Search Results

Search found 6805 results on 273 pages for 'variables'.

Page 235/273 | < Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >

  • How do I change or add data to a data repeater and get it to display in ASP.NET

    - by CowKingDeluxe
    Here is my code-behind, this adds the "OakTreeName" to the datarepeater. There's about 200 of them. Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("OakTree_Load", New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConnStr)) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.Connection.Open() Dim datareader As SqlClient.SqlDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataSource = datareader OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataBind() cmd.Connection.Close() Here is essentially what I'd like to do with my markup: <ContentTemplate> <asp:Repeater ID="OakTree_Thumb_Repeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeName") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> <!-- Or I'd like to do it this way by adding a custom variable to the data repeater --> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeThumbURL") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ContentTemplate> I would like to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable before it gets placed into the item template. Basically I need to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable and then input it as the ImageURL for the imagebutton within the item template. How do I do this? Am I approaching this wrong? Is there a way to manipulate the item template from code-behind before it gets displayed for each round of variables in the data repeater?

    Read the article

  • PHP 5.3 and interface \ArrayAccess

    - by Jakub Lédl
    I'm now working on a project and I have one class that implements the ArrayAccess interface. Howewer, I'm getting an error that says that my implementation: must be compatible with that of ArrayAccess::offsetSet(). My implementation looks like this: public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("..."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } So, to me it looks like my implementation is correct. Any idea what is wrong? Thanks very much! The class look like this: class HttpRequest implements \ArrayAccess { // tons of private variables, methods for working // with current http request etc. Really nothing that // could interfere with that interface. // ArrayAccess implementation public function offsetExists($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]); } public function offsetGet($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]) ? $this->params[$offset] : NULL; } public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("You can only assing to params using specified key."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } public function offsetUnset($offset) { unset ($this->params[$offset]); } }

    Read the article

  • Changes in Access DB are not saved since updating to Windows 7

    - by ytoledano
    Hi I'm working with a program that accesses an MS-Access DB. The problem is that if I open the db file with Access, the values I see aren't the values I see when I'm using the program. For example, There is a table PARAMS with various program variables, one of them is the date I last loaded a certain file. In access it reads April 12th 2010, while in the program it reads May 7th 2010 (this is correct). April 12th is about the time I upgraded the computer to Windows 7. Also, the mdb file sits next to the program executable in C:\Program Files (x86); and I know that Win7 doesn't allow programs to write to the program files dir. So where are the changes saved? What I've tried: I've tried opening the mdb file on another computer - still reads the wrong (old) values I've tried copying the entire program dir to a different folder - now both the program and ms-access read the wrong values. Can someone tell me how to get a version of the DB with all the values up to date with the program? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

    Read the article

  • $_SESSION v. $_COOKIE

    - by taeja87
    I learned about $_SESSION about several weeks ago when creating a login page. I can successfully login and use it with variables. Currently I am trying to understand $_SESSION and $_COOKIE. Please correct me if I am wrong, I can use $_SESSION when logging in and moving around pages. With $_COOKIE, it is used to remember when I last visit and preferences. Another thing involving cookies is that when websites use advertisements (for example: Google AdSense), they use the cookies to track when visitor click on a advertisement, right? I can use both ($_SESSION & $_COOKIE)? I read somewhere that you can store the session_id as value for the cookie. Also, I read about security which let to me finding this: What do I need to store in the php session when user logged in?. Is using session_regenerate_id good for when a user comes back to the site? And this: How to store a cookie with php involving uniqid. For those wanting to know about the login, I use email and password. That way the user can be able to change their username. I look forward to learning more about these two from anybody who would like to share their knowledge about it. If I asked too many question, you can just answer the one that you have more experience with. If you need more information, just ask since I might have forgotten to include something. Thank You. Found this: What risks should I be aware of before allowing advertisements being placed on my website?

    Read the article

  • C++ and Dependency Injection in unit testing

    - by lhumongous
    Suppose I have a C++ class like so: class A { public: A() { } void SetNewB( const B& _b ) { m_B = _b; } private: B m_B; } In order to unit test something like this, I would have to break A's dependency on B. Since class A holds onto an actual object and not a pointer, I would have to refactor this code to take a pointer. Additionally, I would need to create a parent interface class for B so I can pass in my own fake of B when I test SetNewB. In this case, doesn't unit testing with dependency injection further complicate the existing code? If I make B a pointer, I'm now introducing heap allocation, and some piece of code is now responsible for cleaning it up (unless I use ref counted pointers). Additionally, if B is a rather trivial class with only a couple of member variables and functions, why introduce a whole new interface for it instead of just testing with an instance of B? I suppose you could make the argument that it would be easier to refactor A by using an interface. But are there some cases where two classes might need to be tightly coupled?

    Read the article

  • `this` in global scope in ECMAScript 6

    - by Nathan Wall
    I've tried looking in the ES6 draft myself, but I'm not sure where to look: Can someone tell me if this in ES6 necessarily refers to the global object? Will this object have same members as the global scope? If you could answer for ES5 that would be helpful as well. I know this in global scope refers to the global object in the browser and in most other ES environments, like Node. I just want to know if that's the defined behavior by the spec or if that's extended behavior that implementers have added (and if this behavior will continue in ES6 implementations). In addition, is the global object always the same thing as the global scope? Or are there distinctions? Update - Why I want to know: I am basically trying to figure out how to get the global object reliably in ES5 & 6. I can't rely on window because that's specific to the browser, nor can I rely on global because that's specific to environments like Node. I know this in Node can refer to module in module scope, but I think it still refers to global in global scope. I want a cross-environment ES5 & 6 compliant way to get the global object (if possible). It seems like in all the environments I know of this in global scope does that, but I want to know if it's part of the actual spec (and so reliable across any environment that I may not be familiar with). I also need to know if the global scope and the global object are the same thing by the spec. In other words will all variables in global scope be the same as globalobject.variable_name?

    Read the article

  • How to Implement Backbone Java Logic Code into Android

    - by lord_sneed
    I wrote a program to work from the console in Eclipse and the terminal window in Linux. I am now transforming it into an Android app and I have the basic functionality of the Android UI done up until the point where it needs to use the logic from the Java file of the program I wrote. All of my inputs from the Java file are currently from the keyboard (from Scanners). My question is: how do I transform this to get it work with the user interaction of the app? The only input would be from the built in NumberPicker. Should I copy and paste the code from the Java program to the activity file in the onCreate method and change all of the input methods (Scanners) to work with the Android input? Or do I create variables in the activity file and pass them to the Java program (in the separate class)? (If so, how would I do that? the Java file starts from the main method: public static void main(String[] args) {) Also, will the print statements I have, System.out.println(...);, translate directly into the Android UI and print on the screen or do I have to modify those?

    Read the article

  • How to detect the root recursive call?

    - by ahmadabdolkader
    Say we're writing a simple recursive function fib(n) that calculates the nth Fibonacci number. Now, we want the function to print that nth number. As the same function is being called repeatedly, there has to be a condition that allows only the root call to print. The question is: how to write this condition without passing any additional arguments, or using global/static variables. So, we're dealing with something like this: int fib(int n) { if(n <= 0) return 0; int fn = 1; if(n > 2) fn = fib(n-2) + fib(n-1); if(???) cout << fn << endl; return fn; } int main() { fib(5); return 0; } I thought that the root call differs from all children by returning to a different caller, namely the main method in this example. I wanted to know whether it is possible to use this property to write the condition and how. Update: please note that this is a contrived example that only serves to present the idea. This should be clear from the tags. I'm not looking for standard solutions. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unknown ListView Behavior

