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  • Objective-C ref count and autorelease

    - by turbovince
    Hey guys, suppose the following code: int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { //[...] Rectangle* myRect = [[Rectangle alloc] init]; Vector2* newOrigin = [[[Vector2 alloc] init] autorelease]; // ref count 1 [newOrigin setX: 50.0f]; [myRect setOrigin: newOrigin]; // ref count 2 [myRect.origin setXY: 25.0f :100.0f]; // ref count goes to 3... why ? [myRect release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Rectangle's origin is declared as a (retain) synthesized property. Just wondering 2 things: Why does ref count goes to 3 when using the getter accessor of Rectangle's origin? Am I doing something wrong ? With a ref count of 3, I don't understand how this snippet of code cannot leak. Calling release on myRect will make it go down to 2 since I call release on the origin in dealloc(). But then, when does autorelease take effect? Thanks!

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  • SQL: How to Return One DB Row from Two That Have The Same Values In Opposite Columns Using the MAX F

    - by OneSource
    Hi, This is what I'm trying to do. I have three columns in a table - ID, Column1, Column2 - with this example data: ID Column1 Column2 1     1            2 2     2            1 3     4            3 4     3            4 Since, in the first two rows, Column1 and Column2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want my MAX query to return an ID of 2. Same thing with rows 3 and 4 .... since Columns 1 and 2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want MAX(ID) to return 4. Of course, with MAX, you use Group By, but that will not work in my case. In effect, I need a Group By to work across two columns. Is this possible? If not, what's the best way to accomplish getting the IDs of 2 and 4 given the matching values that are in different columns? Thanks!

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  • How do I stop Chrome from yellowing my site's input boxes?

    - by davebug
    Among other text and visual aids on a form submission, post-validation, I'm coloring my input boxes red to signify the interactive area needing attention. On Chrome (and for Google Toolbar users) the auto-fill feature re-colors my input forms yellow. Here's the complex issue: I want auto-complete allowed on my forms, as it speeds users logging in. I am going to check into the ability to turn the autocomplete attribute to off if/when there's an error triggered, but it is a complex bit of coding to programmatically turn off the auto-complete for the single effected input on a page. This, to put it simply, would be a major headache. So to try to avoid that issue, is there any simpler method of stopping Chrome from re-coloring the input boxes? [edit] I tried the !important suggestion below and it had no effect. I have not yet checked Google Toolbar to see if the !important attribute woudl work for that. As far as I can tell, there isn't any means other than using the autocomplete attribute (which does appear to work).

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  • Content boundary with rounded corners

    - by Rui Carneiro
    I am using CSS rounded corners for firefox and I have the following problem with content boundaries: Code <html> <head> <style> #outter { width: 200px; margin: auto; text-align: center; border: 1px solid #333; -moz-border-radius: 15px; } #inner { background: red; opacity: 0.5; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="outter"> <div id="inner">text</div> </div> </body> </html> Effect I can avoid this problem by defining -moz-border-radius for each outter's child. There is any other way I am missing?

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  • Terminal-based snake game: input thread manipulates output

    - by enlightened
    I'm writing a snake game for the terminal, i.e. output via print. The following works just fine: while status[snake_monad] do print to_string draw canvas, compose_all([ frame, specs, snake_to_hash(snake[snake_monad]) ]) turn! snake_monad, get_dir move! snake_monad, specs sleep 0.25 end But I don't want the turn!ing to block, of course. So I put it into a new Thread and let it loop: Thread.new do loop do turn! snake_monad, get_dir end end while status[snake_monad] do ... # no turn! here ... end Which also works logically (the snake is turning), but the output is somehow interspersed with newlines. As soon as I kill the input thread (^C) it looks normal again. So why and how does the thread have any effect on my output? And how do I work around this issue? (I don't know much about threads, even less about them in ruby. Input and output concurrently on the same terminal make the matter worse, I guess...) Also (not really important): Wanting my program as pure as possible, would it be somewhat easily possible to get the input non-blockingly while passing everything around? Thank you!

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  • declarative_authorization permissions on roles

    - by William
    Hey all, I'm trying to add authorization to a rather large app that already exists, but I have to obfuscate the details a bit. Here's the background: In our app we have a number or roles that are hierarchical, roughly like this: BasicUser -> SuperUser -> Admin -> SuperAdmin For authorization each User model instance has an attribute 'role' which corresponds to the above. We have a RESTful controller "Users" that is namespaced under Backoffice. So in short it's Backoffice::UsersController. class Backoffice::UsersController < ApplicationController filter_access_to :all #... RESTful actions + some others end So here's the problem: We want users to be able to give permissions for users to edit users but ONLY if they have a 'smaller' role than they currently have. I've created the following in authorization_rules.rb authorization do role :basic_user do has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :index end role :super_user do includes :basic_user has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :edit do if_attribute :role => is_in { %w(basic_user) } end end role :admin do includes :super_user end role :super_admin do includes :admin end end And unfortunately that's as far as I got, the rule doesn't seem to get applied. If I comment the rule out, nobody can edit If I leave the rule in you can edit everybody I've also tried a couple of variations on the if_attribute: if_attribute :role => is { 'basic_user' } if_attribute :role => 'basic_user' and they get the same effect. Does anybody have any suggestions?

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  • I can't prevent key presses from changing a selected option in Firefox

    - by Anthony
    Using Firefox 3.5.7 The following test page should behave like Opera, Safari and Chrome. Key presses (arrows or 1-5) should have no effect (i.e. The events should be cancelled so that the number never changes from the initial default "3"). [I have separate working code for IE too]. Many thanks to anyone who can make it work? <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type='text/JavaScript'> function stop(evt) {evt.preventDefault(); evt.stopPropagation(); }; </script> </head> <body> <select onkeydown='stop(event);' onkeypress='stop(event);'> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> <option selected="selected">3</option> <option>4</option> <option>5</option> </select> </body> </html>

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  • Load In and Animate content

    - by crozer
    Hello, I have a little issue concerning an animation-effect which loads a certain div into the body of the site. Let me be more precise: I have a div with the id 'contact': <div id="contact">content</div> The jquery code loads the contents within that div, when I press the link with the id 'ajax_contact': <a href="#" id="ajax_contact">link</a>. The code is working perfectly. However, I want #contact to be HIDDEN when the site loads, i.e. the default state must be non-visible. Only when the user clicks the link #ajax_contact, the div must appear. Please have a look at the jquery code: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#ajax_contact').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #contact'; $('#contact').load(toLoad) } }); $('#ajax_contact').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #contact'; $('#contact').hide('fast',loadContent); $('#load').remove(); $('body').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadContent() { $('#contact').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#contact').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); }); I am not sure whether I must change something inside the HTML, but I believe the key is inside the jquery-code. I also tried giving the #contact a CSS style of visible:none, yet this loops and makes the jquery impossible to load the #contact in. I hope I've explained myself well; thank you very much in advance. Chris

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  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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  • CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

    - by kurisukun
    I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

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  • Error 2025: The supplied DisplayObject must be a child of the caller

    - by Mocca
    Hi, sorry, new to actionscript 3. I have a display() function for an object rotator(image based like a QT object movie). It first saves the current image in a helper variable and then allocates a new image, from the library, beneath the old one. To get a nice crossfade effect, the old image's alpha is looped down via enter_frame and then removed. Which is where there seems to be an issue with the display list, maybe recognizing oldImg's value as being already added? (it's not a first pass error) Btw, do i have to remove the old image or can i leave it, for when it's being called up via the mouse position again? (the image number can get fairly large) Does anyone have further insight? Thanks! function display(num:Number):void //num: image number { ... oldImg = newImg; ClassReference = getDefinitionByName("Class"+num) as Class; imgBD = new ClassReference(0,0); newImg = new Bitmap(imgBD); images.addChild(newImg); newImg.x=0; newImg.y=0; } function onEnter(evt:Event):void { if (oldImg) { if (oldImg.alpha > 0) oldImg.alpha -= 0.15; **else images.removeChild(oldImg);** } ... }

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  • What's the use of writing tests matching configuration-like code line by line?

    - by Pascal Van Hecke
    Hi, I have been wondering about the usefulness of writing tests that match code one-by-one. Just an example: in Rails, you can define 7 restful routes in one line in routes.rb using: resources :products BDD/TDD proscribes you test first and then write code. In order to test the full effect of this line, devs come up with macros e.g. for shoulda: http://kconrails.com/2010/01/27/route-testing-with-shoulda-in-ruby-on-rails/ class RoutingTest < ActionController::TestCase # simple should_map_resources :products end I'm not trying to pick on the guy that wrote the macros, this is just an example of a pattern that I see all over Rails. I'm just wondering what the use of it is... in the end you're just duplicating code and the only thing you test is that Rails works. You could as well write a tool that transforms your test macros into actual code... When I ask around, people answer me that: "the tests should document your code, so yes it makes sense to write them, even if it's just one line corresponding to one line" What are your thoughts?

