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• using a database and deploying the application

  - by evan

  I have a WPF application that stores a large amount of information in XML files and as the user uses the application they add more information to the XML files. It's basically using the XML files as a database. Since over the life of the program the XML files have gotten quite large, and I've been think about putting the data on a website, I've been looking into how to move all the information into an SQL database. I've used SQL databases with web applications (PHP, Ruby, and ASP.NET) but never with a Desktop application. Ideally I'd like to be able to keep all the information in one database file and distribute it along with the application without requiring the user to connect to a remote database (so they don't need an internet connection - though eventually it would be nice if could compare the local file's version with one online somewhere and update if necessary) and without making them install a local database server on their computer. Is this possible? I'd also like to use LINQ with any new database solution so switching to a database doesn't force to many changes (I read the XML with LINQ). I'm sure this question has been asked and that there are already some good tutorials on the subject but I just can't find them.

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• Korn shell wraparound

  - by allenratcliff

  Okay, I'm sure this is simple but it is driving me nuts. I recently went to work on a program where I've had to step back in time a bit and use Redhat 9. When I'm typing on the command line from a standard xterm running Korn shell, when I reach the end of the line the screen slides to the right (cutting off the left side of my command) instead of wrapping the text around to a new line. This makes things difficult for me because I can't easily copy and paste from the previous command straight from the command line. I have to look at the history and paste the command from there. In case you're wondering, I do a lot of command-line awk scripts that cause the line to get quite long. Is there a way to force the command line to wrap instead of shifting visibility to the right side of the command I'm typing? I've poured through man page options with no luck. I'm running XFree86 4.2.99.903(174) and KSH 5.2.14. Thanks.

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• Simplest PHP Routing framework .. ?

  - by David

  I'm looking for the simplest implementation of a routing framework in PHP, in a typical PHP environment (Running on Apache, or maybe nginx) .. It's the implementation itself I'm mostly interested in, and how you'd accomplish it. I'm thinking it should handle URL's, with the minimal rewriting possible, (is it really a good idea, to have the same entrypoint for all dynamic requests?!), and it should not mess with the querystring, so I should still be able to fetch GET params with $_GET['var'] as you'd usually do.. So far I have only come across .htaccess solutions that puts everything through an index.php, which is sort of okay. Not sure if there are other ways of doing it. How would you "attach" what URL's fit to what controllers, and the relation between them? I've seen different styles. One huge array, with regular expressions and other stuff to contain the mapping. The one I think I like the best is where each controller declares what map it has, and thereby, you won't have one huge "global" map, but a lot of small ones, each neatly separated. So you'd have something like: class Root { public $map = array( 'startpage' => 'ControllerStartPage' ); } class ControllerStartPage { public $map = array( 'welcome' => 'WelcomeControllerPage' ); } // Etc ... Where: 'http://myapp/' // maps to the Root class 'http://myapp/startpage' // maps to the ControllerStartPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/welcome' // maps to the WelcomeControllerPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/?hello=world' // Should of course have $_GET['hello'] == 'world' What do you think? Do you use anything yourself, or have any ideas? I'm not interested in huge frameworks already solving this problem, but the smallest possible implementation you could think of. I'm having a hard time coming up with a solution satisfying enough, for my own taste. There must be something pleasing out there that handles a sane bootstrapping process of a PHP application without trying to pull a big magic hat over your head, and force you to use "their way", or the highway! ;)

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• File.Move does not inherit permissions from target directory?

  - by Joseph Kingry

  In case something goes wrong in creating a file, I've been writing to a temporary file and then moving to the destination. Something like: var destination = @"C:\foo\bar.txt"; var tempFile = Path.GetTempFileName(); using (var stream = File.OpenWrite(tempFile)) { // write to file here here } string backupFile = null; try { var dir = Path.GetDirectoryName(destination); if (!Directory.Exists(dir)) { Directory.CreateDirectory(dir); Util.SetPermissions(dir); } if (File.Exists(destination)) { backupFile = Path.Combine(Path.GetTempPath(), new Guid().ToString()); File.Move(destination, backupFile); } File.Move(tempFile, destination); if (backupFile != null) { File.Delete(backupFile); } } catch(IOException) { if(backupFile != null && !File.Exists(destination) && File.Exists(backupFile)) { File.Move(backupFile, destination); } } The problem is that the new "bar.txt" in this case does not inherit permissions from the "C:\foo" directory. Yet if I create a file via explorer/notepad etc directly in the "C:\foo" there's no issues, so I believe the permissions are correctly set on "C:\foo". Update Found Inherited permissions are not automatically updated when you move folders, maybe it applies to folders as well. Now looking for a way to force an update of file permissions. Is there a better way overall of doing this?