    - by st0le
    I'm currently making a SMS Application in Android, the following is a code snippet from Inbox Listactivity, I have requested a cursor from the contentresolver and used a custom adapter to add custom views into the list. Now, in the custom view i've got 2 TextViews (tvFullBody,*tvBody*)... tvFullBody contains the Full SMS Text while tvBody contains a short preview (35 characters) The tvFullBody Visibility is by default set to GONE. My idea is, when the user clicks on a list item, the tvBody should dissappear(GONE) and the tvFullBody should become visible (VISIBLE). On Clicking again, it should revert back to its original state. //isExpanded is a BitSet of the size = no of list items...keeps track of which items are expanded and which are not @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { if(isExpanded.get(position)) { v.findViewById(R.id.tvFullBody).setVisibility(View.GONE); v.findViewById(R.id.tvBody).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); }else { v.findViewById(R.id.tvFullBody).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); v.findViewById(R.id.tvBody).setVisibility(View.GONE); } isExpanded.flip(position); super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); } The Code works as it is supposed to :) except for an undesired sideeffect.... Every 10th (or so) List Item also gets "toggled". eg. If i Expand the 1st, then the 11th, 21th list items are also expanded...Although they remain off screen, but on scrolling you get to see the undesired "expansion". By my novice analysis, i'm guessing Listview keeps track of 10 list items that are currently visible, upon scrolling, it "reuses" those same variables, which is causing this problem...(i didn't check the android source code yet.) I'd be gratefull for any suggestion, on how i should tackle this! :) I'm open to alternative methods aswell....Thanks in advance! :)

    Read the article

  • Will C++0x support __stdcall or extern "C" capture-nothing lambdas?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    Yesterday I was thinking about whether it would be possible to use the convenience of C++0x lambda functions to write callbacks for Windows API functions. For example, what if I wanted to use a lambda as an EnumChildProc with EnumChildWindows? Something like: EnumChildWindows(hTrayWnd, CALLBACK [](HWND hWnd, LPARAM lParam) { // ... return static_cast<BOOL>(TRUE); // continue enumerating }, reinterpret_cast<LPARAM>(&myData)); Another use would be to write extern "C" callbacks for C routines. E.g.: my_class *pRes = static_cast<my_class*>(bsearch(&key, myClassObjectsArr, myClassObjectsArr_size, sizeof(my_class), extern "C" [](const void *pV1, const void *pV2) { const my_class& o1 = *static_cast<const my_class*>(pV1); const my_class& o2 = *static_cast<const my_class*>(pV2); int res; // ... return res; })); Is this possible? I can understand that lambdas that capture variables will never be compatible with C, but it at least seems possible to me that capture-nothing lambdas can be compatible.

    Read the article

  • Powershell: splatting after passing hashtable by reference

    - by user1815871
    Powershell newbie ... I recently learned about splatting — very useful. I ran into a snag when I passed a hash table by reference to a function for splatting purposes. (For brevity's sake — a silly example.) Function AllMyChildren { param ( [ref]$ReferenceToHash } get-childitem @ReferenceToHash.Value # etc.etc. } $MyHash = @{ 'path' = '*' 'include' = '*.ps1' 'name' = $null } AllMyChildren ([ref]$MyHash) Result: an error ("Splatted variables cannot be used as part of a property or array expression. Assign the result of the expression to a temporary variable then splat the temporary variable instead."). Tried this afterward: $newVariable = $ReferenceToHash.Value get-childitem @NewVariable That did work and seemed right per the error message. But: is it the preferred syntax in a case like this? (An oh, look, it actually worked solution isn't always a best practice. My approach here strikes me as "Perl-minded" and perhaps in Powershell passing by value is better, though I don't yet know the syntax for it w.r.t. a hash table.)

    Read the article

  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

    Read the article

  • shorten something in AS 2.0 using eval or set?

    - by chris
    eval("_parent.volumetone" + target1)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target2)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target3)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target4)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target5)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target6)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target7)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target8)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target9)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target10)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target11)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target12)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target13)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target14)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; eval("_parent.volumetone" + target15)._yscale = Math.round(number)/1.5+50; i have these lines of repetitive code. the variables target1 to target15 are a random number between 1 and 110. so one may point to _parent.volumetone49 and adjust its _yscale for example. the code above works the way i want, but i want it shorter. here's something i tried with no success: for (i = 0; i < 15; i++) { set("_parent.volumetone" + ("target"+i) + "._xscale", Math.round(funhousenumber)/1.5+50); } basically having a loop that starts at 1 and goes to 15, then replaces target1 with target+i, i being 1, which would give target1 and thus the number contained in it. maybe i have to use eval()? i'm still not sure what i'm doing but i'm learning as i go. thanks.

    Read the article

  • iMX31 dependencies?

    - by Abhi
    Dear all I am beginner in an silverlight application. So at first i looked on demo application which is provided by wince 6.0 r3 at location WINCE600\PUBLIC\COMMON\OAK\DEMOS\XAMLPERF - this contains c++ code and WINCE600\PUBLIC\COMMON\OAK\FILES\XAMLPERF - this contains xaml file with the images Now before running this application in an emulator. I at first proceeded with the following: I have first taken my workspace went to catalog item and added "Silverlight for Windows Embedded" from the drop down menu of an catalog item Then right clicked on solution explorer and choosed on properties and under configuration in drop down menu i have selected environment variables where i have added new variable called "sysgen_samplexamlperf" and assigned value as 1 for that variable. Now after rebuiding the application, i have dumped the image into emulator and i found that at desktop of device emulator i can see the exe file to which i run and i can see the application is working fine with 3d effects. Now same thing i proceeded in iMX31 hardware and i was not able to see the application running in a proper manner as it was performing in an emulator. So now what i feel is that there be any dependency when we run the application on hardware. So what can be the dependency? Also in this location "WINCE600\PUBLIC\COMMON\OAK\FILES\XAMLPERF" the images are in png format. So is there any dependency with an image format? Thanks and regards

    Read the article

  • Port scanning using threadpool

    - by thenry
    I am trying to run a small app that scans ports and checks to see if they are open using and practicing with threadpools. The console window will ask a number and scans ports from 1 to X and will display each port whether they are open or closed. My problem is that as it goes through each port, it sometimes stops prematurely. It doesn't stop at just one number either, its pretty random. For example it I specify 200. The console will scroll through each port then stops at 110. Next time I run it, it stops at 80. Code Left out some of the things, assume all variables are declared where they should. First part is in Main. static void Main(string[] args) { string portNum; int convertedNum; Console.WriteLine("Scanning ports 1-X"); portNum = Console.ReadLine(); convertedNum = Convert.ToInt32(portNum); try { for (int i = 1; i <= convertedNum; i++) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(scanPort, i); Thread.Sleep(100); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("exception " + e); } } static void scanPort(object o) { TcpClient scanner = new TcpClient(); try { scanner.Connect("127.0.0.1",(int)o); Console.WriteLine("Port {0} open", o); } catch { Console.WriteLine("Port {0} closed",o); } } }

    Read the article

  • Noise with multi-threaded raytracer

    - by herber88
    This is my first multi-threaded implementation, so it's probably a beginners mistake. The threads handle the rendering of every second row of pixels (so all rendering is handled within each thread). The problem persists if the threads render the upper and lower parts of the screen respectively. Both threads read from the same variables, can this cause any problems? From what I've understood only writing can cause concurrency problems... Can calling the same functions cause any concurrency problems? And again, from what I've understood this shouldn't be a problem... The only time both threads write to the same variable is when saving the calculated pixel color. This is stored in an array, but they never write to the same indices in that array. Can this cause a problem? Multi-threaded rendered image (Spam prevention stops me from posting images directly..) Ps. I use the exactly same implementation in both cases, the ONLY difference is a single vs. two threads created for the rendering.

    Read the article

  • jQuery adding a function to a link question

    - by wali
    Hello all, I have a dynamically created table which in the last <td> there is a hidden <div> which is shown when the user hovers over a link in the <td>. That all works fine but there are several links in the div that I want to fire a function based on the id of the link concat'd with an string captured from a <td> from the parent row. I can capture the the variables I need from the id and <td> but something is wrong with the click function I have created. I monitored the function in FireBug and the function appears to be firing on all of the links instead of the one that is clicked. Here is my working code: function fixLink() { $('a.batchMatchLink').click( function() { var r = $(this).parent().parent().parent().parent().parent(); var x = $(this).attr("id"); var a = $(r).find('td:nth-child(6)').text(); var st = x + "." + a; fireLink(st); } ); } function fireLink(st) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "AjaxWcf.svc/MatchBatch", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: st, dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { alert("Entry has been updated"); }, error: AjaxFailed }); Why are all of the links firing? Thanks!!!

    Read the article

  • Create a model that switches between two different states using Temporal Logic?

