Search Results

Search found 7418 results on 297 pages for 'argument passing'.

Page 231/297 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

• Updating section in ConfigParser (or an alternative)

  - by lyrae

  I am making a plugin for another program and so I am trying to make thing as lightweight as possible. What i need to do is be able to update the name of a section in the ConfigParser's config file. [project name] author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 I then have text fields where user can edit project's name, author, email and year. I don't think changing [project name] is possible, so I have thought of two solutions: 1 -Have my config file like this: [0] projectname: foobar author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 that way i can change project's name just like another option. But the problem is, i would need the section # to be auto incremented. And to do this i would have to get every section, sort of, and figure out what the next number should be. The other option would be to delete the entire section and its value, and re-add it with the updated values which would require a little more work as well, such as passing a variable that holds the old section name through functions, etc, but i wouldn't mind if it's faster. Which of the two is best? or is there another way? I am willing to go with the fastest/lightweight solution possible, doesn't matter if it requires more work or not.

  Read the article

• asp.net vb user control raising an event on the calling page

  - by jvcoach23

  i'm trying to learn about user controls. I created a user control that has a textbox and a button. What i'd like to be able to do is when i click the button in the user control, populate a label in the aspx page. I understand that i could just have a button on the page that uses some properties on the user control to get that information.. but i'd like to know how to do it with the button the user control.. the reason for this is the button is just an example.. a learning tool. if i can get this working, i'd likely be putting thing in the user control that might require this kind of passing information. Anyway.. i've found some c# examples that i tried to get working as vb.. but once started getting into the delegates and events.. well.. it made me turn to this post. anyway.. hopefully someone can lend a hand.

  Read the article

• Permission issue when webservice deployed as virtual directory.Works in VS IDE

  - by Shyju

  I have an ASP.NET web service which will create a text file in a path which is being passed as a parameter to the method. private void CreateFile(string path) { string strFileName = path; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFileName, true); sw.WriteLine(""); sw.Write("Created at " + DateTime.Now.ToString()); sw.Close(); } Now I am passing a folder in the network as the parameter and calling the method CreateFile(@"\\192.168.0.40\\labels\\test.txt"); When running the code from the Visual studio IDE,the file is getting created in the path.But when i published this and deployed as a virtual directoty,Its throwing me some error like "System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\192.168.0.40\labels\test.txt' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.StreamWriter.CreateFile(String path, Boolean append) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append, Encoding encoding, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append) I have in my web.config.My machine is running in XP and the other is in Windows Server 2003 Any idea to solve this ?? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

  - by 4herpsand7derpsago

  Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• MSBUILD batch targets

  - by Darthg8r

  I want to deploy an application to a list of servers. I have all of the build issues taken care of, but I'm having trouble publishing to a list of servers. I want to read the list of servers from an external file and call a target passing the name of each server in. <ItemGroup> <File Include="$(SolutionFolder)CP\Build\DenormDevServers.txt" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="DeployToServer" Inputs="Servers" Outputs="Nothing"> <Message Text="Deployment to server done here. Deploying to server: @(Servers)" /> </Target> <Target Name="Test"> <ReadLinesFromFile File="@(File)"> <Output TaskParameter="Lines" ItemName="Servers" /> </ReadLinesFromFile> <CallTarget Targets="DeployToServer" ContinueOnError="true"></CallTarget> </Target> I can't seem to get it to "Deploy" to each server in the list. The output looks like this: Deployment to server done here. Deploying to server: Notice there is no server name, nor is done more than once. There are 2 lines in DenormDevServers.txt

  Read the article

• C when to allocate and free memory - before function call, after function call...etc

  - by Keith P

  I am working with my first straight C project, and it has been a while since I worked on C++ for that matter. So the whole memory management is a bit fuzzy. I have a function that I created that will validate some input. In the simple sample below, it just ignores spaces: int validate_input(const char *input_line, char* out_value){ int ret_val = 0; /*false*/ int length = strlen(input_line); cout << "length = " << length << "\n"; out_value =(char*) malloc(sizeof(char) * length + 1); if (0 != length){ int number_found = 0; for (int x = 0; x < length; x++){ if (input_line[x] != ' '){ /*ignore space*/ /*get the character*/ out_value[number_found] = input_line[x]; number_found++; /*increment counter*/ } } out_value[number_found + 1] = '\0'; ret_val = 1; } return ret_val; } Instead of allocating memory inside the function for out_value, should I do it before I call the function and always expect the caller to allocate memory before passing into the function? As a rule of thumb, should any memory allocated inside of a function be always freed before the function returns?