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  • Greasemonkey failing to GM_setValue()

    - by HonoredMule
    I have a Greasemonkey script that uses a Javascript object to maintain some stored objects. It covers quite a large volume of information, but substantially less than it successfully stored and retrieved prior to encountering my problem. One value refuses to save, and I can not for the life of me determine why. The following problem code: Works for other larger objects being maintained. Is presently handling a smaller total amount of data than previously worked. Is not colliding with any function or other object definitions. Can (optionally) successfully save the problem storage key as "{}" during code startup. this.save = function(table) { var tables = this.tables; if(table) tables = [table]; for(i in tables) { logger.log(this[tables[i]]); logger.log(JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); GM_setValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user, JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); logger.log(tables[i] + "_" + this.user + " updated"); logger.log(GM_getValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user)); } } The problem is consistently reproducible and the logging statments produce the following output in Firebug: Object { 54,10 = Object } // Expansion shows complete contents as expected, but there is one oddity--Firebug highlights the array keys in purple instead of the usual black for anonymous objects. {"54,10":{"x":54,"y":10,"name":"Lucky Pheasant"}} // The correctly parsed string. bookmarks_HonoredMule saved undefined I have tried altering the format of the object keys, to no effect. Further narrowing down the issue is that this particular value is successfully saved as an empty object ("{}") during code initialization, but skipping that also does not help. Reloading the page confirms that saving of the nonempty object truly failed. Any idea what could cause this behavior? I've thoroughly explored the possibility of hitting size constraints, but it doesn't appear that can be the problem--as previously mentioned, I've already reduced storage usage. Other larger objects save still, and the total number of objects, which was not high already, has further been reduced by an amount greater than the quantity of data I'm attempting to store here.

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  • "Detecting" and loading of "plugins" in GAE

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    Hi! I have a "plugin like" architecture and I want to create one instance of each class that implements a dedicated interface and put these in a cache. (To have a singleton-ish effect). The plugins will be provided as jars and put into the app engine war file before the app is uploaded. I have tried to use the ClassPathScanningCandidateComponentProvider as I'm using spring anyway, but this didn't work. The provider complained that it was not able to find the HttpServletResponse class file while scanning the classpath. I can't get around this, when I add the servlet jar, then I'll get of course problems, because the same jar is also provided by the GAE. If I don't, I'm getting the error above... So I tried to add a static initialization code, but of course this doesn't work, because the class is initialized when it's instantiated for the first time. (Well I knew that but it was worth a try) The last chance I currently see is that I create a properties file with all plugin classes when the package is created, but this requires writing of a maven plugin etc. and I'd like to avoid that. Is there something that I am missing?

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  • Screenscraping and reverse engineering health based web tool

    - by ArbInv
    Hi There is a publicly available free tool which has been built to help people understand the impact of various risk factors on their health / life expectancy. I am interested in understanding the data that sits behind the tool. To get this out it would require putting in a range of different socio-demographic factors and analyzing the resulting outputs. This would need to be done across many thousand different individual profiles. The tool was probably built on some standard BI platorm. I have no interest in how the tool was built but do want to get to the data within it. The site has a Terms of Use Agreement which includes: Not copying, distribute, adapt, create derivative works of, translate, or otherwise modify the said tool Not decompile, disassemble, reverse assemble, or otherwise reverse engineer the tool. The said institution retains all rights, title and interest in and to the Tool, and any and all modifications thereof, including all copyright, copyright registrations, trade secrets, trademarks, goodwill and confidential and proprietary information related thereto. Would i be in effect breaking the law if i were to point a screen scraping tool which downloaded the data that sits behind the tool in question?? Any advice welcomed? THANKS

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  • Java: using generic wildcards with subclassing

    - by gibberish
    Say I have a class Foo, a class A and some subclass B of A. Foo accepts A and its sublclasses as the generic type. A and B both require a Foo instance in their constructor. I want A's Foo to be of type A , and B's Foo to be of type B or a superclass of B. So in effect, So I only want this: Foo<X> bar = new Foo<X>; new B(bar); to be possible if X is either A, B, or a both subclass of A and superclass of B. So far this is what I have: class Foo<? extends A>{ //construct } class A(Foo<A> bar){ //construct } class B(Foo<? super B> bar){ super(bar); //construct } The call to super(...) doesn't work, because <A> is stricter than <? super B>. Is it somehow possible to use the constructor (or avoid code duplication by another means) while enforcing these types? Edit: Foo keeps a collection of elements of the generic parameter type, and these elements and Foo have a bidirectional link. It should therefore not be possible to link an A to a Foo.

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

    - by Martin
    Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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  • Tying in .addClass() with other functions?

    - by Anders H
    Assuming an accordion dropdown with the standard form of: <ul> <li> <a href="#">Main Element</a> <ul> <li> <a href="#">Dropdown Element</a> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> I'm using jQuery to expand when the parent element link is clicked: var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function initMenus() { $j('ul.menu ul').hide(); $j.each($j('ul.menu'), function(){ $j('#' + this.id + '.expandfirst ul:first').show(); }); $j('ul.menu li a').click( function() { var checkElement = $j(this).next(); var parent = this.parentNode.parentNode.id; if($j('#' + parent).hasClass('noaccordion')) { $j(this).next().slideToggle('normal'); return false; } if((checkElement.is('ul')) && (checkElement.is(':visible'))) { if($j('#' + parent).hasClass('collapsible')) { $j('#' + parent + ' ul:visible').slideUp('normal'); } return false; } if((checkElement.is('ul')) && (!checkElement.is(':visible'))) { $j('#' + parent + ' ul:visible').slideUp('normal'); checkElement.slideDown('normal'); return false; } } ); } $j(document).ready(function() {initMenus();}); To add a class to the Main Element when clicked (aka the class is enabled anytime the dropdown is expanded) I'm trying to use .toggleClass(className) without luck, most likely to my positioning. Where can I add this element to get the desired effect?

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • Do you ever make a code change and just test rather than trying to fully understand the change you'v

    - by Clay Nichols
    I'm working in a 12 year old code base which I have been the only developer on. There are times that I'll make a a very small change based on an intuition (or quantum leap in logic ;-). Usually I try to deconstruct that change and make sure I read thoroughly the code. However sometimes, (more and more these days) I just test and make sure it had the effect I wanted. (I'm a pretty thorough tester and would test even if I read the code). This works for me and we have surprisingly (compared to most software I see) few bugs escape into the wild. But what I'm wondering is whether this is just the "art" side of coding. Yes, in an ideal world you would exhaustively read every bit of code that your change modified, but I in practice, if you're confident that it only affects a small section of code, is this a common practice? I can obviously see where this would be a disastrous approach in the hands of a poor programmer. But then, I've seen programmers who ostensibly are reading the code and break stuff left and right (in their own code based which only they have been working on).

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  • jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State

    - by Tim
    I do not want to double post a question; I was trying to post an add-on to my first question that I was looking for additional help. How does one go about this? Here is the original question. jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State Was hoping to see if there is a solution to the glitch I found. The problem I am now looking for help with is all other buttons still have the hover effect, but a button that was once active no longer does. <ul class="buttons"> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 1</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 2</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 3</a></li> </ul> Best way to explain this. If button 2 is clicked – it is now active. Buttons 1 and 3 will still hover. If you click on button 1 – it is now active and button 2 will no longer hover while button 3 will. Eventually when you go through the series of all buttons the animation hover is no longer.

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  • My fade in goes to all opaque for it goes to transparent

    - by DerNalia
    So, I'm trying to fade in a transparent div, kinda like hulu does when you click dim lights... here is what i have: //show the bg new Effect.Appear('darkBackgroundLayer', {duration: 0.3}); then when my pop up is initialized // create the div for background dimming if($('darkBackgroundLayer')){ Element.remove('darkBackgroundLayer') } var transparentBG = document.createElement('div'); transparentBG.className = 'darkenBackground'; transparentBG.id = "darkBackgroundLayer" transparentBG.style.display = "none"; document.body.appendChild(transparentBG); and the CSS for the new div .darkenBackground { background-color: rgb(0, 0, 0); opacity: 0.7; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.70; /* FireFox */ filter: alpha(opacity=70); /* IE */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:repeat; position:fixed; top: 0px; left: 0px; } but, currently, it fades in... all the way to a solid back, then jumps to the .7 opacity... ideas?

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