    - by NLed
    Im trying to design a model that can manage different requests for different water sources. Platform : MAC OSX, using latest Python with TuLip module installed. For example, Definitions : Two water sources : w1 and w2 3 different requests : r1,r2,and r3 - Specifications : Water 1 (w1) is preferred, but w2 will be used if w1 unavailable. Water 2 is only used if w1 is depleted. r1 has the maximum priority. If all entities request simultaneously, r1's supply must not fall below 50%. - The water sources are not discrete but rather continuous, this will increase the difficulty of creating the model. I can do a crude discretization for the water levels but I prefer finding a model for the continuous state first. So how do I start doing that ? Some of my thoughts : Create a matrix W where w1,w2 ? W Create a matrix R where r1,r2,r3 ? R or leave all variables singular without putting them in a matrix I'm not an expert in coding so that's why I need help. Not sure what is the best way to start tackling this problem. I am only interested in the model, or a code sample of how can this be put together. edit Now imagine I do a crude discretization of the water sources to have w1=[0...4] and w2=[0...4] for 0, 25, 50, 75,100 percent respectively. == means implies Usage of water sources : if w1[0]==w2[4] -- meaning if water source 1 has 0%, then use 100% of water source 2 etc if w1[1]==w2[3] if w1[2]==w2[2] if w1[3]==w2[1] if w1[4]==w2[0] r1=r2=r3=[0,1] -- 0 means request OFF and 1 means request ON Now what model can be designed that will give each request 100% water depending on the values of w1 and w2 (w1 and w2 values are uncontrollable so cannot define specific value, but 0...4 is used for simplicity )

    Read the article

  • Passing user_id, site_id, and question_id to same table on create...

    - by bgadoci
    I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I am trying to pass four different variables to a single table. To be more specific I am trying to create a "like" in a likes table that also captures the site_id (like an answer), user_id, and the question_id. Here is the set up. class Like < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end I will spare you the reverse, has_many associations but they are there. Here is the likes controller where I think the problem is. class LikesController < ApplicationController def create @user = current_user @site = Site.find(params[:site_id]) @like = @site.likes.create!(params[:like]) @like.user = current_user @like.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @site} format.js end end end This code successfully passes the like and site_id but after many different variations of trying I can't get it to pass the question id. Here is my form: /views/sites/_site.html.erb (though the partial is being displayed in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file). <% remote_form_for [site, Like.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :site_name, :value => "#{site.name}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :ip_address, :value => "#{request.remote_ip}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :like, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "^" , :class => 'voteup' %> <% end %>

    Read the article

  • Including Data From DropDownList Into Gridview

    - by Mike Keller
    I feel a little embarassed posting two questions relating to the same problem, but the first one ended up answering a question that I believe is unrelated to the solution so I'm leaving it up and outlining what I'm trying to accomplish with the hopes that someone can help out a .Net noob. What I need to be able to do is create a field in my gridview that contains a link that passes two variables. One is pulled from within the gridviews datasource and the other needs to be pulled from a textbox control outside the gridview. From what I've read so far you cannot use a hyperlinkfield for this as the datanavigateurlfields cannot be set to pull from anything but the gridview's data source. What I attempted to do was create a template field where in the itemtemplate I called: <a href="example.aspx?e=<%# Eval(ExampleList.SelectedItem.Value) %>">Test</a> That comes back with an error like this: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the value 'TestData' Any clues to make this happen would be appreciated, like I said I'm pretty new to .Net so please be gentle. I tried to do my homework before posting this.

    Read the article

  • VS2008 Link Error Using SafeInt3.hpp in 64bit mode.