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• A graph-based tuple merge?

  - by user1644030

  I have paired values in tuples that are related matches (and technically still in CSV files). Neither of the paired values are necessarily unique. tupleAB = (A####, B###), (A###, B###), (A###, B###)... tupleBC = (B####, C###), (B###, C###), (B###, C###)... tupleAC = (A####, C###), (A###, C###), (A###, C###)... My ideal output would be a dictionary with a unique ID and a list of "reinforced" matches. The way I try to think about it is in a graph-based context. For example, if: tupleAB[x] = (A0001, B0012) tupleBC[y] = (B0012, C0230) tupleAC[z] = (A0001, C0230) This would produce: output = {uniquekey0001, [A0001, B0012, C0230]} Ideally, this would also be able to scale up to more than three tuples (for example, adding a "D" match that would result in an additional three tuples - AD, BD, and CD - and lists of four items long; and so forth). In regards to scaling up to more tuples, I am open to having "graphs" that aren't necessarily fully connected, i.e., every node connected to every other node. My hunch is that I could easily filter based on the list lengths. I am open to any suggestions. I think, with a few cups of coffee, I could work out a brute force solution, but I thought I'd ask the community if anyone was aware of a more elegant solution. Thanks for any feedback.

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• Load SQL query result data into cache in advance

  - by Marc

  I have the following situation: .net 3.5 WinForm client app accessing SQL Server 2008 Some queries returning relatively big amount of data are used quite often by a form Users are using local SQL Express and restarting their machines at least daily Other users are working remotely over slow network connections The problem is that after a restart, the first time users open this form the queries are extremely slow and take more or less 15s on a fast machine to execute. Afterwards the same queries take only 3s. Of course this comes from the fact that no data is cached and must be loaded from disk first. My question: Would it be possible to force the loading of the required data in advance into SQL Server cache? Note My first idea was to execute the queries in a background worker when the application starts, so that when the user starts the form the queries will already be cached and execute fast directly. I however don't want to load the result of the queries over to the client as some users are working remotely or have otherwise slow networks. So I thought just executing the queries from a stored procedure and putting the results into temporary tables so that nothing would be returned. Turned out that some of the result sets are using dynamic columns so I couldn't create the corresponding temp tables and thus this isn't a solution. Do you happen to have any other idea?

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• Keyboard blocking my view

  - by John Smith

  I have a UIView with another UIView inside it. On the inside UIView there is a textbox which I want to fill in. When I try to fill it in the keyboard blocks my view: The UIViewController has the following containerView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[UIScreen mainScreen].bounds]; self.view=containerView; //The apropriate releases etc are further on... When I touch it, the keyboard comes up as expected, but blocks the textbox I'm trying to fill in. How can I force the view to slide up? The front view OptionsFront * fv = [[OptionsFront alloc] initWithFrame:[UIScreen mainScreen].bounds]; [containerView addSubview:frontView]; In the front view is a subview CGRect bounds = CGRectMake(0.0f, 210.0f, 280.0f, 130.0f); sv = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:bounds]; [self addSubview:sv]; //added to frontView In sv is a textbox near the botton: rect = CGRectMake(70.0f, 20.0f, 100.0f, 27.0f); cf = [self createTextField_Rounded:rect holder:@"+ve"]; [sv addSubview:cf]; So cf happens to be near the bottom of the page. I expected that when I select it, the whole display would move up, but the keyboard just moves up and blocks it. What can I do? Appendix: - (UITextField *)createTextField_Rounded:(CGRect) frame holder:(NSString *) ph { UITextField *returnTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; returnTextField.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleRoundedRect; returnTextField.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; returnTextField.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:17.0]; returnTextField.delegate = self; returnTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeNumbersAndPunctuation; returnTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; returnTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; return returnTextField; }

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• Java Code for calculating Leap Year, is this code correct ?

  - by Ibn Saeed

  Hello I am following "The Art and Science of Java" book and it shows how to calculate a leap year. The book uses ACM Java Task Force's library. Here is the code the books uses: import acm.program.*; public class LeapYear extends ConsoleProgram { public void run() { println("This program calculates leap year."); int year = readInt("Enter the year: "); boolean isLeapYear = ((year % 4 == 0) && (year % 100 != 0) || (year % 400 == 0)); if (isLeapYear) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else println(year + " is not a leap year."); } } Now, this is how I calculated the leap year. import acm.program.*; public class LeapYear extends ConsoleProgram { public void run() { println("This program calculates leap year."); int year = readInt("Enter the year: "); if ((year % 4 == 0) && year % 100 != 0) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else if ((year % 4 == 0) && (year % 100 == 0) && (year % 400 == 0)) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else { println(year + " is not a leap year."); } } } Is there anything wrong with my code or should i use the one provided by the book ? EDIT :: Both of the above code works fine, What i want to ask is which code is the best way to calculate the leap year.

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• Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

  - by user193655

  I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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• Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

  - by Chris Taylor

  I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

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• C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

  - by KaiserJohaan

  Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

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• Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

  - by watain

  I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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• Overlapping 2 Flash objects and controlling z-index

  - by Magnus Smith

  I have two Flash objects on a webpage (call them A and B), and they overlap so one partially obscures the other. I don't seem to have any control over the z-index, to force B in front of A. Whatever I try, A always 'wins' and stays on the top! I have read many people's posts about problem with getting HTML to show over the top of Flash...but nothing about when your two overlapping items are both Flash objects. I have tried various combinations of wmode=opaque/transparent/window I have tried CSS position:absolute/relative and z-index:0/999 I have tried placing the HTML sections in a different order The problem is the same in IE6 and Firefox 2.0 I do not want to use jQuery in this case In my particular situation B must have position:absolute and wmode=transparent, and sit above A. A needs relative positioning and transparency is not required. However, I have been testing without these restrictions, and I still have no control over the overlap. Are some SWFs (ours are adverts sent by clients) created in such a way as to override any code control of z-index? Thanks for any advice you can give.

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• WinForms - DateTimePicker default month selection behavior for Server 2003 vs Server 2008?

  - by Mike Loux

  Good Afternoon! Has anybody else noticed a change in the default behavior of the "next" and "previous" month arrows in the standard WinForms DateTimePicker control? I have users running on both Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 R2, and they are reporting that on 2008 (and Vista/Win7), clicking the right or left arrows on the drop-down Calendar now selects the first day of the month rather than retaining the same day like 2003 (and XP) does. I have checked this out (I have a Win7 machine) and I have confirmed this behavior. I would prefer that the behavior remain consistent whenever possible. Does anybody know what causes this and if there is a way to get around this? Is there a way to trap the arrow-click event and force the resulting date to retain the original day rather than be reset to the first of the month? I thought about seeing if there was a way to hit-test the control on a MouseUp event and determine if the arrow buttons were clicked, and then override the month value being set, but I'm not sure if that is even possible. Can anybody provide some wisdom or insight? Thanks!

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• .htaccess Redirect Loop, adding multiple .php extensions

  - by Ryan Smith

  I have sort of a small parent/teacher social network set up for my school. I use my .htaccess file to make the links to teacher profiles cleaner and to add a trailing slash to all urls. I get this problem when going to /teachers/teacher-name/ the link (sometimes) redirects to /teachers/teacher-name.php.php.php.php.php.php.php.php... Below is my .htaccess file. Sometimes if I clear my browser cache in Chrome it temporarily fixes it. I can't exactly wright .htaccess syntax, but I'm pretty familiar with it. Any suggestions are appreciated! RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / #remove php ext RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/$ $1.php RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/([^/]+)/$ $1/$2.php #force trailing slash/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)([^/])$ /$1$2/ [L,R=301] #other rewrites RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/profile.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/$ /teachers/posts.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/post.php?u=$1&p=$2 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/album.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/slideshow/$ /gallery/slideshow.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/photo.php?a=$1&p=$2&e=$3 EDIT:I have attached a screenshot of exactly what I'm talking about.

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• C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

  - by Wardy

  I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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• How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

  - by huffmaster

  So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

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• How to create TestContext for Spring Test?

  - by HDave

  Newcomer to Spring here, so pardon me if this is a stupid question. I have a relatively small Java library that implements a few dozen beans (no database or GUI). I have created a Spring Bean configuration file that other Java projects use to inject my beans into their stuff. I am now for the first time trying to use Spring Test to inject some of these beans into my junit test classes (rather than simply instantiating them). I am doing this partly to learn Spring Test and partly to force the tests to use the same bean configuration file I provide for others. In the Spring documentation is says I need to create an application context using the "TestContext" class that comes with Spring. I believe this should be done in a spring XML file that I reference via the @ContextConfiguration annotation on my test class. @ContextConfiguration({"/test-applicationContext.xml"}) However, there is no hint as to what to put in the file! When I go to run my tests from within Eclipse it errors out saying "failed to load Application Context"....of course.

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• Using the hardware keyboard to simulate button press on Android

  - by Bevor

  Hello, it is difficult to test a game with the mouse pointer on android buttons. I would like to control those buttons with the hardware keyboard. Actually I don't want to control the buttons itself but I want to control the behaviour the buttons would also do. For example I have 4 buttons in the android application with "arrow up, down, left, right". I'd like to use the arrow buttons of my hardware keyboard to control the same. How can I do that? Actually the question is, where can I set the Listener? I tried something in my activity. I set this listener to the application button: button.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_DOWN) //scroll down return true; } }); The behaviour is the following: I can't scroll down with my hardware keyboard but with the hardware keyboard I can select the android buttons (they will be highlighted when I move on any button). After I selected the button with the Listener I can't select any other button anymore but then the Listener comes into force. Now I can scroll down with the hardware keyboard arrow down button. I would like to achieve this behaviour without selecting any button. So I thought about setting the listener to the layout container or any other layout but this has no effect. Is there any other approach to achieve this?

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• Multi threading in WCF RIA Services

  - by synergetic

  I use WCF RIA Services to update customer database. In domain service: public void UpdateCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.Customers.AttachAsModified(customer); syncCustomer(customer); } After update, a database trigger launches and depending on the columns updated it may insert a new record in CustomerChange table. syncCustomer(customer) method is executed to check for a new record in the CustomerChange table and if found it will create a text file which contains customer information and forwards that file to external system for import. Now this synchronization may take a time so I wanted to execute it in different thread. So: private void syncCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(); new Thread(() => syncCustomerInfo(customer.CustomerID)) { IsBackground = true }.Start(); } private void syncCustomerInfo(int customerID) { //Thread.Sleep(2000); //does real job here ... ... } The problem is in most cases syncCustomerInfo method cannot find any new CustomerChange record even if it was definitely there. If I force thread sleep then it finds a new record. I also looked Entity Framework events but the only event provided by object context is SavingChanges which occur before changes are saved. Please suggest me what else to try.

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• Confused about UIView frame property

  - by slowfungus

  I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

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• JavaApplicationStub with SWT causing problems

  - by mystro

  I created an application in Eclipse that uses SWT for the GUI. I've attempted to deploy the application using the Eclipse deploy, but it seems that when I do that, LSUIElement is not respected, and I can't force the application to disappear from the dock. Nonwhistanding that issue, the application actually deploys ok and is runnable. I attempted to deploy the application using Jar Bundler, but when I try to run the application, I get the following errors: 2010-06-09 21:44:02.564 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10021f260 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.568 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10010a0a0 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.569 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001127a0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.582 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff70b7af70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.583 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100123ea0 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.587 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225b90 of class NSCFDictionary autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.588 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225ee0 of class __NSFastEnumerationEnumerator autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking in a very, very, very, long list. The application launches and appears to hang with the icon constantly bouncing in the dock, and the first GUI menu only partially loaded (it looks like one of the text boxes is semi visible, and the overall rectangle is the right size, but the GUI is not showing properly. It is essentially hung.) I'm hoping someone has had experience with this problem, and may be able to help! Thanks!

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• can javascript process binary data?

  - by Johnny

  admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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• Bash script to insert code from one file at a specific location in another file?

  - by Kurtosis

  I have a fileA with a snippet of code, and I need a script to insert that snippet into fileB on the line after a specific pattern. I'm trying to make the accepted answer in this thread work, but it's not, and is not giving an error so not sure why not: sed -e '/pattern/r text2insert' filewithpattern Any suggestions? pattern (insert snippet on line after): def boot { also tried escaped pattern but no luck: def\ boot\ { def\ boot\ \{ fileA snippet: LiftRules.htmlProperties.default.set((r: Req) => new Html5Properties(r.userAgent)) fileB (Boot.scala): package bootstrap.liftweb import net.liftweb._ import util._ import Helpers._ import common._ import http._ import sitemap._ import Loc._ /** * A class that's instantiated early and run. It allows the application * to modify lift's environment */ class Boot { def boot { // where to search snippet LiftRules.addToPackages("code") // Build SiteMap val entries = List( Menu.i("Home") / "index", // the simple way to declare a menu // more complex because this menu allows anything in the // /static path to be visible Menu(Loc("Static", Link(List("static"), true, "/static/index"), "Static Content"))) // set the sitemap. Note if you don't want access control for // each page, just comment this line out. LiftRules.setSiteMap(SiteMap(entries:_*)) // Use jQuery 1.4 LiftRules.jsArtifacts = net.liftweb.http.js.jquery.JQuery14Artifacts //Show the spinny image when an Ajax call starts LiftRules.ajaxStart = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.show("ajax-loader").cmd) // Make the spinny image go away when it ends LiftRules.ajaxEnd = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.hide("ajax-loader").cmd) // Force the request to be UTF-8 LiftRules.early.append(_.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8")) } }

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• Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

  - by Wonko the Sane

  I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

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