) NOT NULL, co_type enum("S/O","D/O","W/O") DEFAULT "S/O", co_name varchar(70), gender enum("MALE","FEMALE","OTHER") DEFAULT "MALE", dob date DEFAULT NULL, maritalstatus enum("SINGLE","MARRIED","DIVORCED","WIDOWER") DEFAULT "MARRIED", occupation varchar(100) DEFAULT NULL, occupationtype_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, occupationindustry_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, contact_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, signupreason varchar(500), PRIMARY KEY (id), UNIQUE KEY loginname (loginname), UNIQUE KEY email (email), FOREIGN KEY (role_id) REFERENCES tbl_roles (id), FOREIGN KEY (occupationtype_id) REFERENCES tbl_occupationtypes (id), FOREIGN KEY (occupationindustry_id) REFERENCES tbl_occupationindustries (id), FOREIGN KEY (contact_id) REFERENCES tbl_contacts (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_contacts ( id bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, contact_type enum("cres","pres","coff"), address varchar(300) DEFAULT NULL, landmark varchar(100) DEFAULT NULL, district_id int(11) DEFAULT NULL, city_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, state_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, pin_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, area_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, po_id bigint(20) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, phone1 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, phone2 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, mobile1 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, mobile2 varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id), FOREIGN KEY (district_id) REFERENCES tbl_districts (id), FOREIGN KEY (city_id) REFERENCES tbl_cities (id), FOREIGN KEY (state_id) REFERENCES tbl_states (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_states ( id int(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(70) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_districts ( id int(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(70) DEFAULT NULL, state_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id), FOREIGN KEY (state_id) REFERENCES tbl_states (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; CREATE TABLE tbl_cities ( id int(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(70) DEFAULT NULL, district_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, state_id int(20) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id), FOREIGN KEY (district_id) REFERENCES tbl_districts (id), FOREIGN KEY (state_id) REFERENCES tbl_states (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB; The relationship is as follows User has multiple contacts i.e Permanent Address, Current Address, Office Address. Each Contact has state and City. User-Contact-state like this How to save models of this structure in one go. Please provide a reply ASAP

    Read the article

  • Using pointers to adjust global objects in objective-c

    - by Rob
    Ok, so I am working with two sets of data that are extremely similar, and at the same time, these data sets are both global NSMutableArrays within the object. data_set_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; data_set_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Two new NSMutableArrays are loaded, which need to be added to the old, existing data. These Arrays are also global. xml_dataset_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; xml_dataset_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; To reduce code duplication (and because these data sets are so similar) I wrote a void method within the class to handle the data combination process for both Arrays: -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str Now, I have a decent understanding of object oriented programming, so I was thinking that if I were to invoke the method with the global Arrays in the data like so... [self constructData:data_set_one fromDownloadArray:xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:@"id"]; Then the global NSMutableArrays (data_set_one) would reflect the changes that happen to "array" within the method. Sadly, this is not the case, data_set_one doesn't reflect the changes (ex: new objects within the Array) outside of the method. Here is a code snippet of the problem // data_set_one is empty // xml_dataset_one has a few objects [constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data_set_one fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:(NSString *)@"id"]; // data_set_one should now be xml_dataset_one, but when echoed to screen, it appears to remain empty And here is the gist of the code for the method, any help is appreciated. -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str { if ([data count] == 0) { data = down; // set data equal to downloaded data } else if ([down count] == 0) { // download yields no results, do nothing } else { // combine the two arrays here } } This project is not ARC enabled. Thanks for the help guys! Rob

    Read the article

  • iPhone UISlider not visible

    - by John Qualis
    I want to add a UISlider to my app programmatically without using the IB. I am adding a UISlider to my UIViewController using the code below. However I don't see the slider when the view comes up. What am I missing? I am using iPhone SDK 3.1.2. Appreciate any help. @synthesize slider; .... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... ... slider = [[UISlider alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectMake(0, 480 - 80, 300, 20)]; slider.minimumValue = 0.0; slider.maximumValue = 100.0; slider.tag = 0; slider.value = 50; slider.continuous = YES; slider.enabled = YES; [slider addTarget:selfaction:@selector(handleSlider:)forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; self.view addSubview:slider]; In the .h file ... UISlider *slider; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UISlider *slider; - (void) handleSlider:(id)sender;

    Read the article

  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

    Read the article

  • Anonymous comments not saved in Drupal

    - by Marco
    For some reason I can no longer post a comment as an Anonymous user in my Drupal installation. I haven't tried in a while, so I'm not quite sure when this functionality was broken. I have Services installed, and I can post anonymous comments using comment.save. I have altered the Input Formats if that could break something. I have enabled both post comments and access comments on the anonymous user. The comments does not show up in the database. In fact, the native Drupal function comment_save isn't called when I try to comment as Anonymous (I check this by adding print_r($edit);die(); at the top of the comment_save function in comment.module. Also I read something that not having a User with the UID 0 would break the Anonymous commenting, this user exists (obviously, since commenting through Services works) I have tried out the AntiSpam module, and posted a comment as Anonymous that would get caught(and did) in the spamfilter, but this module is now disabled. I'm really running out of ideas here, does anyone have any other suggestions on what to do? In the meanwhile I'm going to attempt to backtrack the code to figure out why comment_save() isn't being called. Edit: Anonymous users also don't have to submit email and such to post, if that matters in any way.

    Read the article

  • PHP Cookie Warning...

    - by Nano HE
    Hi,I am new to PHP, I practised PHP setcookie() just now and failed. http://localhost/test/index.php <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title></title> </head> <body> <?php $value = 'something from somewhere'; setcookie("TestCookie", $value); ?> </body> </html> http://localhost/test/view.php <?php // I plan to view the cookie value via view.php echo $_COOKIE["TestCookie"]; ?> But I failed to run index.php, IE warning like this. Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\test\index.php:9) in C:\xampp\htdocs\test\index.php on line 12 I enabled my IE 6 cookie no doubt. Is there anything wrong on my procedure above? Thank you. WinXP OS and XAMPP 1.7.3 used.

    Read the article

  • AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

    - by Olly
    We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

    Read the article

  • Forces to prompt download box IE

    - by Bruno Costa
    Hello, I'm having a problem with some reports in the application I'm doing manutention I've a button that does a postback to the server and do some information and then get back to the cliente and open a popup to download the report. private void grid_ItemCommand(object source, System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ... ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this.GetType(), "xxx", "<script>javascript:window.location('xx.aspx?m=x','xxx','width=750,height=350,directories=no,location=no,menubar=no,scrollbars,status=no,toolbar=no,resizable=yes,left=50,top=50');</script>"); } Then in xxx.aspx I've the code: Response.ClearContent(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.TransmitFile(tempFileName); Response.Flush(); Response.Close(); File.Delete(tempFileName); Response.End(); This works fine if IE option Automatic prompting for file downloads is enabled. But by default this is disabled and I need to force the download box to be prompting. Can I do anything without change a lot of code? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • AJAX AutoCompletExtender doesn't allow to move ahead of first item with arrow-key

    - by dharmbhav
    Hi, I am using an AJAX AutoCompleteExtender to display a list of suburbs-postcodes after the user presses 3 keys in the given textbox. The problem is that on the page, I can't move my selection below the first item (with down arrow key/mouse). However with mouse if I click on any item, it gets selected. <asp:TextBox ID="txtPostalSuburb" runat="server" CssClass="select_insert_menu_text1" MaxLength="40" TabIndex="9"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="txtPostalSuburb_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServicePath="~/Web/Common/ListingService.asmx" TargetControlID="txtPostalSuburb" UseContextKey="False" ServiceMethod="GetSuburbList" MinimumPrefixLength="3" CompletionListCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list" OnClientItemSelected="AutoCompleteExtender_ItemSelected" CompletionListItemCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list-item" > </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> CSS: .contact-details-suggestion-list { background-color: window; color: windowtext; cursor: default; list-style-image: none; list-style-position: outside; list-style-type: none; padding:0px; text-align: left; border: solid 1px #005883; margin-top: 0px; font-size: 10px; } .contact-details-suggestion-list-item { border-bottom: dotted 1px black; } Any help is appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Change an Image while using JCrop

    - by Bathan
    Hi guys! Im working on a new feature in my site and I got stucked really bad. Im using JCrop obviously to crop an Image on my website. The new feature that I've been asked to Implement is to allow the user to change the colors of the Image being cropped. I have now 3 images , Color, GrayScale and Sepia. I can change the source of the image tag using javascript so the image gets changed without reload but I cannot do this once the JCrop has been enabled because it replaces the original Image for a new one. I thought I could disable JCrop, Replace the Image and then Re-Enable, but i couldnt do such thing. The example I found where the JCrop gets destroyed (example5 in Demo zip) uses an object : jcrop_api = $.Jcrop('#cropbox'); But Im enabling JCrop in a different manner,more like Example 3 : jQuery('#cropbox').Jcrop({ onChange: showPreview, onSelect: showPreview, aspectRatio: 1 }); How can I destroy JCrop so I can replace te Image? Is there another way to do this? Please help! I Could easily reload the page each time the user changes de color of the image but we all know that's not cool. Any comments will be apreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

    - by Mikejh99
    I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230  | Next Page >