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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • C when to allocate and free memory - before function call, after function call...etc

    - by Keith P
    I am working with my first straight C project, and it has been a while since I worked on C++ for that matter. So the whole memory management is a bit fuzzy. I have a function that I created that will validate some input. In the simple sample below, it just ignores spaces: int validate_input(const char *input_line, char* out_value){ int ret_val = 0; /*false*/ int length = strlen(input_line); cout << "length = " << length << "\n"; out_value =(char*) malloc(sizeof(char) * length + 1); if (0 != length){ int number_found = 0; for (int x = 0; x < length; x++){ if (input_line[x] != ' '){ /*ignore space*/ /*get the character*/ out_value[number_found] = input_line[x]; number_found++; /*increment counter*/ } } out_value[number_found + 1] = '\0'; ret_val = 1; } return ret_val; } Instead of allocating memory inside the function for out_value, should I do it before I call the function and always expect the caller to allocate memory before passing into the function? As a rule of thumb, should any memory allocated inside of a function be always freed before the function returns?

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • Unable to pass variables from one view to another

    - by jerincbus
    I have a detail view that includes three UIButtons, each of which pushes a different view on to the stack. One of the buttons is connected to a MKMapView. When that button is pushed I need to send the latitude and longitude variables from the detail view to the map view. I'm trying to add the string declaration in the IBAction: - (IBAction)goToMapView { MapViewController *mapController = [[MapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MapViewController" bundle:nil]; mapController.address = self.address; mapController.Title = self.Title; mapController.lat = self.lat; mapController.lng = self.lng; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:mapController animated:YES]; [mapController release]; mapController = nil; } But I get this when I try to build: 'error: incompatible types in assignment' for both lat and lng variables. So my questions are am I going about passing the variables from one view to another the right way? And does the MKMapView accept latitude and longitude as a string or a number?

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  • Permission issue when webservice deployed as virtual directory.Works in VS IDE

    - by Shyju
    I have an ASP.NET web service which will create a text file in a path which is being passed as a parameter to the method. private void CreateFile(string path) { string strFileName = path; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFileName, true); sw.WriteLine(""); sw.Write("Created at " + DateTime.Now.ToString()); sw.Close(); } Now I am passing a folder in the network as the parameter and calling the method CreateFile(@"\\192.168.0.40\\labels\\test.txt"); When running the code from the Visual studio IDE,the file is getting created in the path.But when i published this and deployed as a virtual directoty,Its throwing me some error like "System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\192.168.0.40\labels\test.txt' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.StreamWriter.CreateFile(String path, Boolean append) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append, Encoding encoding, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append) I have in my web.config.My machine is running in XP and the other is in Windows Server 2003 Any idea to solve this ?? Thanks in advance

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  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

    - by fireeyedboy
    For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • Concatenating a string and byte array in to unmanaged memory.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    This is a followup to my last question. I now have a byte[] of values for my bitmap image. Eventually I will be passing a string to the print spooler of the format String.Format("GW{0},{1},{2},{3},", X, Y, stride, _Bitmap.Height) + my binary data; I am using the SendBytesToPrinter command from here. Here is my code so far to send it to the printer public static bool SendStringPlusByteBlockToPrinter(string szPrinterName, string szString, byte[] bytes) { IntPtr pBytes; Int32 dwCount; // How many characters are in the string? dwCount = szString.Length; // Assume that the printer is expecting ANSI text, and then convert // the string to ANSI text. pBytes = Marshal.StringToCoTaskMemAnsi(szString); pBytes = Marshal.ReAllocCoTaskMem(pBytes, szString.Length + bytes.Length); Marshal.Copy(bytes,0, SOMTHING GOES HERE,bytes.Length); // this is the problem line // Send the converted ANSI string + the concatenated bytes to the printer. SendBytesToPrinter(szPrinterName, pBytes, dwCount); Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pBytes); return true; } My issue is I do not know how to make my data appended on to the end of the string. Any help would be greatly appreciated, and if I am doing this totally wrong I am fine in going a entirely different way (for example somehow getting the binary data concatenated on to the string before the move to unmanaged space. P.S. As a second question, will ReAllocCoTaskMem move the data that is sitting in it before the call to the new location?

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  • How do I compile and build the taf2-curb Ruby gem on Windows XP with MinGW?

    - by Laran Evans
    How do I compile and build the taf2-curb Ruby gem on Windows XP with MinGW? I tried this, but I'm kinda fishing, unsuccessfully. C:\Documents and Settings\Megem install taf2-curb -- --with-curl-include=C:/curl-7.19.5-devel-mingw32/include --with-curl-dir=C:/curl-7.19.5 --with-curl-lib=C:/curl-7.19.5-devel-mingw32/lib --prefix=C:/MinGW --with-curllib Bulk updating Gem source index for: http://gems.rubyforge.org Updating metadata for 73 gems from http://gems.rubyonrails.org ......................................................................... complete Bulk updating Gem source index for: http://gems.github.com Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing taf2-curb: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. C:/Ruby/bin/ruby.exe extconf.rb install taf2-curb -- --with-curl-include=C:/curl-7.19.5-devel-mingw32/include --with-cur l-dir=C:/curl-7.19.5 --with-curl-lib=C:/curl-7.19.5-devel-mingw32/lib --prefix=C:/MinGW --with-curllib checking for curl-config... no checking for main() in true.lib... no *** extconf.rb failed *** Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --without-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=C:/Ruby/bin/ruby --with-curl-dir --with-curl-include=${curl-dir}/include --with-curl-lib=${curl-dir}/lib --with-curllib extconf.rb:9: Can't find libcurl or curl/curl.h (RuntimeError) Try passing --with-curl-dir or --with-curl-lib and --with-curl-include options to extconf. Gem files will remain installed in C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/taf2-curb-0.4.8.0 for inspection. Results logged to C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/taf2-curb-0.4.8.0/ext/gem_make.out C:\Documents and Settings\Me I've installed curl-7.19.5 and curl-7.19.5-devel-mingw from this url: http://curl.haxx.se/download.html Help! And thanks!

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  • Java Socket Returns True

    - by ikurtz
    I hope you can help. Im fairly new to progamming and Im playing around with java Sockets. The problem is the code below. for some reason commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); is returning true even when it has not connected with the server (server not implemented yet!). Any ideas regarding this situation? For hostName Im passing my local machine IP and for port a manually selected port. public void networkConnect(String hostName, int portNumber){ try { networkConnected = false; netMessage = "Attempting Connection"; NetworkMessage networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); // this returns true!! System.out.println(commSocket.isConnected()); networkConnected = true; netMessage = "Connected: "; System.out.println("hellooo"); } catch (UnknownHostException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } Many thanks. EDIT: new Socket(.., ..); is blocking isnt it? i thought in that case if that was processed without exceptions then we have a true connection?

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  • How can i iterate through QListWidget items and work with each item?

    - by Hossein
    In CSharp its as simple as writting : listBox1.Items.Add("Hello"); listBox1.Items.Add("There"); foreach (string item in listBox1.Items ) { MessageBox.Show(item.ToString()); } and i can easily add different objects to a list box and then retrieve them using foreach. I tried the same approach in Qt 4.8.2 but it seems they are different.though they look very similar at first.I found that Qt supports foreach so i went on and tried something like : foreach(QListWidgetItem& item,ui->listWidget->items()) { item.setTextColor(QColor::blue()); } which failed clearly.It says the items() needs a parameter which confuses me.I am trying to iterate through the ListBox itself, so what does this mean? I tried passing the ListBox object as the parameter itself this again failed too: foreach(QListWidgetItem& item,ui->listWidget->items(ui->listWidget)) { item.setTextColor(QColor::blue()); } So here are my questions: How can I iterate through a QListWidget items in Qt? Can i store objects as items in QListWidgets like C#? How can i convert an object in QListWidgets to string(C#s ToString counter part in Qt) ? (suppose i want to use a QMessagBox instead of that setTextColor and want to print out all string items in the QlistWidget.)

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  • How to use two parameters pointing to the same structure in one function ?

    - by ZaZu
    Hey guys, I have my code below that consits of a structure, a main, and a function. The function is supposed to display two parameters that have certain values, both of which point to the same structure. The problem I dont know how to add the SECOND parameter onto the following code : #include<stdio.h> #define first 500 #define sec 500 struct trial{ int f; int r; float what[first][sec]; }; int trialtest(trial *test); main(){ trial test; trialtest(&test); } int trialtest(trial *test){ int z,x,i; for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test).what[z][x]); } return 0; } I need to add a new parameter test_2 there (IN THE SAME FUNCTION) using this code : for(i=0;i<5;i++){ printf("%f,(*test_2).what[z][x]); How does int trialtest(trial *test) changes ? and how does it change in main ? I know that I should declare test_2 as well, like this : trial test,test_2; But what about passing the address in the function ? I do not need to edit it right ? trialtest(&test); --- This will remain the same ? So please, tell me how would I use test_2 as a parameter pointing to the same structure as test, both in the same function.. Thank you !! Please tell me if you need more clarification

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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • Updating section in ConfigParser (or an alternative)

    - by lyrae
    I am making a plugin for another program and so I am trying to make thing as lightweight as possible. What i need to do is be able to update the name of a section in the ConfigParser's config file. [project name] author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 I then have text fields where user can edit project's name, author, email and year. I don't think changing [project name] is possible, so I have thought of two solutions: 1 -Have my config file like this: [0] projectname: foobar author:john doe email: [email protected] year: 2010 that way i can change project's name just like another option. But the problem is, i would need the section # to be auto incremented. And to do this i would have to get every section, sort of, and figure out what the next number should be. The other option would be to delete the entire section and its value, and re-add it with the updated values which would require a little more work as well, such as passing a variable that holds the old section name through functions, etc, but i wouldn't mind if it's faster. Which of the two is best? or is there another way? I am willing to go with the fastest/lightweight solution possible, doesn't matter if it requires more work or not.

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  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

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  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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  • asp file system object

    - by sushant
    i am using this code to access files and folders. <%@ Language=VBScript %<% option explicit dim sRoot, sDir, sParent, objFSO, objFolder, objFile, objSubFolder, sSize % <% sRoot = "D:Raghu" sDir = Request("Dir") sDir = sDir & "\" Response.Write "" & sDir & "" & vbCRLF Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") on error resume next Set objFolder = objFSO.GetFolder(sRoot & sDir) if err.number < 0 then Response.Write "Could not open folder" Response.End end if on error goto 0 sParent = objFSO.GetParentFolderName(objFolder.Path) ' Remove the contents of sRoot from the front. This gives us the parent ' path relative to the root folder ' eg. if parent folder is "c:webfilessubfolder1subfolder2" then we just want "subfolder1subfolder2" sParent = mid(sParent, len(sRoot) + 1) Response.Write "" ' Give a link to the parent folder. This is just a link to this page only pssing in ' the new folder as a parameter Response.Write "Parent folder" & vbCRLF ' Now we want to loop through the subfolders in this folder For Each objSubFolder In objFolder.SubFolders ' And provide a link to them Response.Write "" & objSubFolder.Name & "" & vbCRLF Next ' Now we want to loop through the files in this folder For Each objFile In objFolder.Files if Clng(objFile.Size) < 1024 then sSize = objFile.Size & " bytes" else sSize = Clng(objFile.Size / 1024) & " KB" end if ' And provide a link to view them. This is a link to show.asp passing in the directory and the file ' as parameters Response.Write "" & objFile.Name & "" & sSize & "" & objFile.Type & "" & vbCRLF Next Response.Write "" % it works fine. but when i try to access something on shred path like: "\cvrdd0110:share" it gives error. how to access these files?

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • Is is possible to determine a password input string as plaintext or hashed?

    - by Godders
    I have a RESTful API containing a URI of /UserService/Register. /UserService/Register takes an XML request such as: <UserRegistrationRequest> <Password>password</Password> <Profile> <User> <UserName>username</UserName> </User> </Profile> </UserRegistrationRequest> I have the following questions given the above scenario: Is there a way (using C# and .Net 3.5+) of enforcing/validating that clients calling Register are passing a hashed password rather than plaintext? Is leaving the choice of hashing algorithm to be used to the client a good idea? We could provide a second URI of /UserService/ComputePasswordHash which the client would call before calling /UserService/Register. This has the benefit of ensuring that each password is hashed using the same algorithm. Is there a mechanism within REST to ensure that a client has called one URI before calling another? Hope I've explained myself ok. Many thanks in advance for any help.

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  • http authentication fails in cucumber when adding @javascript tag

    - by JESii
    I have a feature in my Rials app that works just fine with the message "Responds to browser_basic_authorize" from the Background Given step. However, if I add a @javascript tag before the scenario, then my Background Given fails with "I don't know how to login". What's going wrong and how do I go about testing javascrpt interactions on my app? Background: Given I perform HTTP authentication as "<id>/<password>" When I go to the homepage Then I should see "Text-that-you-should-see-on-your-home-page" Scenario: Displaying injury causative factors Given I am on the new_incident_report page When I choose "incident_report_employee_following_procedures_true" Then I should see "Equipment failure?" Then I should not see "Lack of training" When /^I perform HTTP authentication as "([^\"]*)\/([^\"]*)"$/ do |username, password| puts "id/pswd: #{username}/#{password}" ### Following works ONLY if performed first before even going to a page!!! if page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_auth) puts 'Responds to basic_auth' page.driver.basic_auth(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to basic_authorize' page.driver.basic_authorize(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:browser) && page.driver.browser.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to browser_basic_authorize' page.driver.browser.basic_authorize(username, password) else raise "I don't know how to log in!" end end Rails 3.0.9, current gems, other tests passing.

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  • How could I cache images that I'm pulling from a magento database through ajax?

    - by wes
    Here's script being called through ajax: <?php require_once '../app/Mage.php'; umask(0); /* not Mage::run(); */ Mage::app('default'); $cat_id = ($_POST['cat_id']) ? $_POST['cat_id'] : NULL; try { $category = new Mage_Catalog_Model_Category(); $category->load($cat_id); $collection = $category->getProductCollection(); $output = '<ul>'; foreach ($collection as $product) { $cProduct = Mage::getModel('catalog/product'); $cProduct->load($product->getId()); $output .= '<li><img id="'.$product->getId().'" src="' . (string)Mage::helper('catalog/image')->init($cProduct, 'small_image')->resize(75) . '" class="thumb" /></li>'; } $output .= '</ul>'; echo $output; } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } I'm just passing in the Category ID, which I've tacked onto the navigation links, then doing some work to eventually just pass back all product images in that category. I'm using this on a drag and drop build-a-bracelet type of application, and the amount of images returned is sometimes in the 500s. So it get's pretty held up during transmission, sometimes 10 seconds or so. I know I'd do good by caching them some way, just not sure how to go about it. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. -Wes

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