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  • AutoMapper

    AutoMapper is an object-object mapper which allows you to solve issues with mapping the same properties from one object of one type to another object of another type. For example, mapping a heavy entity Customer object to the CustomerDTO could be done with AutoMapper automatically.

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  • ASP NET MVC : "Cannot order by type 'System.Object'."

    - by rah.deex
    This is my code. I got this sample from the Internet and I tried to modify it. private void FillGridData() { //IQueryable<SVC> query = _customerService.GetQueryable(); _dataContext = new dbServiceModelDataContext(); var query = from m in _dataContext.SVCs select m; query = AddQuerySearchCriteria(query, _grid.SearchForm); int totalRows = query.Count(); _grid.Pager.Init(totalRows); if (totalRows == 0) { _grid.Data = new List<SVC>(); return; } query = AddQuerySorting(query, _grid.Sorter); query = AddQueryPaging(query, _grid.Pager); List<SVC> customers = query.ToList(); //***ERROR IN HERE***// _grid.Data = customers; } The error says "Cannot order by type 'System.Object'.", what is the matter? Do you have solution for me? This is The AddQuerySorting Method THE PROBLEM IS IN HERE is there anything wrong about the code? :( private IQueryable<SVC> AddQuerySorting(IQueryable<SVC> query, Sorter sorter) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(sorter.SortField)) return query; //Used approach from http://www.singingeels.com/Articles/Self_Sorting_GridView_with_LINQ_Expression_Trees.aspx //instead of a long switch statement var param = Expression.Parameter(typeof(SVC), "customer"); var sortExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<SVC, object>> (Expression.Convert(Expression.Property(param, sorter.SortField), typeof(object)), param); if (sorter.SortDirection == SortDirection.Asc) query = query.OrderBy(sortExpression); else query = query.OrderByDescending(sortExpression); return query; } here is AddQueryPaging Method private IQueryable<SVC> AddQueryPaging(IQueryable<SVC> query, Pager pager) { if (pager.TotalPages == 0) return query; query = query.Skip((pager.CurrentPage - 1) * pager.PageSize) .Take(pager.PageSize); return query; }

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  • Embedding a flash object old SWF markup? Will this work??

    - by user342391
    I am embedding a flash object into my site and when I do I get a message from dreamweaver saying "This page contains some swf objects that may not work correctly in the most recent versions of Internet Explorer. Dreamweaver cannot convert them to the new SWF markups please delete each of them and insert them again" I am not aware of any new SWF markups but here is my code to check maybe I am doing something wrong: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> </head> <body> <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,28,0" width="350" height="140" title="Flash Audio Recorder"> <param name="movie" value="AudioRecorder.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="FlashVars" value="userid=2&settings=myXML/settings.xml" /> <embed src="AudioRecorder.swf" FlashVars="userid=2&settings=myXML/settings.xml" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" quality="high" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="350" height="140"></embed> </object> </body> </html>

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  • What is the correct way to synchronize a shared, static object in Java?

    - by johnrock
    This is a question concerning what is the proper way to synchronize a shared object in java. One caveat is that the object that I want to share must be accessed from static methods. My question is, If I synchronize on a static field, does that lock the class the field belongs to similar to the way a synchronized static method would? Or, will this only lock the field itself? In my specific example I am asking: Will calling PayloadService.getPayload() or PayloadService.setPayload() lock PayloadService.payload? Or will it lock the entire PayloadService class? public class PayloadService extends Service { private static PayloadDTO payload = new PayloadDTO(); public static void setPayload(PayloadDTO payload){ synchronized(PayloadService.payload){ PayloadService.payload = payload; } } public static PayloadDTO getPayload() { synchronized(PayloadService.payload){ return PayloadService.payload ; } } ... Is this a correct/acceptable approach ? In my example the PayloadService is a separate thread, updating the payload object at regular intervals - other threads need to call PayloadService.getPayload() at random intervals to get the latest data and I need to make sure that they don't lock the PayloadService from carrying out its timer task

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  • What could be causing a "Cannot access a disposed object" error in WCF?

    - by Nima
    I am using the following code: private WSHttpBinding ws; private EndpointAddress Srv_Login_EndPoint; private ChannelFactory<Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin> Srv_LoginChannelFactory; private Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin LoginService; The Login is my constructor: public Login() { InitializeComponent(); ws = new WSHttpBinding(); Srv_Login_EndPoint = new EndpointAddress("http://localhost:2687/Srv_Login.svc"); Srv_LoginChannelFactory = new ChannelFactory<Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin>(ws, Srv_Login_EndPoint); } And I'm using service this way: private void btnEnter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { LoginService = Srv_LoginChannelFactory.CreateChannel(); Srv_Login.LoginResult res = new Srv_Login.LoginResult(); res = LoginService.IsAuthenticated(txtUserName.Text.Trim(), txtPassword.Text.Trim()); if (res.Status == true) { int Id = int.Parse(res.Result.ToString()); } else { lblMessage.Text = "Not Enter"; } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { Srv_LoginChannelFactory.Close(); } } When the user enters a valid username and password, everything is fine. When the user enters a wrong username and password, the first try correctly displays a "Not Enter" message, but on the second try, the user sees this message: {System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1[Test_Poosesh.Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin]'. at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.ThrowIfDisposed() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.EnsureOpened() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel() How can I fix my code to prevent this error from occurring?

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  • Should a Perl constructor return an undef or a "invalid" object?

    - by DVK
    Question: What is considered to be "Best practice" - and why - of handling errors in a constructor?. "Best Practice" can be a quote from Schwartz, or 50% of CPAN modules use it, etc...; but I'm happy with well reasoned opinion from anyone even if it explains why the common best practice is not really the best approach. As far as my own view of the topic (informed by software development in Perl for many years), I have seen three main approaches to error handling in a perl module (listed from best to worst in my opinion): Construct an object, set an invalid flag (usually "is_valid" method). Often coupled with setting error message via your class's error handling. Pros: Allows for standard (compared to other method calls) error handling as it allows to use $obj->errors() type calls after a bad constructor just like after any other method call. Allows for additional info to be passed (e.g. 1 error, warnings, etc...) Allows for lightweight "redo"/"fixme" functionality, In other words, if the object that is constructed is very heavy, with many complex attributes that are 100% always OK, and the only reason it is not valid is because someone entered an incorrect date, you can simply do "$obj->setDate()" instead of the overhead of re-executing entire constructor again. This pattern is not always needed, but can be enormously useful in the right design. Cons: None that I'm aware of. Return "undef". Cons: Can not achieve any of the Pros of the first solution (per-object error messages outside of global variables and lightweight "fixme" capability for heavy objects). Die inside the constructor. Outside of some very narrow edge cases, I personally consider this an awful choice for too many reasons to list on the margins of this question. UPDATE: Just to be clear, I consider the (otherwise very worthy and a great design) solution of having very simple constructor that can't fail at all and a heavy initializer method where all the error checking occurs to be merely a subset of either case #1 (if initializer sets error flags) or case #3 (if initializer dies) for the purposes of this question. Obviously, choosing such a design, you automatically reject option #2.

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  • How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

    - by Wayne Russell
    Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

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  • How to dispatch a new property value in an object to the same property of two other objects

    - by WPFadvocate
    In WPF, I've three objects exposing the same DependencyProperty (let's say it's an integer). I want all three property values to remain synchronized, i.e. that whenever the int value changes in an object, this value is propagated to the two other objects. I think of multibinding to do the job, but I don't know how to detect which object changed, thus which value should be used and propagated to the other objects. Edited: here is my tentative code for multibinding, with the false hope that it would work without additional code: // create the multibinding MultiBinding mb = new MultiBinding() { Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger = UpdateSourceTrigger.PropertyChanged }; // create individual bindings to associate object_2 and object_3 to object_1 Binding b2 = new Binding() { Source = object_2, Path = new PropertyPath("X") }; Binding b3 = new Binding() { Source = object_3, Path = new PropertyPath("X") }; // add individual bindings to multibinding mb.Bindings.Add(b2); mb.Bindings.Add(b3); // bind object_2 and _3 to object_1 BindingOperations.SetBinding(object_1, TypeObject_1.XProperty, mb); But actually, there is a runtime error, saying the binding set by the last instruction is lacking a converter. But again I don't know how to write this converter (there is nothing to convert (as this is the case in the related MS sample of code linking 3 rgb properties to a color property), only to forward the value of the property changed to the two other properties). I understand I could solve the problem by creating an X_Changed event in the 3 types and then have each object registering to the two other objects event. I don't like this "manual" way and would prefer to bind the 3 properties together.

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  • How to use CodeDomSerializer to serialize an object in .Net?

    - by user341127
    I have a class, which is defined as the following: [ToolboxItem(false)] [DesignTimeVisible(false)] [DesignerSerializer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design", "System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializer, System.Design")] [Designer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.BaseRepositoryItemDesigner, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design")] [LicenseProvider(typeof(DXEditorLicenseProvider))] public class RepositoryItem : Component, ISupportInitialize, ICustomTypeDescriptor, IImageCollectionHelper {......} I tried the following code to serialize the object of this class. DesignerSerializationManager m = new System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.DesignerSerializationManager(); m.CreateSession(); DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer s = m.GetSerializer(typeof(RepositoryItem), typeof(DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer)) as DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer; RepositoryItem i = persistentRepository1.Items[0]; //m.Container.Add(i); s.Serialize(m,i );// An error "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." happended here. For I am not familiar with CodeDom, I have spent one day to get the way out. I guess the above code has some stupid mistakes. Please give me a hand to show how to serialize AND DeSelialize such objects of the class of Repository. BTW, the reason I don't use any other serializer is that I am supposed not to have rights to know the source code of RepositoryItem and others could inherit RepositoryItem at the same time. And actually I have to deal with RepositoryItem and its descendants. Thank you in advance. Ying

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  • PHP5 : Applying a method from an extended class on an object from the original (parent) class.

    - by Glauber Rocha
    Hello, I'm trying to extend two native PHP5 classes (DOMDocument and DOMNode) to implement 2 methods (selectNodes and selectSingleNode) in order to make XPath queries easier. I thought it would be rather straighforward, but I'm stuck in a problem which I think is an OOP beginner's issue. class nDOMDocument extends DOMDocument { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Then I tried to do extend DOMNode to implement the same methods so I can perform an XPath query directly on a node: class nDOMNode extends DOMNode { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this->ownerDocument,$this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Now if I execute the following code (on an arbitrary XMLDocument): $xmlDoc = new nDOMDocument; $xmlDoc->loadXML(...some XML...); $node1 = $xmlDoc->selectSingleNode("//item[@id=2]"); $node2 = $node1->selectSingleNode("firstname"); The third line works and returns a DOMNode object $node1. However, the fourth line doesn't work because the selectSingleNode method belongs to the nDOMNode class, not DOMNode. So my question: is there a way at some point to "transform" the returned DOMNode object into a nDOMNode object? I feel I'm missing some essential point here and I'd greatly appreciate your help. (Sorry, this is a restatement of my question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2573820/)

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  • How to synchronize placing an object in JNDI across processes?

    - by indra
    I am trying to place an object in JNDI, so that only one of the progam should be able to place it in JNDI. is there any global lock that can be used in J2EE environment. Is RMI can be used for this purpose? please provide any reference links. Thanks in advance. Also, what is NameAlreadyBoundexception? I am trying to use it as a method to synchronize, i.e, only one program places it in JNDI and if other trying to bind should get that exception. But when i am testing the multiple binding I am not getting the Exception.And second binding is done. look up is giving the second object bound. here is my code: private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public class TestJNDI { private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public static void main(String[] args) throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY,"weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory"); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL,"t3://127.0.0.1:7001"); Context ctx = new InitialContext(env); System.out.println("Initial Context created"); String obj1 = "obj1"; String obj2 = "obj2"; try{ ctx.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj1); System.out.println("Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } ctx.close(); Context ctx2 = new InitialContext(env); try{ // Second binding to the same name not giving the Exception?? ctx2.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj2); System.out.println("Re Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } String lookedUp = (String) ctx2.lookup(JNDI_NAME); System.out.println("LookedUp Object"+lookedUp); ctx2.close(); } }

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  • How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

    - by drs9222
    I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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  • How to join a table in symfony (Propel) and retrieve object from both table with one query

    - by Jean-Philippe
    Hi, I'm trying to get an easy way to fetch data from two joined Mysql table using Propel (inside Symfony) but in one query. Let's say I do this simple thing: $comment = CommentPeer::RetrieveByPk(1); print $comment->getArticle()->getTitle(); //Assuming the Article table is joined to the Comment table Symfony will call 2 queries to get that done. The first one to get the Comment row and the next one to get the Article row linked to the comment one. Now, I am trying to find a way to make all that within one query. I've tried to join them using $c = new Criteria(); $c->addJoin(CommentPeer::ARTICLE_ID, ArticlePeer::ID); $c->add(CommentPeer::ID, 1); $comment = CommentPeer::doSelectOne($c); But when I try to get the Article object using $comment->getArticle() It will still issue the query to get the Article row. I could easily clear all the selected columns and select the columns I need but that would not give me the Propel object I'd like, just an array of the query's raw result. So how can I get a populated propel object of two (or more) joined table with only one query? Thanks, JP

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  • Does Ctypes Structures and POINTERS automatically free the memory when the Python object is deleted?

    - by jsbueno
    When using Python CTypes there are the Structures, that allow you to clone c-structures on the Python side, and the POINTERS objects that create a sofisticated Python Object from a memory address value and can be used to pass objects by reference back and forth C code. What I could not find on the documentation or elsewhere is what happens when a Python object containing a Structure class that was de-referenced from a returning pointer from C Code (that is - the C function alocated memory for the structure) is itself deleted. Is the memory for the original C structure freed? If not how to do it? Furthermore -- what if the Structure contains Pointers itself, to other data that was also allocated by the C function? Does the deletion of the Structure object frees the Pointers onits members? (I doubt so) Else - -how to do it? Trying to call the system "free" from Python for the Pointers in the Structure is crashing Python for me. In other words, I have this structure filled up by a c Function call: class PIX(ctypes.Structure): """Comments not generated """ _fields_ = [ ("w", ctypes.c_uint32), ("h", ctypes.c_uint32), ("d", ctypes.c_uint32), ("wpl", ctypes.c_uint32), ("refcount", ctypes.c_uint32), ("xres", ctypes.c_uint32), ("yres", ctypes.c_uint32), ("informat", ctypes.c_int32), ("text", ctypes.POINTER(ctypes.c_char)), ("colormap", ctypes.POINTER(PIXCOLORMAP)), ("data", ctypes.POINTER(ctypes.c_uint32)) ] And I want to free the memory it is using up from Python code.

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  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

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  • C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

    - by JL
    I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

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  • How can I initialize a QTMovie object with certain attributes using writable data?

    - by c-had
    I'm trying to create an empty QTMovie object that I can add segments to, and then play. This is easy to do with something like: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initToWritableData:[NSMutableData dataWithCapacity:1048576] error:&error]; I can then use -insertSegmentOfMovie to insert segments from other movies into this one so I can play it back. The problem is that I also need to set a certain attribute when creating the QTMovie object. In particular, I need to set the QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute attribute, so that I can alter playback speed during playback without changing pitch. This attribute cannot be written after the movie is initialized. So, I can create the QTMovie object like this: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initWithAttributes:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute, nil] error:&error]; Unfortunately, this is not editable. I've tried setting the QTMovieEditableAttribute as well on creation, but it does not help. I still get an exception when I try to insert anything into this movie. I presume this is because there is no writable file or data reference associated with the QTMovie. Any ideas on how to solve this?

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  • How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

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  • DD_belatedPNG.js - how to access the vml object? this is for a PNG image-swap.

    - by akc
    I am trying to use Drew Dillard's awesome DD_belatedPNG fix + jQuery to achieve a run-of-the-mill image-swap on hover -- but with PNGs, and to work on IE6. Example: <a id="thelink" href="blah.html"><img src="f-u-ie6.png" /></a> Since DD's script sets the visibility of the original image to "hidden", you can't effectively hover over it. A lot of people, I have noticed, are thwarted by this limitation. Enough so that Drew mentioned he would try to get a work-around into the next version of his PNG fix. Well, in the meantime, I thought I could get around this by handling the hover event on the image's parent instead. So onmouseover, I would hide the VML object created by DD_belatedPNG while setting a background image on "thelink", and onmouseout, show the VML object again and set the background image to nothing. The following code was just to see if I could access the VML object, but it does not work on the VML. It hides all manner of other children, but not the VML. Any ideas? $(document).ready(function(){ $("thelink").hover(function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:hidden" }); }, function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:visible" }); }); }); Alternatively, can anyone suggest a great PNG image-swap method? I know that you can swap a background image of a link. But you still need to have something inside the A tag. That's not my case. Also, you could put a transparent GIF in the A tag and have the background image swapped to achieve the effect, but I really don't want to do that. Thanks for your insights!

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  • How to access webbrowser object on this code? C++

    - by extintor
    I found this example http://www.mvps.org/user32/webhost.cab that host an Internet Explorer WebBrowser object, and it uses this code to access the object void webhostwnd::CreateEmbeddedWebControl(void) { OleCreate(CLSID_WebBrowser,IID_IOleObject,OLERENDER_DRAW,0,&site,&storage,(void**)&mpWebObject); mpWebObject->SetHostNames(L"Web Host",L"Web View"); // I have no idea why this is necessary. remark it out and everything works perfectly. OleSetContainedObject(mpWebObject,TRUE); RECT rect; GetClientRect(hwnd,&rect); mpWebObject->DoVerb(OLEIVERB_SHOW,NULL,&site,-1,hwnd,&rect); IWebBrowser2* iBrowser; mpWebObject->QueryInterface(IID_IWebBrowser2,(void**)&iBrowser); VARIANT vURL; vURL.vt = VT_BSTR; vURL.bstrVal = SysAllocString(L"http://google.com"); VARIANT ve1, ve2, ve3, ve4; ve1.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve2.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve3.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve4.vt = VT_EMPTY; iBrowser->put_Left(0); iBrowser->put_Top(0); iBrowser->put_Width(rect.right); iBrowser->put_Height(rect.bottom); iBrowser->Navigate2(&vURL, &ve1, &ve2, &ve3, &ve4); VariantClear(&vURL); iBrowser->Release(); } I don't have much experience with cpp, I want to know how to access that same ie object (to use Navigate2 for example) from a button or something like that. How could I achieve this?

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  • Does unboxing just return a pointer to the value within the boxed object on the heap?

    - by Charles
    I this MSDN Magazine article, the author states (emphasis mine): Note that boxing always creates a new object and copies the unboxed value's bits to the object. On the other hand, unboxing simply returns a pointer to the data within a boxed object: no memory copy occurs. However, it is commonly the case that your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway. I'm confused by the sentence I've bolded and the sentence that follows it. From everything else I've read, including this MSDN page, I've never before heard that unboxing just returns a pointer to the value on the heap. I was under the impression that unboxing would result in you having a variable containing a copy of the value on the stack, just as you began with. After all, if my variable contains "a pointer to the value on the heap", then I haven't got a value type, I've got a pointer. Can someone explain what this means? Was the author on crack? (There is at least one other glaring error in the article). And if this is true, what are the cases where "your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway"? I just noticed that the article is nearly 10 years old, so maybe this is something that changed very early on in the life of .Net.

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  • What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

    - by Knut Arne Vedaa
    Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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  • Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

    - by Jason Novak
    Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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  • How do I get flashvars in Firefox using object embed tag only to work?

    - by Liam
    I am trying to generate an <object> tag only embed code and cannot get Firefox to pass Flash along the FlashVars values. This seems to work everyplace else that I've tried it but fails in Firefox. Here is a sample of the embed that I'm using: <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=10,0,0,0" width="550" height="400" id="Main" align="middle"> <param name="movie" value="Main.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="menu" value="false" /> <param name="FlashVars" value="foo=1" /> </object> Please note that the Flash experience does show up in Firefox but when I do traces and actually run the application this fails to read the values. This has had me scratching my head for a day and I'm pretty stumped. If anyone has any guidance on this it would relly be appreciated.

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  • How do you set a variable to be an empty, but workable Jquery object?

    - by KallDrexx
    Outside of a for I declare a variable using var list;. I use this variable inside of my for loop like so: // add the html to the list if (list == undefined) list = item; else list.append(item.contents()); item is a cloned jquery object build from a $('list_template').clone(); call (list_template is a div with <li> elements inside). What I am doing is creating a list, which I will then appendTo() where I need it. Right now this code works fine, but it doesn't seem right to me. Unfortunatly, I cannot seem to figure out how to correctly declare the list variable to be an empty Jquery object. I have tried both: var list = $([]); var list = $(''); Both of those cause the append to not work correctly (or as expected) with list.html() being null. Is there a way to initialize my variable to an empty jquery object, so all I have to do is list.append(item.contents()); without the if/else statements?

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