    - by photo_tom
    I have the below code that links and runs fine in 32bit mode - #include "safeint3.hpp" typedef SafeInt<SIZE_T> SAFE_SIZE_T; SAFE_SIZE_T sizeOfCache; SAFE_SIZE_T _allocateAmt; Where safeint3.hpp is current version that can be found on Codeplex SafeInt. For those who are unaware of it, safeint is a template class that makes working with different integer types and sizes "safe". To quote channel 9 video on software - "it writes the code that you should". Which is my case. I have a class that is managing a large in-memory cache of objects (6gb) and I am very concerned about making sure that I don't have overflow/underflow issues on my pointers/sizes/other integer variables. In this use, it solves many problems. My problem is coming when moving from 32bit dev mode to 64bit production mode. When I build the app in this mode, I'm getting the following linker warnings - 1>cachecontrol.obj : warning LNK4006: "bool __cdecl IntrinsicMultiplyUint64(unsigned __int64 const &,unsigned __int64 const &,unsigned __int64 *)" (?IntrinsicMultiplyUint64@@YA_NAEB_K0PEA_K@Z) already defined in ImageInRamCache.obj; second definition ignored 1>cachecontrol.obj : warning LNK4006: "bool __cdecl IntrinsicMultiplyInt64(__int64 const &,__int64 const &,__int64 *)" (?IntrinsicMultiplyInt64@@YA_NAEB_J0PEA_J@Z) already defined in ImageInRamCache.obj; second definition ignored While I understand I can ignore the error, I would like either (a) prevent the warning from occurring or (b) make it disappear so that my QA department doesn't flag it as a problem. And after spending some time researching it, I cannot find a way to do either.

    Read the article

  • Looping through covariates in regression using R

    - by Kyle Peyton
    I'm trying to run 96 regressions and save the results as 96 different objects. To complicate things, I want the subscript on one of the covariates in the model to also change 96 times. I've almost solved the problem but I've unfortunately hit a wall. The code so far is, for(i in 1:96){ assign(paste("z.out", i,sep=""), lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_i+ Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies)) } This works on the object creation side (e.g. I have z.out1 - z.out96) but I can't seem to get the subscript on the covariate to change as well. I have 96 variables called TE_1, TE_2 ... TE_96 in the dataset. As such, the subscript on TE_, the "i" needs to change to correspond to each of the objects I create. That is, z.out1 should hold the results from this model: z.out1 <- lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_1 + Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies) And z.out96 should be: z.out96 <- lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_96+ Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies) Hopefully this makes sense. I'm grateful for any tips/advice. cheers, kyle

    Read the article

  • Java: Comparing a class with another within that class using a my own .equals

    - by user1670252
    I am making a method .equals replacing the equals method used. It accepts a object. I want it to check if that object equals the class that runs the .equals class. I know I want to compare all the private methods I have to that object. Is there a way to do this without making another private class to get the private variables from the object? How do I do this to compare equality not identity? I am stuck on this. Do i have to use == to compare? Also looking online i see others use recursion. If this is the way i have to do it can you show and explain it to me? so an example i have public boolean equals(Object o) { this is in a class we will call bobtheBuilder (first thing to pop in my head) I want to check if the object o is equal to the class he has private object array and a private int. I assume I want to check if the array and int of this class equal the array and int of the object.

    Read the article

  • Can't store UTF-8 in RDS despite setting up new Parameter Group using Rails on Heroku

    - by Lail
    I'm setting up a new instance of a Rails(2.3.5) app on Heroku using Amazon RDS as the database. I'd like to use UTF-8 for everything. Since RDS isn't UTF-8 by default, I set up a new Parameter Group and switched the database to use that one, basically per this. Seems to have worked: SHOW VARIABLES LIKE '%character%'; character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server utf8 character_set_system utf8 character_sets_dir /rdsdbbin/mysql-5.1.50.R3/share/mysql/charsets/ Furthermore, I've successfully setup Heroku to use the RDS database. After rake db:migrate, everything looks good: CREATE TABLE `comments` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `commentable_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `parent_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `content` text COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci, `child_count` int(11) DEFAULT '0', `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `commentable_id` (`commentable_id`), KEY `index_comments_on_community_id` (`community_id`), KEY `parent_id` (`parent_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; In the markup, I've included: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Also, I've set: production: encoding: utf8 collation: utf8_general_ci ...in the database.yml, though I'm not very confident that anything is being done to honor any of those settings in this case, as Heroku seems to be doing its own config when connecting to RDS. Now, I enter a comment through the form in the app: "Úbe® ƒåiL", but in the database I've got "Úbe® Æ’Ã¥iL" It looks fine when Rails loads it back out of the database and it is rendered to the page, so whatever it is doing one way, it's undoing the other way. If I look at the RDS database in Sequel Pro, it looks fine if I set the encoding to "UTF-8 Unicode via Latin 1". So it seems Latin-1 is sneaking in there somewhere. Somebody must have done this before, right? What am I missing?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >