Search Results

Search found 7418 results on 297 pages for 'argument passing'.

Page 231/297 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

  • Dynamically how to make a larger link into a smaller one?

    - by lovesang prince
    Currently i am passing one dynamically generated parameter to the facebook to post on the wall. $dynamicparamer="[160,2,4,3,[[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[1,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0],[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0]]]";strong text My post is working fine with some small parameter say( $dynamicparamer="[160,2,4,3,[[0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,1,0,1,0]) BUT for larger parameter(as shown above), Facebook is not alloiwng to post (Error: link too long)

    Read the article

  • Is the size of a struct required to be an exact multiple of the alignment of that struct?

    - by Steve314
    Once again, I'm questioning a longstanding belief. Until today, I believed that the alignment of the following struct would normally be 4 and the size would normally be 5... struct example { int m_Assume_32_Bits; char m_Assume_8_Bit_Bytes; }; Because of this assumption, I have data structure code that uses offsetof to determine the distance in bytes between two adjacent items in an array. Today, I spotted some old code that was using sizeof where it shouldn't, couldn't understand why I hadn't had bugs from it, coded up a unit test - and the test surprised me by passing. A bit of investigation showed that the sizeof the type I used for the test (similar to the struct above) was an exact multiple of the alignment - ie 8 bytes. It had padding after the final member. Here is an example of why I never expected this... struct example2 { example m_Example; char m_Why_Cant_This_Be_At_Offset_6_Bytes; }; A bit of Googling showed examples that make it clear that this padding after the final member is allowed - for example http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_structure_alignment#Data_structure_padding (the "or at the end of the structure" bit). This is a bit embarrassing, as I recently posted this comment - Use of struct padding (my first comment to that answer). What I can't seem to determine is whether this padding to an exact multiple of the alignment is guaranteed by the C++ standard, or whether it is just something that is permitted and that some (but maybe not all) compilers do. So - is the size of a struct required to be an exact multiple of the alignment of that struct according to the C++ standard? If the C standard makes different guarantees, I'm interested in that too, but the focus is on C++.

    Read the article

  • Testing approach for multi-threaded software

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a piece of mature geospatial software that has recently had areas rewritten to take better advantage of the multiple processors available in modern PCs. Specifically, display, GUI, spatial searching, and main processing have all been hived off to seperate threads. The software has a pretty sizeable GUI automation suite for functional regression, and another smaller one for performance regression. While all automated tests are passing, I'm not convinced that they provide nearly enough coverage in terms of finding bugs relating race conditions, deadlocks, and other nasties associated with multi-threading. What techniques would you use to see if such bugs exist? What techniques would you advocate for rooting them out, assuming there are some in there to root out? What I'm doing so far is running the GUI functional automation on the app running under a debugger, such that I can break out of deadlocks and catch crashes, and plan to make a bounds checker build and repeat the tests against that version. I've also carried out a static analysis of the source via PC-Lint with the hope of locating potential dead locks, but not had any worthwhile results. The application is C++, MFC, mulitple document/view, with a number of threads per doc. The locking mechanism I'm using is based on an object that includes a pointer to a CMutex, which is locked in the ctor and freed in the dtor. I use local variables of this object to lock various bits of code as required, and my mutex has a time out that fires my a warning if the timeout is reached. I avoid locking where possible, using resource copies where possible instead. What other tests would you carry out?

    Read the article

  • Terminal-based snake game: input thread manipulates output

    - by enlightened
    I'm writing a snake game for the terminal, i.e. output via print. The following works just fine: while status[snake_monad] do print to_string draw canvas, compose_all([ frame, specs, snake_to_hash(snake[snake_monad]) ]) turn! snake_monad, get_dir move! snake_monad, specs sleep 0.25 end But I don't want the turn!ing to block, of course. So I put it into a new Thread and let it loop: Thread.new do loop do turn! snake_monad, get_dir end end while status[snake_monad] do ... # no turn! here ... end Which also works logically (the snake is turning), but the output is somehow interspersed with newlines. As soon as I kill the input thread (^C) it looks normal again. So why and how does the thread have any effect on my output? And how do I work around this issue? (I don't know much about threads, even less about them in ruby. Input and output concurrently on the same terminal make the matter worse, I guess...) Also (not really important): Wanting my program as pure as possible, would it be somewhat easily possible to get the input non-blockingly while passing everything around? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • A generic error occurred in GDI+, JPEG Image to MemoryStream

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, This seems to be a bit of an infamous error all over the web. So much so that I have been unable to find an answer to my problem as my scenario doesn't fit. An exception gets thrown when I save the image to the stream. Weirdly this works perfectly with a png but gives the above error with jpg and gif which is rather confusing. Most similar problem out there relate to saving images to files without permissions. Ironically the solution is to use a memory stream as I am doing.... public static byte[] ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { ImageFormat format; switch (imageToConvert.MimeType()) { case "image/png": format = ImageFormat.Png; break; case "image/gif": format = ImageFormat.Gif; break; default: format = ImageFormat.Jpeg; break; } imageToConvert.Save(ms, format); return ms.ToArray(); } } More detail to the exception. The reason this causes so many issues is the lack of explanation :( System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException was unhandled by user code Message="A generic error occurred in GDI+." Source="System.Drawing" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderParameters encoderParams) at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageFormat format) at Caldoo.Infrastructure.PhotoEditor.ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Coordinator\PhotoEditor.cs:line 139 at Caldoo.Web.Controllers.PictureController.Croppable() in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Web\Controllers\PictureController.cs:line 132 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__7() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: OK things I have tried so far. Cloning the image and working on that. Retrieving the encoder for that MIME passing that with jpeg quality setting. Please can anyone help.

    Read the article

  • Decompress a GZipped response from the server (Socket)

    - by Lith
    Umm, ok, after sending some data to the server, noting this particular part: "Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate\r\n" I am getting the following response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: nginx Date: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.8 Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma: no-cache Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding 7aa ??U-?Rh?%?2?w??PM]??7?qZ?K?)???2?&??m???"q??/p9w?????x?[`tA!G???G?5z??????a>k????????Q ???N?? ('??f?,(??Y:5B???-?)?3x^0e:j?`,???**???F>G)?2????@???b??????A?k???Ar?n? But how do I decompress it? Note that I am using the Socket Class to do all the work. I know how to decompress it, but the problem here lies in the fact that I cannot separate the Packet from the GZipped data, psuedo-psuedocode (or whatever) on how I do it: Socket sends packet; Socket reads response from server, stores into a ByteArray; Create MemoryStream, use ByteArray; Create GZipStream, use Memorystream; now the problem occurs; I am getting the following Error: System.IO.InvalidDataException The magic number in GZip header is not correct. Make sure you are passing in a GZip stream. I hope the explanation is clear enough __.

    Read the article

  • How to keep confirmation messages after POST while doing a post-submit redirect?

    - by MicE
    Hello, I'm looking for advise on how to share certain bits of data (i.e. post-submit confirmation messages) between individual requests in a web application. Let me explain: Current approach: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, user is shown a confirmation with links to: submit a new resource (for "add" form) view the submitted/edited resource view all resources (one step above in hierarchy) user then has to click on one of the three links to proceed (i.e. to the page "above") Progmatically, the form and its confirmation page are one set of classes. The page above that is another. They can technically share code, but at the moment they are both independent during processing of individual requests. We would like to amend the above as follows: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, the user is redirected to the page with all resources (one step above in hierarchy) with one or more confirmation messages displayed at the top of the page (i.e. success message, to whom was the request assigned, etc) This will: save users one click (they have to go through a lot of these add/edit forms) the post-submit redirect will address common problems with browser refresh / back-buttons What approach would you recommend for sharing data needed for the confirmation messages between the two requests, please? I'm not sure if it helps, it's a PHP application backed by a RESTful API, but I think that this is a language-agnostic question. A few simple solutions that come to mind are to share the data via cookies or in the session, this however breaks statelessness and would pose a significant problem for users who work in several tabs (the data could clash together). Passing the data as GET parameters is not suitable as we are talking about several messages which are dynamic (e.g. changing actors, dates). Thanks, M.

    Read the article

  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

    Read the article

  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

    Read the article

  • How safe and reliable are C++ String Literals?

    - by DoctorT
    So, I'm wanting to get a better grasp on how string literals in C++ work. I'm mostly concerned with situations where you're assigning the address of a string literal to a pointer, and passing it around. For example: char* advice = "Don't stick your hands in the toaster."; Now lets say I just pass this string around by copying pointers for the duration of the program. Sure, it's probably not a good idea, but I'm curious what would actually be going on behind the scenes. For another example, let's say we make a function that returns a string literal: char* foo() { // function does does stuff return "Yikes!"; // somebody's feeble attempt at an error message } Now lets say this function is called very often, and the string literal is only used about half the time it's called: // situation #1: it's just randomly called without heed to the return value foo(); // situation #2: the returned string is kept and used for who knows how long char* retVal = foo(); In the first situation, what's actually happening? Is the string just created but not used, and never deallocated? In the second situation, is the string going to be maintained as long as the user finds need for it? What happens when it isn't needed anymore... will that memory be freed up then (assuming nothing points to that space anymore)? Don't get me wrong, I'm not planning on using string literals like this. I'm planning on using a container to keep my strings in check (probably std::string). I'm mostly just wanting to know if these situations could cause problems either for memory management or corrupted data.

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

    Read the article

  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Is is possible to determine a password input string as plaintext or hashed?

    - by Godders
    I have a RESTful API containing a URI of /UserService/Register. /UserService/Register takes an XML request such as: <UserRegistrationRequest> <Password>password</Password> <Profile> <User> <UserName>username</UserName> </User> </Profile> </UserRegistrationRequest> I have the following questions given the above scenario: Is there a way (using C# and .Net 3.5+) of enforcing/validating that clients calling Register are passing a hashed password rather than plaintext? Is leaving the choice of hashing algorithm to be used to the client a good idea? We could provide a second URI of /UserService/ComputePasswordHash which the client would call before calling /UserService/Register. This has the benefit of ensuring that each password is hashed using the same algorithm. Is there a mechanism within REST to ensure that a client has called one URI before calling another? Hope I've explained myself ok. Many thanks in advance for any help.

    Read the article

  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

    Read the article

  • static variable lose its value

    - by user542719
    I have helper class with this static variable that is used for passing data between two classes. public class Helper{ public static String paramDriveMod;//this is the static variable in first calss } this variable is used in following second class mathod public void USB_HandleMessage(char []USB_RXBuffer){ int type=USB_RXBuffer[2]; MESSAGES ms=MESSAGES.values()[type]; switch(ms) { case READ_PARAMETER_VALUE: // read parameter values switch(prm){ case PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE: // paramet drive mode Helper.paramDriveMod =(Integer.toString(((USB_RXBuffer[4]<< 8)&0xff00))); System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+"drive mode is selectd ");//here it shows the value that I need. ..........}}//let say end switch and method and the following is an third class method use the above class method public void buttonSwitch(int value) throws InterruptedException{ boolean bool=true; int c=0; int delay=(int) Math.random(); while(bool){ int param=3; PARAMETERS prm=PARAMETERS.values()[param]; switch(value){ case 0: value=1; while(c<5){ Thread.sleep(delay); protocol.onSending(3,prm.PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE.ordinal(),dataToRead,dataToRead.length);//read drive mode System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+" drive mode is ..........in wile loop");//here it shows null value }}//let say end switch and method what is the reason that this variable lose its value?

    Read the article

  • DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

    Read the article

  • Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

    - by DRapp
    I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Java Socket Returns True

    - by ikurtz
    I hope you can help. Im fairly new to progamming and Im playing around with java Sockets. The problem is the code below. for some reason commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); is returning true even when it has not connected with the server (server not implemented yet!). Any ideas regarding this situation? For hostName Im passing my local machine IP and for port a manually selected port. public void networkConnect(String hostName, int portNumber){ try { networkConnected = false; netMessage = "Attempting Connection"; NetworkMessage networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); // this returns true!! System.out.println(commSocket.isConnected()); networkConnected = true; netMessage = "Connected: "; System.out.println("hellooo"); } catch (UnknownHostException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } Many thanks. EDIT: new Socket(.., ..); is blocking isnt it? i thought in that case if that was processed without exceptions then we have a true connection?

    Read the article

  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

    Read the article

  • Return 0 where django quersyet is none

    - by gramware
    I have a django queryset in my views whose values I pack before passing to my template. There is a problem when the queryset returns none since associated values are not unpacked. the quersyet is called comments. Here is my views.py def forums(request ): post_list = list(forum.objects.filter(child='0')&forum.objects.filter(deleted='0').order_by('postDate')) user = UserProfile.objects.get(pk=request.session['_auth_user_id']) newpostform = PostForm(request.POST) deletepostform = PostDeleteForm(request.POST) DelPostFormSet = modelformset_factory(forum, exclude=('child','postSubject','postBody','postPoster','postDate','childParentId')) readform = ReadForumForm(request.POST) comments =list( forum.objects.filter(deleted='0').filter(child='1').order_by('childParentId').values('childParentId').annotate(y=Count('childParentId'))) if request.user.is_staff== True : staff = 1 else: staff = 0 staffis = 1 if newpostform.is_valid(): topic = request.POST['postSubject'] poster = request.POST['postPoster'] newpostform.save() return HttpResponseRedirect('/forums') else: newpostform = PostForm(initial = {'postPoster':user.id}) if request.GET: form = SearchForm(request.GET) if form.is_valid(): query = form.cleaned_data['query'] post_list = list((forum.objects.filter(child='0')&forum.objects.filter(deleted='0')&forum.objects.filter(Q(postSubject__icontains=query)|Q(postBody__icontains=query)|Q(postDate__icontains=query)))or(forum.objects.filter(deleted='0')&forum.objects.filter(Q(postSubject__icontains=query)|Q(postBody__icontains=query)|Q(postDate__icontains=query)).values('childParentId'))) if request.method == 'POST': delpostformset = DelPostFormSet(request.POST) if delpostformset.is_valid(): delpostformset.save() return HttpResponseRedirect('/forums') else: delpostformset = DelPostFormSet(queryset=forum.objects.filter(child='0', deleted='0')) """if readform.is_valid(): user=get_object_or_404(UserProfile.objects.all()) readform.save() else: readform = ReadForumForm()""" post= zip( post_list,comments, delpostformset.forms) paginator = Paginator(post, 10) # Show 10 contacts per page # Make sure page request is an int. If not, deliver first page. try: page = int(request.GET.get('page', '1')) except ValueError: page = 1 # If page request (9999) is out of range, deliver last page of results. try: post = paginator.page(page) except (EmptyPage, InvalidPage): post = paginator.page(paginator.num_pages) return render_to_response('forum.html', {'post':post, 'newpostform': newpostform,'delpost':delpostformset, 'username':user.username, 'comments':comments, 'user':user, },context_instance = RequestContext( request ))

    Read the article

  • Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

    - by Major Major
    The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

    Read the article

  • C when to allocate and free memory - before function call, after function call...etc

    - by Keith P
    I am working with my first straight C project, and it has been a while since I worked on C++ for that matter. So the whole memory management is a bit fuzzy. I have a function that I created that will validate some input. In the simple sample below, it just ignores spaces: int validate_input(const char *input_line, char* out_value){ int ret_val = 0; /*false*/ int length = strlen(input_line); cout << "length = " << length << "\n"; out_value =(char*) malloc(sizeof(char) * length + 1); if (0 != length){ int number_found = 0; for (int x = 0; x < length; x++){ if (input_line[x] != ' '){ /*ignore space*/ /*get the character*/ out_value[number_found] = input_line[x]; number_found++; /*increment counter*/ } } out_value[number_found + 1] = '\0'; ret_val = 1; } return ret_val; } Instead of allocating memory inside the function for out_value, should I do it before I call the function and always expect the caller to allocate memory before passing into the function? As a rule of thumb, should any memory allocated inside of a function be always freed before the function returns?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >