Search Results

Search found 6772 results on 271 pages for 'rob effect'.

Page 236/271 | < Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >

  • My fade in goes to all opaque for it goes to transparent

    - by DerNalia
    So, I'm trying to fade in a transparent div, kinda like hulu does when you click dim lights... here is what i have: //show the bg new Effect.Appear('darkBackgroundLayer', {duration: 0.3}); then when my pop up is initialized // create the div for background dimming if($('darkBackgroundLayer')){ Element.remove('darkBackgroundLayer') } var transparentBG = document.createElement('div'); transparentBG.className = 'darkenBackground'; transparentBG.id = "darkBackgroundLayer" transparentBG.style.display = "none"; document.body.appendChild(transparentBG); and the CSS for the new div .darkenBackground { background-color: rgb(0, 0, 0); opacity: 0.7; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.70; /* FireFox */ filter: alpha(opacity=70); /* IE */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:repeat; position:fixed; top: 0px; left: 0px; } but, currently, it fades in... all the way to a solid back, then jumps to the .7 opacity... ideas?

    Read the article

  • Getting a table cell to become a different color on mouseover

    - by Andrei Korchagin
    Currently, when I create a table, and I mouseover a cell, that entire row is highlighted. I'm trying to make it so that it is only the immediate cell. Here's all the CSS code that pertains to tables in my stylesheet: table{margin:.5em 0 1em;} table td,table th{text-align:center;border-right:1px solid #fff;padding:.4em .8em;} table th{background-color:#5e5e5e;color:#fff;text-transform:uppercase;font-weight:bold;border- bottom:1px solid #e8e1c8;} table td{background-color:#eee;} table th a{color:#d6f325;} table th a:hover{color:#fff;} table tr.even td{background-color:#ddd;} table tr:hover td{background-color:#fff;} table.nostyle td,table.nostyle th,table.nostyle tr.even td,table.nostyle tr:hover td{border:0;background:none;background-color:transparent;} I know it's probably a simple fix but I can't find where to make it work. Everything I try just kills the mouseover effect entirely rather than making it the way I want it. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • cannot eliminate space between 2 horizontal divs inside containing div

    - by wantTheBest
    Should be easy, right? Just set the outer containing div's padding to zero, and set the two side-by-side divs inside the outer div to have margin:0 but that's having no effect on the space between the 2 horizontal divs. What I need is the red-outlined left div to touch the green-outlined right-side div. Despite my effort using padding and margin, the space between the 2 divs will not go away. I have looked at many answers on SO but so far no one's broken it down to this simple example -- my fiddle shows this issue, at http://jsfiddle.net/Shomer/tLZrm/7/ And here is the very simple code: <div style="border: 4px solid blue; white-space:nowrap; margin:0; padding:0; width:80%"> <div style="display:inline-block; width:45%; overflow:hidden; margin:0; border: 1px solid red"> Flimmy-flammy </div> <div style="display:inline-block; width:50%; overflow:hidden; margin:0px; border: 1px solid green"> Hambone-Sammy </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • JQuery: using .LIVE problems

    - by TeddTedd
    I have the following JQuery code: $("#myDIV li:eq(0)").live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(1)").live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(2)").live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(3)").live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); And realized it's really inefficient. So I tried the following, which I believe is much more effect; however, the code does not work: var tab_node = $("#myDIV li"); tab_node.eq(0).live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); tab_node.eq(1).live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); tab_node.eq(2).live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); tab_node.eq(3).live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); Any idea how I can make my code more efficient while also work? UPDATE: From the answers below, it sounds like these two statements are not equalavent. New Question: Is there any way to run my original code more efficient?

    Read the article

  • problem with converting simple code from Winform to silverlight app.

    - by Sara
    Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

    Read the article

  • Custom Image Button and Radio/Toggle Button from Common Base Class

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, I would like to create a set of custom controls that are basically image buttons (it's a little more complex than that, but that's the underlying effect I'm going for) that I've seen a few different examples for. However, I would like to further extend that to also allow radio/toggle buttons. What I'd like to do is have a common abstract class called ImageButtonBase that has default implementations for ImageSource and Text, etc. That makes a regular ImageButton implementation pretty easy. The issue I am having is creating the RadioButton flavor of it. As I see it, there are at least three options: It would be easy to create something that derives from RadioButton, but then I can't use the abstract class I've created. I could change the abstract class to an interface, but then I lose the abstract implementations, and will in fact have duplication of code. I could derive from my abstract class, and re-implement the RadioButton-type properties and events (IsChecked, GroupName, etc.), but that certainly doesn't seem like a great idea. Note: I have seen http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2362641/how-to-get-a-group-of-toggle-buttons-to-act-like-radio-buttons-in-wpf, but what I want to do is a little more complex. I'm just wondering if anybody has an example of an implementation, or something that might be adapted to this kind of scenario. I can see pros and cons of each of the ideas above, but each comes with potential pitfalls. Thanks, wTs

    Read the article

  • Localisable Resources: how can (should one?!) wrap a UI layer source as a BL layer service?

    - by Ciel
    A service that returns localised strings could be wrapped in a service, so that it could be used both locally (eg in an MVC app) and remotely (eg possibly Silverlight). But...if sticking with the standard practice of creating resources in the UI assembly, that would in effect make a lower layer (BL/Services) have to have a ref on a higher layer (UI)...a definite no-no. And whereas a lot of AppWide resources (eg: AppName, OK, Cancel, etc.) could be defined in a Common cross-cutting assembly, and the BL/ResourceSerouce could ref and wrap those, that doesn't work in a a Modular App, where the Core app should have no binding to/knowledge of any Module. One solution could be to have each module, once mounted in mem, 'register' their Resource files with the service, who would then return it to the service (rather a long round trip, but at least consistent as a service, and potentially resources/images could be shared with other resources). Secondly, that may work in a web app...but not sure how that pattern could be extended to a Silverlight modular app (the round tripping becomes prohibitive). ie...what are best practices for allowing Resources to be to be defined by the UI designer, in a higher level, but served from the lower BL layer, as a Service? Or is there a better way of understanding/solving the problem?

    Read the article

  • jquery : ul, li parent multiple child sub-child toggling

    - by user360826
    hello, my main question is as follows: how to show only the first subchild of a ul or li upon clicking the enclosing parent. eg: <ul> Grandparent <li> Child1 <li> Grandchild11</li></li> <li> Child2 <li>GrandChild21</li><li>grandchild22</li></li> </ul> so, for example I would like something to the effect of <script> $('ul').click(function(){ $('ul').children('first li').toggle() }); $('li').click(function(){ $('li').children('first li').toggle() }); </script> meaning: when i click ul, i only see the first child node (child1 and child2 will be shown, but not the grandchildren). when i click child1 or child2 i see the respective grandchild. grandchild is not shown upon clicking grandparent, only upon clicking child1 or child2. i know i am reinventing the wheel of some pre-coded solution, but any help would be largely appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Does running IIS7 in classic mode affect MVC output caching?

    - by Bob
    I have a need to run an application in classic mode for backwards compatibility with a specific application, and am trying to understand what kind of impact that will have on the performance of an MVC application that is running on the site. If we put a few static file maps (for .js, .css, .png, etc) above the ASP.NET wildcard map to reduce the amount of processing by the ASP.NET handler, will we be approaching the integrated mode in terms of performance? The thing i'm primarily concerned with is any effect this might have on output caching. I understand that integrated mode might (?) allow for the output cache to handle non ASP.NET content, but that isn't really a concern. We're more interested in ensuring that the MVC application has full use of the output cache. Empirically i've found that the two configurations operate on par when things go well, but if the page references resources that are not available, the integrated mode tends to fail much more quickly than the classic mode (e.g. 500 ms vs 10 seconds), reducing 'hang time' on the page load. Thanks for any feedback.

    Read the article

  • How do you calculate div and mod of floating point numbers?

    - by boost
    In Perl, the % operator seems to assume integers. For instance: sub foo { my $n1 = shift; my $n2 = shift; print "perl's mod=" . $n1 % $n2, "\n"; my $res = $n1 / $n2; my $t = int($res); print "my div=$t", "\n"; $res = $res - $t; $res = $res * $n2; print "my mod=" . $res . "\n\n"; } foo( 3044.952963, 7.1 ); foo( 3044.952963, -7.1 ); foo( -3044.952963, 7.1 ); foo( -3044.952963, -7.1 ); gives perl's mod=6 my div=428 my mod=6.15296300000033 perl's mod=-1 my div=-428 my mod=6.15296300000033 perl's mod=1 my div=-428 my mod=-6.15296300000033 perl's mod=-6 my div=428 my mod=-6.15296300000033 Now as you can see, I've come up with a "solution" already for calculating div and mod. However, what I don't understand is what effect the sign of each argument should have on the result. Wouldn't the div always be positive, being the number of times n2 fits into n1? How's the arithmetic supposed to work in this situation?

    Read the article

  • Populate two column grid with databinding?

    - by Richard
    How do i populate a two column grid with objects from my observable collection? I've tried to achieve this effect by using the tookits wrap panel but the items just stack. <toolkit:WrapPanel Margin="5,0,0,0" Width="400"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Trips}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Height="236" Width="182"> <Button Style="{StaticResource VasttrafikButtonTrip}"> <StackPanel Width="152" Height="140"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding FromName}" /> <TextBlock FontFamily="Segoe WP Semibold" Text="till" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ToName}" /> </StackPanel> </Button> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="160" FontSize="16" FontWeight="ExtraBlack" Text="{Binding TravelTimeText}" /> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="160" Margin="0,-6,0,0" FontSize="16" Text="{Binding TransferCountText}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </toolkit:WrapPanel>

    Read the article

  • Which way to store this data is effective?

    - by Tattat
    I am writing a game, which need a map, and I want to store the map. The first thing I can think of, is using a 2D-array. But the problem is what data should I store in the 2D-array. The player can tap different place to have different reaction. So, I am thinking store a 2D-array with objects, when player click some position, and I find it in the array, and use the object in that array to execute a cmd. But I have a concern that storing lots of object may use lots of memory. So, I am think storing char/int only. But it seems that not enough for me. I want to store the data like that: { Type:1 Color:Green } No matter what color is, if they are all type 1, the have same reactions in logic, but the visual effect is based on the color. So, it is not easy to store using a prue char/int data, unless I make something like this: 1-5 --> all type 1. 1=color green , 2=color red, 3 = color yellow.... ... 6-10 --> all type 2. 2 = color green, 2 = color red ... ... So, do you have any ideas on how to minimize the ram use, but also easy for me to read... ...thx

    Read the article

  • validation before ajax form submission

    - by ZX12R
    How do i introduce validation before remote_form_for submits? I have javascript function called validateForm(). I am able to call it before the AJAX request process. I tried to use return false and event.preventDefault. But there seems to be no effect. Here is what my code looks like <% remote_form_for :customer, :update =>"uxScreenLoaderDiv", :url => {:action => "login", :controller => "site"}, :html => {:id => "uxLoginForm"}, :onsubmit => "validateForm(event)" do |f| %> User name : <%= f.text_field "uxUserName", :class => "TextBox", :style => "width:100px;" %>&nbsp;* &nbsp;Password : <%= f.password_field "uxPassword", :class => "TextBox", :style => "width:100px;" %>&nbsp;* <%= f.submit "Go!", :class => "Button-Simple", :id => "uxSubmitButton" %> <% end %> the javascript function is simple as follows function validateForm(event){ return false; //event.preventDefault(); }

    Read the article

  • Flex 4 hideEffect transition bug

    - by xerious87
    I'm trying to create a slide effect. Everything works fine except when the hideEffect animation is shown for the first time. The content does not become invisible when crossing the TabNavigator's border, which looks really ugly in my current project. The following simple example demonstrates the problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600" backgroundColor="0xDDDDDD"> <fx:Declarations> <s:Move id="hideEffect" xTo="700" /> </fx:Declarations> <mx:TabNavigator width="500" height="300" x="100" y="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="ONE" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="TWO" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="THREE" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="FOUR" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> </s:Application> Screenshot: hideEffectBug Any ideas how to fix this bug?

    Read the article

  • How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

    - by Milan Babuškov
    I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

    Read the article

  • jQuery animation loop not working

    - by Marko Ivanovski
    Hi, I'm trying to create a looping animation that starts on onmousedown and stops on onmouseout. The effect is a simple scroll that will continue looping until you release the mouse. I've created a function which performs the .animate method and it passes itself as a callback but the code only runs once. Here's the entire code: $(document).ready(function() { var $scroller = $("#scroller"); var $content = $("#content", $scroller); // lineHeight equal to 1 line of text var lineHeight = $content.css('line-height'); //Amount to scroll = 3 lines of text a time var amountToScroll = lineHeight.replace("px","")*3; var maxScroll = $content.height() - $scroller.height(); function scrollDown() { var topCoord = $content.css("top").replace("px",""); if(topCoord > -maxScroll) { if((-maxScroll-topCoord) > -amountToScroll) { $content.stop().animate({ top: -maxScroll }, 1000 ); } else { $content.stop().animate({ top: "-=" + amountToScroll }, 1000, function(){ scrollDown() } ); } } } function scrollUp() { var topCoord = $content.css("top").replace("px",""); if(topCoord < 0) { if(topCoord > -amountToScroll) { $content.stop().animate({ top: 0 }, 1000 ); } else { $content.stop().animate({ top: "+=" + amountToScroll }, 1000, function(){scrollUp()} ); } } } $("#scroll-down").mousedown(function() { scrollDown(); }); $("#scroll-down").mouseup(function() { $content.stop(); }); $("#scroll-up").mousedown(function() { scrollUp(); }); $("scroll-up").mouseup(function() { $content.stop(); }); });

    Read the article

  • Clean solution to this ruby iterator trickiness?

    - by mstksg
    k = [1,2,3,4,5] for n in k puts n if n == 2 k.delete(n) end end puts k.join(",") # Result: # 1 # 2 # 4 # 5 # [1,3,4,5] # Desired: # 1 # 2 # 3 # 4 # 5 # [1,3,4,5] This same effect happens with the other array iterator, k.each: k = [1,2,3,4,5] k.each do |n| puts n if n == 2 k.delete(n) end end puts k.join(",") has the same output. The reason this is happening is pretty clear...Ruby doesn't actually iterate through the objects stored in the array, but rather just turns it into a pretty array index iterator, starting at index 0 and each time increasing the index until it's over. But when you delete an item, it still increments the index, so it doesn't evaluate the same index twice, which I want it to. This might not be what's happening, but it's the best I can think of. Is there a clean way to do this? Is there already a built-in iterator that can do this? Or will I have to dirty it up and do an array index iterator, and not increment when the item is deleted?

    Read the article

  • Point covering problem

    - by Sean
    I recently had this problem on a test: given a set of points m (all on the x-axis) and a set n of lines with endpoints [l, r] (again on the x-axis), find the minimum subset of n such that all points are covered by a line. Prove that your solution always finds the minimum subset. The algorithm I wrote for it was something to the effect of: (say lines are stored as arrays with the left endpoint in position 0 and the right in position 1) algorithm coverPoints(set[] m, set[][] n): chosenLines = [] while m is not empty: minX = min(m) bestLine = n[0] for i=1 to length of n: if n[i][0] <= m and n[i][1] > bestLine[1] then bestLine = n[i] add bestLine to chosenLines for i=0 to length of m: if m <= bestLine[1] then delete m[i] from m return chosenLines I'm just not sure if this always finds the minimum solution. It's a simple greedy algorithm so my gut tells me it won't, but one of my friends who is much better than me at this says that for this problem a greedy algorithm like this always finds the minimal solution. For proving mine always finds the minimal solution I did a very hand wavy proof by contradiction where I made an assumption that probably isn't true at all. I forget exactly what I did. If this isn't a minimal solution, is there a way to do it in less than something like O(n!) time? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Adapting the width of a Flexs 3 DataGridColumn to the content of its ItemRenderer ?

    - by phtrivier
    I have the following scenario : A Flex 3 DataGrid is sitting here At runtime, a column is added to this grid The column has a custom ItemRenderer The ItemRenderer inherits from HBox, and adds a few items to the HBOx dynamically My problem is that the width of the column doesn't change. As a consequence, my column stays small, and an ugly horizontal scrollbar is displayed in the line, instead of my content (which is completely unreadable). I would like the column to adapt its width to the content of the HBox in the ItemRenderer. I tried the following : Setting the 'percentWidth' of the ItemRenderer to '100' Invalidating the properties of the ItemRenderer after adding the items The only thing that has a "visible" effect it to force the width of the DataGridColumn. Obviously this is not acceptable since I'm dynamically adding components to the ItemRenderer, and I don't know how many or how big they are. Besides, when I am in the ItemRenderer, I have no access to the column itself (or do I ?) so I cannot force the size of the column from here. So is there a way around this ? Would AdvancedDataGrid help here (notwhistanding the fact that I cannot really use it for other reasons ...) Thanks PH

    Read the article

  • C#: Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

    - by xTRUMANx
    I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU.

    Read the article

  • Returning two or more values from a function

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    I need to return multiple values from a ColdFusion function in an ajax callback function. Here's what I've got: $('input[name="StateName"]').live('change', function() { var StateID = $(this).parents('tr').attr('id'); var StateName = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ url: 'Remote/State.cfc' ,type: "POST" ,data: { 'method': 'UpdateStateName' ,'StateID': StateID ,'StateName': StateName } ,success: function(result){ if (isNaN(result)) { $('#msg').text(result).addClass('err'); } else { $('#' + result + ' input[name="StateName"]').addClass('changed'); }; } ,error: function(msg){ $('#msg').text('Connection error').addClass('err'); } }); }); If I trap a database error, then the success callback is fired, and the result is Not a Number (It is in fact, the text of the error message). I need the function to also pass back other values. One might be the primary key of the row that caused the error. Another might be the old StateName, so that I can refresh the old value on the screen so that the client will know absolutely for sure that their change did not take effect. I guess I'm breaking the rule of atomicity here and need to fix that, because I'm using result as both the primary key of the row that was updated, or it's the error message if the update fails. I need to return both the primary key and the error message.

    Read the article

  • Java: refactoring static constants

    - by akf
    We are in the process of refactoring some code. There is a feature that we have developed in one project that we would like to now use in other projects. We are extracting the foundation of this feature and making it a full-fledged project which can then be imported by its current project and others. This effort has been relatively straight-forward but we have one headache. When the framework in question was originally developed, we chose to keep a variety of constant values defined as static fields in a single class. Over time this list of static members grew. The class is used in very many places in our code. In our current refactoring, we will be elevating some of the members of this class to our new framework, but leaving others in place. Our headache is in extracting the foundation members of this class to be used in our new project, and more specifically, how we should address those extracted members in our existing code. We know that we can have our existing Constants class subclass this new project's Constants class and it would inherit all of the parent's static members. This would allow us to effect the change without touching the code that uses these members to change the class name on the static reference. However, the tight coupling inherent in this choice doesn't feel right. before: public class ConstantsA { public static final String CONSTANT1 = "constant.1"; public static final String CONSTANT2 = "constant.2"; public static final String CONSTANT3 = "constant.3"; } after: public class ConstantsA extends ConstantsB { public static final String CONSTANT1 = "constant.1"; } public class ConstantsB { public static final String CONSTANT2 = "constant.2"; public static final String CONSTANT3 = "constant.3"; } In our existing code branch, all of the above would be accessible in this manner: ConstantsA.CONSTANT2 I would like to solicit arguments about whether this is 'acceptable' and/or what the best practices are.

    Read the article

  • C++ private inheritance and static members/types

    - by WearyMonkey
    I am trying to stop a class from being able to convert its 'this' pointer into a pointer of one of its interfaces. I do this by using private inheritance via a middle proxy class. The problem is that I find private inheritance makes all public static members and types of the base class inaccessible to all classes under the inheriting class in the hierarchy. class Base { public: enum Enum { value }; }; class Middle : private Base { }; class Child : public Middle { public: void Method() { Base::Enum e = Base::value; // doesn't compile BAD! Base* base = this; // doesn't compile GOOD! } }; I've tried this in both VS2008 (the required version) and VS2010, neither work. Can anyone think of a workaround? Or a different approach to stopping the conversion? Also I am curios of the behavior, is it just a side effect of the compiler implementation, or is it by design? If by design, then why? I always thought of private inheritance to mean that nobody knows Middle inherits from Base. However, the exhibited behavior implies private inheritance means a lot more than that, in-fact Child has less access to Base than any namespace not in the class hierarchy!

    Read the article

  • SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

    - by dev_darin
    I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >