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• How do I stop Chrome from yellowing my site's input boxes?

  - by davebug

  Among other text and visual aids on a form submission, post-validation, I'm coloring my input boxes red to signify the interactive area needing attention. On Chrome (and for Google Toolbar users) the auto-fill feature re-colors my input forms yellow. Here's the complex issue: I want auto-complete allowed on my forms, as it speeds users logging in. I am going to check into the ability to turn the autocomplete attribute to off if/when there's an error triggered, but it is a complex bit of coding to programmatically turn off the auto-complete for the single effected input on a page. This, to put it simply, would be a major headache. So to try to avoid that issue, is there any simpler method of stopping Chrome from re-coloring the input boxes? [edit] I tried the !important suggestion below and it had no effect. I have not yet checked Google Toolbar to see if the !important attribute woudl work for that. As far as I can tell, there isn't any means other than using the autocomplete attribute (which does appear to work).

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• JQuery Delegate and using traveral options in function

  - by Brian

  I am having trouble figuring out how to use the JQuery delegate function to do what I require. Basically, I need to allow users to add Panels (i.e. divs) to a form dynamically by selecting a button. Then when a user clicks a button within a given Panel, I want to be able to to something to that Panel (like change the color in this example). Unfortunately, it seems that references to the JQuery traversing functions don't work in this instance. Can anybody explain how to achieve this effect? Is there anyway to bind a different delegate to the each panel as its added. $('.addPanels').delegate('*', 'click', function() { $(this).parent.css('background-color', 'black'); $('.placeholder').append('Add item'); }); <div class="addPanels"> <div class="panel"> <a href="#" class="addLink">Add item</a> text</div> <div class="placeholder"/> </div> </div>

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• AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

  - by CRice

  It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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• GWT: creating a text widget for highly customized data entry

  - by Caffeine Coma

  I'm trying to implement a kind of "guided typing" widget for data entry, in which the user's text entry is highly controlled and filtered. When the user types a particular character I need to intercept and filter it before displaying it in the widget. Imagine if you will, a Unix shell embedded as a webapp; that's the kind of thing I'm trying to implement. I've tried two approaches. In the first, I extend a TextArea, and add a KeyPressHandler to filter the characters. This works, but the browser-provided spelling correction is totally inappropriate, and I don't see how to turn it off. I've tried: DOM.setElementProperty(textArea.getElement(), "spellcheck", "false"); But that seems to have no effect- I still get the red underlines over "typos". In the second approach I use a FocusWidget to get KeyPress events, and a separate Label or HTML widget to present the filtered characters back to the user. This avoids the spelling correction issue, but since the FocusWidget is not a TextArea, the browser tends to intercept certain typed characters for internal use; e.g. FireFox will use the "/" character to begin a "Quick Find" on the page, and hitting Backspace will load the previous web page. Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to do?

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• what exactly is this.id ?

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, I was doing some dynamic effect on DIV using JQuery when I found that the returned value of this.id varied from function to function. I got two sets of simple parent-child DIV tags like this: <DIV ID="row"> <DIV ID="c1"> <Input type="radio" name="testing" id="testing" VALUE="1">testing1 </DIV> </DIV> <DIV ID="row"> <DIV ID="c2"> <Input type="radio" name="testing" id="testing" VALUE="2">testing2 </DIV> </DIV> Code 1. $('#row DIV').mouseover(function(){ radio_btns.each(function() { $('#row DIV).addClass('testing'); // worked }); }); Code 2. $('#row DIV').mouseover(function(){ var childDivID = this.id; radio_btns.each(function() { $('#'+childDivID).parent('DIV').addClass('testing'); // didn't work }); }); I don't understand why only the first code couldn work and highlighted all the "row" DIV, but the first code failed to do so?

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• declarative_authorization permissions on roles

  - by William

  Hey all, I'm trying to add authorization to a rather large app that already exists, but I have to obfuscate the details a bit. Here's the background: In our app we have a number or roles that are hierarchical, roughly like this: BasicUser -> SuperUser -> Admin -> SuperAdmin For authorization each User model instance has an attribute 'role' which corresponds to the above. We have a RESTful controller "Users" that is namespaced under Backoffice. So in short it's Backoffice::UsersController. class Backoffice::UsersController < ApplicationController filter_access_to :all #... RESTful actions + some others end So here's the problem: We want users to be able to give permissions for users to edit users but ONLY if they have a 'smaller' role than they currently have. I've created the following in authorization_rules.rb authorization do role :basic_user do has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :index end role :super_user do includes :basic_user has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :edit do if_attribute :role => is_in { %w(basic_user) } end end role :admin do includes :super_user end role :super_admin do includes :admin end end And unfortunately that's as far as I got, the rule doesn't seem to get applied. If I comment the rule out, nobody can edit If I leave the rule in you can edit everybody I've also tried a couple of variations on the if_attribute: if_attribute :role => is { 'basic_user' } if_attribute :role => 'basic_user' and they get the same effect. Does anybody have any suggestions?

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• View results of affine transform

  - by stckjp

  I am trying to find out the reason why when I apply affine transformations on an image in OpenCV, the result of it is not visible in the preview window, but the entire window is black.How can I find workaround for this problem so that I can always view my transformed image (the result of the affine transform) in the window no matter the applied transformation? Update: I think that this happens because all the transformations are calculated with respect to the origin of the coordinate system (top left corner of the image). While for rotation I can specify the center of the rotation, and I am able to view the result, when I perform scaling I am not able to control where the transformed image goes. Is it possible to somehow move the coordinate system to make the image fit in the window? Update2: I have an image which contains only ROI at some position in it (the rest of the image is black), and I need to apply a set of affine transforms on it. To make things simpler and to see the effect of each individual transform, I applied each transform one by one. What I noticed is that, whenever I move (translate) the image such that the center of the ROI is in the center of the coordinate system (top left corner of the view window), all the affine transforms perform correctly without moving. However, by translating the center of ROI at the center of the coordinate system, the upper and the left part of the ROI remain cut out of the current view window. If I move ROI's central point to another point in the view window (for example the window center), an affine transform of type: A=[a 0 0; 0 b 0] (A is 2x3 matrix, parameter of the warpAffine function) moves the image (ROI), outside of the view window (which doesn't happen if the ROI's center is in the top-left corner). How can I modify the affine transform so the image doesn't move out of its place (behaves the same way as when the ROI center is in the center of the coordinate system)?

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• Objective-C ref count and autorelease

  - by turbovince

  Hey guys, suppose the following code: int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { //[...] Rectangle* myRect = [[Rectangle alloc] init]; Vector2* newOrigin = [[[Vector2 alloc] init] autorelease]; // ref count 1 [newOrigin setX: 50.0f]; [myRect setOrigin: newOrigin]; // ref count 2 [myRect.origin setXY: 25.0f :100.0f]; // ref count goes to 3... why ? [myRect release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Rectangle's origin is declared as a (retain) synthesized property. Just wondering 2 things: Why does ref count goes to 3 when using the getter accessor of Rectangle's origin? Am I doing something wrong ? With a ref count of 3, I don't understand how this snippet of code cannot leak. Calling release on myRect will make it go down to 2 since I call release on the origin in dealloc(). But then, when does autorelease take effect? Thanks!

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• [LaTeX] positions of page numbers, position of chapter headings, chapters AND Table of Contents, Ref

  - by kaikanmonaco

  I am writing my PhD thesis (120+ pages) in latex, the deadline is approaching and I am struggling with layout problems. I am using the documentstyle book. I am posting both problems in this one thread because I am not sure if the solution might be related to both problems or not. Problems are: 1.) The page numbers are mostly located on the top-right of each page (this is correct and where I want them to be). However, only on the first page of chapters and on the first page of what I call "special chapters", the page number is located bottom-centered. With "special chapters" I mean: List of Contents, List of Figures, List of Tables, References, Index. My university will not accept the thesis like this. The page number must ALWAYS be top-right one each page, even if the page is the first page of a chapter or the first page of something like the List of Contents. How can I fix this? 2.) On the first page of chapters and "special chapters" (List of Contents...), the chapter title is located far too low on the page. This is the standard layout of LaTeX with documentstyle book I think. However, the chapter title must start at the very top of the page! I.e. the same height as the normal text on the pages that follow. I mean the chapter title, not the header. I.e., if there is a chapter called "Chapter 1 Dynamics of foobar under mechanical stress" then that text has to start from the top the page, but right now it starts several centimeters below the top. How can I fix this? Have tried all kinds of things to no effect, I'd be very thankful for a solution! Thanks.

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• I can't prevent key presses from changing a selected option in Firefox

  - by Anthony

  Using Firefox 3.5.7 The following test page should behave like Opera, Safari and Chrome. Key presses (arrows or 1-5) should have no effect (i.e. The events should be cancelled so that the number never changes from the initial default "3"). [I have separate working code for IE too]. Many thanks to anyone who can make it work? <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type='text/JavaScript'> function stop(evt) {evt.preventDefault(); evt.stopPropagation(); }; </script> </head> <body> <select onkeydown='stop(event);' onkeypress='stop(event);'> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> <option selected="selected">3</option> <option>4</option> <option>5</option> </select> </body> </html>

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• Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

  - by cocotwo

  I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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• Load In and Animate content

  - by crozer

  Hello, I have a little issue concerning an animation-effect which loads a certain div into the body of the site. Let me be more precise: I have a div with the id 'contact': <div id="contact">content</div> The jquery code loads the contents within that div, when I press the link with the id 'ajax_contact': <a href="#" id="ajax_contact">link</a>. The code is working perfectly. However, I want #contact to be HIDDEN when the site loads, i.e. the default state must be non-visible. Only when the user clicks the link #ajax_contact, the div must appear. Please have a look at the jquery code: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#ajax_contact').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #contact'; $('#contact').load(toLoad) } }); $('#ajax_contact').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #contact'; $('#contact').hide('fast',loadContent); $('#load').remove(); $('body').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadContent() { $('#contact').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#contact').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); }); I am not sure whether I must change something inside the HTML, but I believe the key is inside the jquery-code. I also tried giving the #contact a CSS style of visible:none, yet this loops and makes the jquery impossible to load the #contact in. I hope I've explained myself well; thank you very much in advance. Chris

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• javascript :Object doesn't support this property or method

  - by Kaushik

  In my jsp page, I have in the tag, the following code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/static/js/common/common.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Function for Suppressing the JS Error function silentErrorHandler() {return true;} window.onerror=silentErrorHandler; </script> If there is some javascript executing on the jsp page after this, then I guess silentErrorHandler() will have no effect. i.e. the error will still show on page. IS this correct? Because the error is showing and am not sure why. The second part of the question is this: The error is Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; AskTbFXTV5/5.9.1.14019) Timestamp: Fri, 7 Jan 2011 21:26:23 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 613 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:9080/Claris/static/js/common/common.js And finally, line 613 states document.captureEvents(Event.MOUSEUP); There is error on IE8. Runs fine on Mozilla and IE7. Any suggestions will be very helpful

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• Java: using generic wildcards with subclassing

  - by gibberish

  Say I have a class Foo, a class A and some subclass B of A. Foo accepts A and its sublclasses as the generic type. A and B both require a Foo instance in their constructor. I want A's Foo to be of type A , and B's Foo to be of type B or a superclass of B. So in effect, So I only want this: Foo<X> bar = new Foo<X>; new B(bar); to be possible if X is either A, B, or a both subclass of A and superclass of B. So far this is what I have: class Foo<? extends A>{ //construct } class A(Foo<A> bar){ //construct } class B(Foo<? super B> bar){ super(bar); //construct } The call to super(...) doesn't work, because <A> is stricter than <? super B>. Is it somehow possible to use the constructor (or avoid code duplication by another means) while enforcing these types? Edit: Foo keeps a collection of elements of the generic parameter type, and these elements and Foo have a bidirectional link. It should therefore not be possible to link an A to a Foo.

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• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

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• Greasemonkey failing to GM_setValue()

  - by HonoredMule

  I have a Greasemonkey script that uses a Javascript object to maintain some stored objects. It covers quite a large volume of information, but substantially less than it successfully stored and retrieved prior to encountering my problem. One value refuses to save, and I can not for the life of me determine why. The following problem code: Works for other larger objects being maintained. Is presently handling a smaller total amount of data than previously worked. Is not colliding with any function or other object definitions. Can (optionally) successfully save the problem storage key as "{}" during code startup. this.save = function(table) { var tables = this.tables; if(table) tables = [table]; for(i in tables) { logger.log(this[tables[i]]); logger.log(JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); GM_setValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user, JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); logger.log(tables[i] + "_" + this.user + " updated"); logger.log(GM_getValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user)); } } The problem is consistently reproducible and the logging statments produce the following output in Firebug: Object { 54,10 = Object } // Expansion shows complete contents as expected, but there is one oddity--Firebug highlights the array keys in purple instead of the usual black for anonymous objects. {"54,10":{"x":54,"y":10,"name":"Lucky Pheasant"}} // The correctly parsed string. bookmarks_HonoredMule saved undefined I have tried altering the format of the object keys, to no effect. Further narrowing down the issue is that this particular value is successfully saved as an empty object ("{}") during code initialization, but skipping that also does not help. Reloading the page confirms that saving of the nonempty object truly failed. Any idea what could cause this behavior? I've thoroughly explored the possibility of hitting size constraints, but it doesn't appear that can be the problem--as previously mentioned, I've already reduced storage usage. Other larger objects save still, and the total number of objects, which was not high already, has further been reduced by an amount greater than the quantity of data I'm attempting to store here.

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• CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

  - by kurisukun

  I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

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• Getting a table cell to become a different color on mouseover

  - by Andrei Korchagin

  Currently, when I create a table, and I mouseover a cell, that entire row is highlighted. I'm trying to make it so that it is only the immediate cell. Here's all the CSS code that pertains to tables in my stylesheet: table{margin:.5em 0 1em;} table td,table th{text-align:center;border-right:1px solid #fff;padding:.4em .8em;} table th{background-color:#5e5e5e;color:#fff;text-transform:uppercase;font-weight:bold;border- bottom:1px solid #e8e1c8;} table td{background-color:#eee;} table th a{color:#d6f325;} table th a:hover{color:#fff;} table tr.even td{background-color:#ddd;} table tr:hover td{background-color:#fff;} table.nostyle td,table.nostyle th,table.nostyle tr.even td,table.nostyle tr:hover td{border:0;background:none;background-color:transparent;} I know it's probably a simple fix but I can't find where to make it work. Everything I try just kills the mouseover effect entirely rather than making it the way I want it. Thanks in advance!

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• How can I debug a session

  - by Organ Grinding Monkey

  I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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• How do you calculate div and mod of floating point numbers?

  - by boost

  In Perl, the % operator seems to assume integers. For instance: sub foo { my $n1 = shift; my $n2 = shift; print "perl's mod=" . $n1 % $n2, "\n"; my $res = $n1 / $n2; my $t = int($res); print "my div=$t", "\n"; $res = $res - $t; $res = $res * $n2; print "my mod=" . $res . "\n\n"; } foo( 3044.952963, 7.1 ); foo( 3044.952963, -7.1 ); foo( -3044.952963, 7.1 ); foo( -3044.952963, -7.1 ); gives perl's mod=6 my div=428 my mod=6.15296300000033 perl's mod=-1 my div=-428 my mod=6.15296300000033 perl's mod=1 my div=-428 my mod=-6.15296300000033 perl's mod=-6 my div=428 my mod=-6.15296300000033 Now as you can see, I've come up with a "solution" already for calculating div and mod. However, what I don't understand is what effect the sign of each argument should have on the result. Wouldn't the div always be positive, being the number of times n2 fits into n1? How's the arithmetic supposed to work in this situation?

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• SQL trigger to delete rows from database

  - by wpearse

  I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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• EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

  - by Martin

  Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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• "Detecting" and loading of "plugins" in GAE

  - by Patrick Cornelissen

  Hi! I have a "plugin like" architecture and I want to create one instance of each class that implements a dedicated interface and put these in a cache. (To have a singleton-ish effect). The plugins will be provided as jars and put into the app engine war file before the app is uploaded. I have tried to use the ClassPathScanningCandidateComponentProvider as I'm using spring anyway, but this didn't work. The provider complained that it was not able to find the HttpServletResponse class file while scanning the classpath. I can't get around this, when I add the servlet jar, then I'll get of course problems, because the same jar is also provided by the GAE. If I don't, I'm getting the error above... So I tried to add a static initialization code, but of course this doesn't work, because the class is initialized when it's instantiated for the first time. (Well I knew that but it was worth a try) The last chance I currently see is that I create a properties file with all plugin classes when the package is created, but this requires writing of a maven plugin etc. and I'd like to avoid that. Is there something that I am missing?

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• TinyMCE loading lang/plugins/theme from incorrect directory

  - by Anonymous

  I am having trouble with TinyMCE. When it is searching for the lang, theme, and plugins, it is supposed to look in the directory where the base script files are located. however, instead of doing that, it is using the current loaded page as the root for searching. I am looking at the "loadScripts" function in the src file, but changing the path doesn't seem to provide any meaningful effect. Here is the unmodified loadScripts function for your review: // Load scripts function loadScripts() { if (s.language) sl.add(tinymce.baseURL + '/langs/' + s.language + '.js'); if (s.theme && s.theme.charAt(0) != '-' && !ThemeManager.urls[s.theme]) ThemeManager.load(s.theme, 'themes/' + s.theme + '/editor_template' + tinymce.suffix + '.js'); each(explode(s.plugins), function(p) { if (p && p.charAt(0) != '-' && !PluginManager.urls[p]) { // Skip safari plugin for other browsers if (!isWebKit && p == 'safari') return; PluginManager.load(p, 'plugins/' + p + '/editor_plugin' + tinymce.suffix + '.js'); } }); // Init when que is loaded sl.loadQueue(function() { if (!t.removed) t.init(); }); }; loadScripts(); }

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• Screenscraping and reverse engineering health based web tool

  - by ArbInv

  Hi There is a publicly available free tool which has been built to help people understand the impact of various risk factors on their health / life expectancy. I am interested in understanding the data that sits behind the tool. To get this out it would require putting in a range of different socio-demographic factors and analyzing the resulting outputs. This would need to be done across many thousand different individual profiles. The tool was probably built on some standard BI platorm. I have no interest in how the tool was built but do want to get to the data within it. The site has a Terms of Use Agreement which includes: Not copying, distribute, adapt, create derivative works of, translate, or otherwise modify the said tool Not decompile, disassemble, reverse assemble, or otherwise reverse engineer the tool. The said institution retains all rights, title and interest in and to the Tool, and any and all modifications thereof, including all copyright, copyright registrations, trade secrets, trademarks, goodwill and confidential and proprietary information related thereto. Would i be in effect breaking the law if i were to point a screen scraping tool which downloaded the data that sits behind the tool in question?? Any advice welcomed? THANKS

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