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• When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

  - by Ani

  I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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• ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

  - by Colin

  I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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• Dependency injection in constructors

  - by andre

  Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

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• Is is possible to determine a password input string as plaintext or hashed?

  - by Godders

  I have a RESTful API containing a URI of /UserService/Register. /UserService/Register takes an XML request such as: <UserRegistrationRequest> <Password>password</Password> <Profile> <User> <UserName>username</UserName> </User> </Profile> </UserRegistrationRequest> I have the following questions given the above scenario: Is there a way (using C# and .Net 3.5+) of enforcing/validating that clients calling Register are passing a hashed password rather than plaintext? Is leaving the choice of hashing algorithm to be used to the client a good idea? We could provide a second URI of /UserService/ComputePasswordHash which the client would call before calling /UserService/Register. This has the benefit of ensuring that each password is hashed using the same algorithm. Is there a mechanism within REST to ensure that a client has called one URI before calling another? Hope I've explained myself ok. Many thanks in advance for any help.

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• PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

  - by sunwukung

  I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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• Python : How to close a UDP socket while is waiting for data in recv ?

  - by alexroat

  Hello, let's consider this code in python: import socket import threading import sys import select class UDPServer: def __init__(self): self.s=None self.t=None def start(self,port=8888): if not self.s: self.s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) self.s.bind(("",port)) self.t=threading.Thread(target=self.run) self.t.start() def stop(self): if self.s: self.s.close() self.t.join() self.t=None def run(self): while True: try: #receive data data,addr=self.s.recvfrom(1024) self.onPacket(addr,data) except: break self.s=None def onPacket(self,addr,data): print addr,data us=UDPServer() while True: sys.stdout.write("UDP server> ") cmd=sys.stdin.readline() if cmd=="start\n": print "starting server..." us.start(8888) print "done" elif cmd=="stop\n": print "stopping server..." us.stop() print "done" elif cmd=="quit\n": print "Quitting ..." us.stop() break; print "bye bye" It runs an interactive shell with which I can start and stop an UDP server. The server is implemented through a class which launches a thread in which there's a infinite loop of recv/*onPacket* callback inside a try/except block which should detect the error and the exits from the loop. What I expect is that when I type "stop" on the shell the socket is closed and an exception is raised by the recvfrom function because of the invalidation of the file descriptor. Instead, it seems that recvfrom still to block the thread waiting for data even after the close call. Why this strange behavior ? I've always used this patter to implements an UDP server in C++ and JAVA and it always worked. I've tried also with a "select" passing a list with the socket to the xread argument, in order to get an event of file descriptor disruption from select instead that from recvfrom, but select seems to be "insensible" to the close too. I need to have a unique code which maintain the same behavior on Linux and Windows with python 2.5 - 2.6. Thanks.

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• rails 4 -- working with js format from ajax

  - by user101289

  I'm still working on learning Rails, and I have a page with team information that will get updated based on a team's icon click, which fires an ajax call to the controller to populate some tabs. I've read some good info about how to use format.js in the controller to render a partial from a js.coffee or js.erb file. The problem I'm running into is in the coffeescript I think. Right now, I'm getting some data called @schedules from the controller, and passing it to a schedule.js.coffee file that should populate a partial for each record returned and attach it to a table. // schedule.js.coffee $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> ($ '#schedule_data').append("<%= j render(partial: 'schedules/schedule', locals: { s: schedule }) %>") This throws an error `> undefined local variable or method `schedule' for #<#<Class:0x007fe535cd2900>:0x007fe535d32a30>` I tried simplifying the coffeescript to just log the output: $.each @schedules, (schedule) -> console.log(schedule) but this prints nothing. Am I missing something? I am very inexperienced with coffeescript, but it seems like I should be getting some data-- I verified that the schedule items do exist for this team item.

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• Dynamically how to make a larger link into a smaller one?

  - by lovesang prince

  Currently i am passing one dynamically generated parameter to the facebook to post on the wall. $dynamicparamer="[160,2,4,3,[[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0]]]";strong text My post is working fine with some small parameter say( $dynamicparamer="[160,2,4,3,[[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0,1,0]) BUT for larger parameter(as shown above), Facebook is not alloiwng to post (Error: link too long)

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• Tab bar application with UINavigation Controller MOC not being retained.

  - by iamsmug

  I created a tab bar application from the template and added a navigation controller to one of the tabs. I have already created this app from the navigation app template already and is working. The reason I am doing it this way is because I need to add a tab bar and thought it would be easier starting by using the tab bar project template and adding the nav controller to it rather than the other way round. I have copied the data model over from the other project and added the relevant code to where it should be. The problem I am having is passing the moc from the app delegate to the tab with the nav controller on. Here is a snippet from my applicationDidFinishLaunching method in my app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; Top_BananaTableViewController *top_BananaTableViewController = (Top_BananaTableViewController *)[navigationController topViewController]; top_BananaTableViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the tab bar controller's current view as a subview of the window [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Everything seems fine here but when it comes to the fetchedResultsController on my nav controller view it bombs out with: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'cards'' When I checked what was set to my managedObjectContext on that view it was null. I don't know why or where it is loosing it's setting. Please help.

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• Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

  - by Luc Touraille

  I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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• Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

  - by Chris Lomont

  I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

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• What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

  - by slk

  I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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• Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

  - by theringostarrs

  Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

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• How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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• jQuery - Creating a dynamic content loader using $.get()

  - by Kenny Bones

  Hello everybody! (hello dr.Nick) :) So I posted a question yesterday about a content loader plugin for jQuery I thought I'd use, but didn't get it to work. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2469291/jquery-could-use-a-little-help-with-a-content-loader Although it works now, I see some disadvantages to it. It requires heaploads of files where the content is in. Since the code essentially picks up the url in the href link and searches that file for a div called #content What I would really like to do is to collect all of these files into a single file and give each div/container it's unique ID and just pick up the content from those. So i won't need so many separate files laying around. Nick Craver thought I should use $.get()instead since it's got a descent callback. But I'm not that strong in js at all.. And I don't even know what this means. I'm basically used to Visual Basic and passing of arguments, storing in txt files etc. Which is really not suitable for this purpose. So what's the "normal" way of doing things like this? I'm pretty sure I'm not the only one who's thought of this right? I basically want to get content from a single php file that contains alot of divs with unique IDs. And without much hassle, fade out the existing content in my main page, pick up the contents from the other file and fade it into my main page.

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• Resources and techniques/methods for SCJP preparation ?

  - by BenoitParis

  I am passing the SCJP 6 exam in a month. I have the "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065" book. It seems great for the exam. But I want your advice on this. Getting the closest possible to 100% would be great. I have found a site that answered some of the questions you ask yourself when you go trough the book. Here is it : http://www.janeg.ca/java2.html As you can see it was written for Java 2 :/ I have written another specific question here on StackOverflow about the usefulness of JVM specification and Java compiler code for the SCJP. Will Update the results here. Here it is. Please share the resources you used in preparing the exam. Please also specify any resources that you think might help. Any type of resource is welcome: books, code, specs, sites, wikies, papers, online tests, grandmas... Please also share on any method/technique that helped you prepare the exam. Please also comment on the return you got from the resource and the method (for the learning process and for points in the exam) I'll begin: Book : "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065". Seems like the official book for the preparation. Technique : Writing code in a text editor and compiling it with javac to test a question. NO IDEs! It helps you get a a straight answer to a question you have. It helps you pay attention to every word in the code (and this is very important in the SCJP) EDIT: Added dimension: Are there good, up-to-date online tests?

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• JApplet behaving unexpectedly

  - by JohnW

  import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Image; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JApplet; import javax.swing.Timer; public class CountingSheep extends JApplet { private Image sheepImage; private Image backgroundImage; private GameBoard gameBoard; private scoreBoard scoreBoard; public void init() { loadImages(); gameBoard = new GameBoard(sheepImage, backgroundImage); scoreBoard = new scoreBoard(); getContentPane().add(gameBoard); getContentPane().add(scoreBoard); } public void loadImages() { sheepImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "sheep.png"); backgroundImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "bg.jpg"); } } Update guys: Alright, first of all, thank you very much for all the help you've given so far (specifically creemam and Hovercraft Full of Eels), and your persistence. You've helped me out a lot as this is incredibly important (i.e. me passing my degree). The problem now is: The program works correctly when nothing but the GameBoard class is added to the JApplet, however, when I try to add the ScoreBoard class, both Panel classes do not show on the Applet. I'm guessing this is now down to positioning? Any ideas? EDIT: Gone back to the previously asked question Hovercraft, and found it was due to the layout of the contentPane and the order at with the components were added. Thanks to all of you so much. People like you make the development community a bit of alright.

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• Why Does My Vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> Mysteriously Get Cleared?

  - by Eric

  Hello everyone, I am making a program that reads and stores data from Windows EventLog files (.evt) in C++. I am using the calls OpenBackupEventLog(ServerName, FileName) and ReadEventLog(...). Also using this: PEVENTLOGRECORD Anyway, without supplying all of the code, here is the basic idea: 1. I get a handle to the .evt file using OpenBackupEventLog() and passing in a file name. 2. I then use ReadEventLog() to fill up a buffer with an unknown number of EventLog messages. 3. I traverse through the buffer and add each message to a vector 4. I keep filling up buffers (repeat steps 2 and 3) until I reach the end of the file. Here is my code for filling the vector: vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> allRecords; while(_status == ERROR_SUCCESS) { if(!ReadEventLog(...)) CheckStatus(); else FillVectorFromBuffer(allRecords) } // Function FillVectorFromBuffer FillVectorFromBuffer(vector(PEVENTLOGRECORD) &allRecords) { int bytesExamined = 0; PBYTE pRecord = (PBYTE)_lpBuffer; // This is one of the params in ReadEventLog() while(bytesExamined < _pnBytesRead) // Another param from ReadEventLog { PEVENTLOGRECORD currentRecord = (PEVENTLOGRECORD)(pRecord); allRecords.push_back(currentRecord); pRecord += currentRecord->Length; bytesExamined += currentRecord->Length; } } Anyway, whenever I run this, it will get all the EventLogs in the file, and the vector will have everything I want it to. But as soon as this line: if(!ReadEventLog()) gets called and returns true (aka ReadEventLog() returns false), then every field in my vector gets set to zero. The vector will still contain the correct number of elements, it's just that all of the fields in the PEVENTLOGRECORD struct are now zero. Anyone with better debugging experience have any ideas? Thanks.

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• How do I pass an NSString through 3 ViewControllers?

  - by dBloc

  hey, I'm currently using the iPhone SDK and I'm having trouble passing an NSString through 3 views I am able to pass an NSString between 2 view controllers but I am unable to pass it through another one. My code is as follows... `- (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)index`Path { NSString *string1 = nil; NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"items"]; string1 = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. ViewController2 *vc2 = [[ViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; vc2.string1 = string1; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; [vc2 release]; vc2 = nil; } in the "ViewController 2" implementations I am able use "string1" in the title bar by doing the following.... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = string1; UIBarButtonItem *addButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_time.png"] style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain //style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(goToThirdView)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButton; } but I also have a NavBar Button on the right side that I would like to push a new view - (void)goToThirdView { ViewController3 *vc3 = [[ViewController3 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController3" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NESW animated:YES]; vc3.string1 = string1 ; [vc3 release]; vc3 = nil; } How do I pass on that same string to the third view? (or fourth)

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• XPath: limit scope of result set

  - by Laramie

  Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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• Is MarshalByRefObject special?

  - by Vilx-

  .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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• Web Reference Code generator template.

  - by Bluephlame

  I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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• Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

  - by worlds-apart89

  I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

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• Method having an abstract class as a parameter

  - by Ferhat

  I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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• Communication between lexer and parser

  - by FredOverflow

  Every time I write a simple lexer and parser, I stumble upon the same question: how should the lexer and the parser communicate? I see four different approaches: The lexer eagerly converts the entire input string into a vector of tokens. Once this is done, the vector is fed to the parser which converts it into a tree. This is by far the simplest solution to implement, but since all tokens are stored in memory, it wastes a lot of space. Each time the lexer finds a token, it invokes a function on the parser, passing the current token. In my experience, this only works if the parser can naturally be implemented as a state machine like LALR parsers. By contrast, I don't think it would work at all for recursive descent parsers. Each time the parser needs a token, it asks the lexer for the next one. This is very easy to implement in C# due to the yield keyword, but quite hard in C++ which doesn't have it. The lexer and parser communicate through an asynchronous queue. This is commonly known under the title "producer/consumer", and it should simplify the communication between the lexer and the parser a lot. Does it also outperform the other solutions on multicores? Or is lexing too trivial? Is my analysis sound? Are there other approaches I haven't thought of? What is used in real-world compilers? It would be really cool if compiler writers like Eric Lippert could shed some light on this issue.

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