  Read the article

• Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

  - by fireeyedboy

  For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

  Read the article

• PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

  - by sunwukung

  I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

  Read the article

• problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

  - by callie16

  Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

  Read the article

• Tab bar application with UINavigation Controller MOC not being retained.

  - by iamsmug

  I created a tab bar application from the template and added a navigation controller to one of the tabs. I have already created this app from the navigation app template already and is working. The reason I am doing it this way is because I need to add a tab bar and thought it would be easier starting by using the tab bar project template and adding the nav controller to it rather than the other way round. I have copied the data model over from the other project and added the relevant code to where it should be. The problem I am having is passing the moc from the app delegate to the tab with the nav controller on. Here is a snippet from my applicationDidFinishLaunching method in my app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; Top_BananaTableViewController *top_BananaTableViewController = (Top_BananaTableViewController *)[navigationController topViewController]; top_BananaTableViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the tab bar controller's current view as a subview of the window [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Everything seems fine here but when it comes to the fetchedResultsController on my nav controller view it bombs out with: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'cards'' When I checked what was set to my managedObjectContext on that view it was null. I don't know why or where it is loosing it's setting. Please help.

  Read the article

• Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

  - by user79339

  Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

  Read the article

• Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

  - by JM4

  I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

  - by Chris Boyle

  I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

  Read the article

• Testing approach for multi-threaded software

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a piece of mature geospatial software that has recently had areas rewritten to take better advantage of the multiple processors available in modern PCs. Specifically, display, GUI, spatial searching, and main processing have all been hived off to seperate threads. The software has a pretty sizeable GUI automation suite for functional regression, and another smaller one for performance regression. While all automated tests are passing, I'm not convinced that they provide nearly enough coverage in terms of finding bugs relating race conditions, deadlocks, and other nasties associated with multi-threading. What techniques would you use to see if such bugs exist? What techniques would you advocate for rooting them out, assuming there are some in there to root out? What I'm doing so far is running the GUI functional automation on the app running under a debugger, such that I can break out of deadlocks and catch crashes, and plan to make a bounds checker build and repeat the tests against that version. I've also carried out a static analysis of the source via PC-Lint with the hope of locating potential dead locks, but not had any worthwhile results. The application is C++, MFC, mulitple document/view, with a number of threads per doc. The locking mechanism I'm using is based on an object that includes a pointer to a CMutex, which is locked in the ctor and freed in the dtor. I use local variables of this object to lock various bits of code as required, and my mutex has a time out that fires my a warning if the timeout is reached. I avoid locking where possible, using resource copies where possible instead. What other tests would you carry out?

  Read the article

• Dependency injection in constructors

  - by andre

  Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

  Read the article

• How can i iterate through QListWidget items and work with each item?

  - by Hossein

  In CSharp its as simple as writting : listBox1.Items.Add("Hello"); listBox1.Items.Add("There"); foreach (string item in listBox1.Items ) { MessageBox.Show(item.ToString()); } and i can easily add different objects to a list box and then retrieve them using foreach. I tried the same approach in Qt 4.8.2 but it seems they are different.though they look very similar at first.I found that Qt supports foreach so i went on and tried something like : foreach(QListWidgetItem& item,ui->listWidget->items()) { item.setTextColor(QColor::blue()); } which failed clearly.It says the items() needs a parameter which confuses me.I am trying to iterate through the ListBox itself, so what does this mean? I tried passing the ListBox object as the parameter itself this again failed too: foreach(QListWidgetItem& item,ui->listWidget->items(ui->listWidget)) { item.setTextColor(QColor::blue()); } So here are my questions: How can I iterate through a QListWidget items in Qt? Can i store objects as items in QListWidgets like C#? How can i convert an object in QListWidgets to string(C#s ToString counter part in Qt) ? (suppose i want to use a QMessagBox instead of that setTextColor and want to print out all string items in the QlistWidget.)

  Read the article

• What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

  - by kpowz

  I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

  Read the article

• jQuery - Creating a dynamic content loader using $.get()

  - by Kenny Bones

  Hello everybody! (hello dr.Nick) :) So I posted a question yesterday about a content loader plugin for jQuery I thought I'd use, but didn't get it to work. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2469291/jquery-could-use-a-little-help-with-a-content-loader Although it works now, I see some disadvantages to it. It requires heaploads of files where the content is in. Since the code essentially picks up the url in the href link and searches that file for a div called #content What I would really like to do is to collect all of these files into a single file and give each div/container it's unique ID and just pick up the content from those. So i won't need so many separate files laying around. Nick Craver thought I should use $.get()instead since it's got a descent callback. But I'm not that strong in js at all.. And I don't even know what this means. I'm basically used to Visual Basic and passing of arguments, storing in txt files etc. Which is really not suitable for this purpose. So what's the "normal" way of doing things like this? I'm pretty sure I'm not the only one who's thought of this right? I basically want to get content from a single php file that contains alot of divs with unique IDs. And without much hassle, fade out the existing content in my main page, pick up the contents from the other file and fade it into my main page.

  Read the article

• Concatenating a string and byte array in to unmanaged memory.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  This is a followup to my last question. I now have a byte[] of values for my bitmap image. Eventually I will be passing a string to the print spooler of the format String.Format("GW{0},{1},{2},{3},", X, Y, stride, _Bitmap.Height) + my binary data; I am using the SendBytesToPrinter command from here. Here is my code so far to send it to the printer public static bool SendStringPlusByteBlockToPrinter(string szPrinterName, string szString, byte[] bytes) { IntPtr pBytes; Int32 dwCount; // How many characters are in the string? dwCount = szString.Length; // Assume that the printer is expecting ANSI text, and then convert // the string to ANSI text. pBytes = Marshal.StringToCoTaskMemAnsi(szString); pBytes = Marshal.ReAllocCoTaskMem(pBytes, szString.Length + bytes.Length); Marshal.Copy(bytes,0, SOMTHING GOES HERE,bytes.Length); // this is the problem line // Send the converted ANSI string + the concatenated bytes to the printer. SendBytesToPrinter(szPrinterName, pBytes, dwCount); Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pBytes); return true; } My issue is I do not know how to make my data appended on to the end of the string. Any help would be greatly appreciated, and if I am doing this totally wrong I am fine in going a entirely different way (for example somehow getting the binary data concatenated on to the string before the move to unmanaged space. P.S. As a second question, will ReAllocCoTaskMem move the data that is sitting in it before the call to the new location?

  Read the article

• Why Does My Vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> Mysteriously Get Cleared?

  - by Eric

  Hello everyone, I am making a program that reads and stores data from Windows EventLog files (.evt) in C++. I am using the calls OpenBackupEventLog(ServerName, FileName) and ReadEventLog(...). Also using this: PEVENTLOGRECORD Anyway, without supplying all of the code, here is the basic idea: 1. I get a handle to the .evt file using OpenBackupEventLog() and passing in a file name. 2. I then use ReadEventLog() to fill up a buffer with an unknown number of EventLog messages. 3. I traverse through the buffer and add each message to a vector 4. I keep filling up buffers (repeat steps 2 and 3) until I reach the end of the file. Here is my code for filling the vector: vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> allRecords; while(_status == ERROR_SUCCESS) { if(!ReadEventLog(...)) CheckStatus(); else FillVectorFromBuffer(allRecords) } // Function FillVectorFromBuffer FillVectorFromBuffer(vector(PEVENTLOGRECORD) &allRecords) { int bytesExamined = 0; PBYTE pRecord = (PBYTE)_lpBuffer; // This is one of the params in ReadEventLog() while(bytesExamined < _pnBytesRead) // Another param from ReadEventLog { PEVENTLOGRECORD currentRecord = (PEVENTLOGRECORD)(pRecord); allRecords.push_back(currentRecord); pRecord += currentRecord->Length; bytesExamined += currentRecord->Length; } } Anyway, whenever I run this, it will get all the EventLogs in the file, and the vector will have everything I want it to. But as soon as this line: if(!ReadEventLog()) gets called and returns true (aka ReadEventLog() returns false), then every field in my vector gets set to zero. The vector will still contain the correct number of elements, it's just that all of the fields in the PEVENTLOGRECORD struct are now zero. Anyone with better debugging experience have any ideas? Thanks.

  Read the article

• SugarmCRM REST API always returns "null"

  - by TuomasR

  I'm trying to test out the SugarCRM REST API, running latest version of CE (6.0.1). It seems that whenever I do a query, the API returns "null", nothing else. If I omit the parameters, then the API returns the API description (which the documentation says it should). I'm trying to perform a login, passing as parameter the method (login), input_type and response_type (json) and rest_data (JSON encoded parameters). The following code does the query: $api_target = "http://example.com/sugarcrm/service/v2/rest.php"; $parameters = json_encode(array( "user_auth" => array( "user_name" => "admin", "password" => md5("adminpassword"), ), "application_name" => "Test", "name_value_list" => array(), )); $postData = http_build_query(array( "method" => "login", "input_type" => "json", "response_type" => "json", "rest_data" => $parameters )); echo $parameters . "\n"; echo $postData . "\n"; echo file_get_contents($api_target, false, stream_context_create(array( "http" => array( "method" => "POST", "header" => "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n", "content" => $postData ) ))) . "\n"; I've tried different variations of parameters and using username instead of user_name, and all provide the same result, just a response "null" and that's it.

  Read the article

• Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

  - by Jesse

  So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• asp file system object

  - by sushant

  i am using this code to access files and folders. <%@ Language=VBScript %<% option explicit dim sRoot, sDir, sParent, objFSO, objFolder, objFile, objSubFolder, sSize % <% sRoot = "D:Raghu" sDir = Request("Dir") sDir = sDir & "\" Response.Write "" & sDir & "" & vbCRLF Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") on error resume next Set objFolder = objFSO.GetFolder(sRoot & sDir) if err.number < 0 then Response.Write "Could not open folder" Response.End end if on error goto 0 sParent = objFSO.GetParentFolderName(objFolder.Path) ' Remove the contents of sRoot from the front. This gives us the parent ' path relative to the root folder ' eg. if parent folder is "c:webfilessubfolder1subfolder2" then we just want "subfolder1subfolder2" sParent = mid(sParent, len(sRoot) + 1) Response.Write "" ' Give a link to the parent folder. This is just a link to this page only pssing in ' the new folder as a parameter Response.Write "Parent folder" & vbCRLF ' Now we want to loop through the subfolders in this folder For Each objSubFolder In objFolder.SubFolders ' And provide a link to them Response.Write "" & objSubFolder.Name & "" & vbCRLF Next ' Now we want to loop through the files in this folder For Each objFile In objFolder.Files if Clng(objFile.Size) < 1024 then sSize = objFile.Size & " bytes" else sSize = Clng(objFile.Size / 1024) & " KB" end if ' And provide a link to view them. This is a link to show.asp passing in the directory and the file ' as parameters Response.Write "" & objFile.Name & "" & sSize & "" & objFile.Type & "" & vbCRLF Next Response.Write "" % it works fine. but when i try to access something on shred path like: "\cvrdd0110:share" it gives error. how to access these files?

  Read the article

• Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

  - by theringostarrs

  Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

  Read the article

• Are SQL Reporting Services Report Parameters deprecated in VS.NET 2010?

  - by Jason Kealey

  We use an Reporting Services inside an ASP.NET web application. (We have an *.rdlc which is presented to the ReportViewer web control in our page). Our ASPX page wires up a few report parameters in code: var parameters = new List<ReportParameter>(); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("StoreAddress", InvoiceStoreAddress)); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("LogoURL", InvoiceLogoURL)); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("StoreName", InvoiceStoreName)); ReportViewer1.LocalReport.SetParameters(parameters); These are just general parameters that are passed to the report, instead of hooking it up to a data source. Recently, we upgraded to VS.NET 2010. We upgraded the *.rdlc to the newest version and also upgraded the ReportViewer control used by ASP.NET. Everything works as it did before. However, I now want to add a new report parameter to my *.rdlc. I typically right-clicked on the top left corner and clicked on "Report Parameters" to add it. With the new VS.NET, I cannot find this option anywhere - it is not even in the report properties. Where did it go? Are the deprecating this feature? How should I be passing some general parameters now?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >