Search Results

Search found 6981 results on 280 pages for 'force flow'.

Page 237/280 | < Previous Page | 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244  | Next Page >

  • Keyboard blocking my view

    - by John Smith
    I have a UIView with another UIView inside it. On the inside UIView there is a textbox which I want to fill in. When I try to fill it in the keyboard blocks my view: The UIViewController has the following containerView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[UIScreen mainScreen].bounds]; self.view=containerView; //The apropriate releases etc are further on... When I touch it, the keyboard comes up as expected, but blocks the textbox I'm trying to fill in. How can I force the view to slide up? The front view OptionsFront * fv = [[OptionsFront alloc] initWithFrame:[UIScreen mainScreen].bounds]; [containerView addSubview:frontView]; In the front view is a subview CGRect bounds = CGRectMake(0.0f, 210.0f, 280.0f, 130.0f); sv = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:bounds]; [self addSubview:sv]; //added to frontView In sv is a textbox near the botton: rect = CGRectMake(70.0f, 20.0f, 100.0f, 27.0f); cf = [self createTextField_Rounded:rect holder:@"+ve"]; [sv addSubview:cf]; So cf happens to be near the bottom of the page. I expected that when I select it, the whole display would move up, but the keyboard just moves up and blocks it. What can I do? Appendix: - (UITextField *)createTextField_Rounded:(CGRect) frame holder:(NSString *) ph { UITextField *returnTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; returnTextField.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleRoundedRect; returnTextField.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; returnTextField.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:17.0]; returnTextField.delegate = self; returnTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeNumbersAndPunctuation; returnTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; returnTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; return returnTextField; }

    Read the article

  • LGPL library with plugins of varied licenses

    - by Chris
    Note: "Plugins" here refers to shared objects that are accessed via dlopen() and friends. I'm writing a library that I'm planning on releasing under the LGPL. Its functionality can be extended (supporting new audio file formats, specifically) through plugins. I'm planning on creating an exception to the LGPL for this library so that plugins can be released under any license. So far so good. I've written a number of plugins already, some of which use LGPL and some of which use GPL libraries. I'm wary of releasing them with the main library, however, due to licensing issues. The LGPL-based ones would generally be fine, but for my "any license" clause. Would distributing these LGPL-based plugins with the library require the consent of the other license holders to create this exception? Along the same lines, would the inclusion of GPL-based plugins with my library force the whole thing to go GPL? I could also release the plugins separately. The advantage, I presume, is that the plugins an d library will now not be distributed together, creating more separation. But this seems to be no different, really, in the end. Boiled down: Can I include, with my LGPL library, plugins of varied licenses? If not, is it really any different releasing them separately? And if so, there's no real need to create an exception for non-LGPL plugins, is there? It's LGPL or nothing. I'd prefer asking a lawyer, of course, but this is just a hobby and I can't afford to hire a lawyer when I don't expect or want monetary compensation. I'm just hoping others have been in similar situations and have insight.

    Read the article

  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

    Read the article

  • Korn shell wraparound

    - by allenratcliff
    Okay, I'm sure this is simple but it is driving me nuts. I recently went to work on a program where I've had to step back in time a bit and use Redhat 9. When I'm typing on the command line from a standard xterm running Korn shell, when I reach the end of the line the screen slides to the right (cutting off the left side of my command) instead of wrapping the text around to a new line. This makes things difficult for me because I can't easily copy and paste from the previous command straight from the command line. I have to look at the history and paste the command from there. In case you're wondering, I do a lot of command-line awk scripts that cause the line to get quite long. Is there a way to force the command line to wrap instead of shifting visibility to the right side of the command I'm typing? I've poured through man page options with no luck. I'm running XFree86 4.2.99.903(174) and KSH 5.2.14. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

    - by Chris Taylor
    I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

    Read the article

  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Simplest PHP Routing framework .. ?

    - by David
    I'm looking for the simplest implementation of a routing framework in PHP, in a typical PHP environment (Running on Apache, or maybe nginx) .. It's the implementation itself I'm mostly interested in, and how you'd accomplish it. I'm thinking it should handle URL's, with the minimal rewriting possible, (is it really a good idea, to have the same entrypoint for all dynamic requests?!), and it should not mess with the querystring, so I should still be able to fetch GET params with $_GET['var'] as you'd usually do.. So far I have only come across .htaccess solutions that puts everything through an index.php, which is sort of okay. Not sure if there are other ways of doing it. How would you "attach" what URL's fit to what controllers, and the relation between them? I've seen different styles. One huge array, with regular expressions and other stuff to contain the mapping. The one I think I like the best is where each controller declares what map it has, and thereby, you won't have one huge "global" map, but a lot of small ones, each neatly separated. So you'd have something like: class Root { public $map = array( 'startpage' => 'ControllerStartPage' ); } class ControllerStartPage { public $map = array( 'welcome' => 'WelcomeControllerPage' ); } // Etc ... Where: 'http://myapp/' // maps to the Root class 'http://myapp/startpage' // maps to the ControllerStartPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/welcome' // maps to the WelcomeControllerPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/?hello=world' // Should of course have $_GET['hello'] == 'world' What do you think? Do you use anything yourself, or have any ideas? I'm not interested in huge frameworks already solving this problem, but the smallest possible implementation you could think of. I'm having a hard time coming up with a solution satisfying enough, for my own taste. There must be something pleasing out there that handles a sane bootstrapping process of a PHP application without trying to pull a big magic hat over your head, and force you to use "their way", or the highway! ;)

    Read the article

  • A graph-based tuple merge?

    - by user1644030
    I have paired values in tuples that are related matches (and technically still in CSV files). Neither of the paired values are necessarily unique. tupleAB = (A####, B###), (A###, B###), (A###, B###)... tupleBC = (B####, C###), (B###, C###), (B###, C###)... tupleAC = (A####, C###), (A###, C###), (A###, C###)... My ideal output would be a dictionary with a unique ID and a list of "reinforced" matches. The way I try to think about it is in a graph-based context. For example, if: tupleAB[x] = (A0001, B0012) tupleBC[y] = (B0012, C0230) tupleAC[z] = (A0001, C0230) This would produce: output = {uniquekey0001, [A0001, B0012, C0230]} Ideally, this would also be able to scale up to more than three tuples (for example, adding a "D" match that would result in an additional three tuples - AD, BD, and CD - and lists of four items long; and so forth). In regards to scaling up to more tuples, I am open to having "graphs" that aren't necessarily fully connected, i.e., every node connected to every other node. My hunch is that I could easily filter based on the list lengths. I am open to any suggestions. I think, with a few cups of coffee, I could work out a brute force solution, but I thought I'd ask the community if anyone was aware of a more elegant solution. Thanks for any feedback.

    Read the article

  • Div on top of Div using z-index.

    - by Iacks
    I have the following divs in my HTML: <div class="main"> <div class="bgimage"></div> <div class="content">Text</div> which is directly inside my body. With the following CSS: .content{filter:alpha(opacity=50);-moz-opacity: 0.5;opacity: 0.5;} .content{position:relative;z-index:1;border:#000 thin solid;width:960px;margin-left:auto;margin-right:auto;background-color:#000;} .bgimage{position:absolute;z-index:-1;width:1024px;height:768px;margin-left:auto;margin-right:auto;background-image:url(bg1.jpg);} Basically, I have a Div that with a display of a background image, and I will have another Div on top of this with transparency. This current code works, but my problem is when I am trying to take the content div down from the top. When I add margin-top:100px, for example, is also brings the image down. I thought it would not touch it if it is not on the same z-index? Why does adding a margin also force the bgimage div down? I have also tried making the div with class of content a position of absolute and a zindex, but then this won't centre. How should I solve this?

    Read the article

  • Java Code for calculating Leap Year, is this code correct ?

    - by Ibn Saeed
    Hello I am following "The Art and Science of Java" book and it shows how to calculate a leap year. The book uses ACM Java Task Force's library. Here is the code the books uses: import acm.program.*; public class LeapYear extends ConsoleProgram { public void run() { println("This program calculates leap year."); int year = readInt("Enter the year: "); boolean isLeapYear = ((year % 4 == 0) && (year % 100 != 0) || (year % 400 == 0)); if (isLeapYear) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else println(year + " is not a leap year."); } } Now, this is how I calculated the leap year. import acm.program.*; public class LeapYear extends ConsoleProgram { public void run() { println("This program calculates leap year."); int year = readInt("Enter the year: "); if ((year % 4 == 0) && year % 100 != 0) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else if ((year % 4 == 0) && (year % 100 == 0) && (year % 400 == 0)) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else { println(year + " is not a leap year."); } } } Is there anything wrong with my code or should i use the one provided by the book ? EDIT :: Both of the above code works fine, What i want to ask is which code is the best way to calculate the leap year.

    Read the article

  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

    Read the article

  • Overlapping 2 Flash objects and controlling z-index

    - by Magnus Smith
    I have two Flash objects on a webpage (call them A and B), and they overlap so one partially obscures the other. I don't seem to have any control over the z-index, to force B in front of A. Whatever I try, A always 'wins' and stays on the top! I have read many people's posts about problem with getting HTML to show over the top of Flash...but nothing about when your two overlapping items are both Flash objects. I have tried various combinations of wmode=opaque/transparent/window I have tried CSS position:absolute/relative and z-index:0/999 I have tried placing the HTML sections in a different order The problem is the same in IE6 and Firefox 2.0 I do not want to use jQuery in this case In my particular situation B must have position:absolute and wmode=transparent, and sit above A. A needs relative positioning and transparency is not required. However, I have been testing without these restrictions, and I still have no control over the overlap. Are some SWFs (ours are adverts sent by clients) created in such a way as to override any code control of z-index? Thanks for any advice you can give.

    Read the article

  • WinForms - DateTimePicker default month selection behavior for Server 2003 vs Server 2008?

    - by Mike Loux
    Good Afternoon! Has anybody else noticed a change in the default behavior of the "next" and "previous" month arrows in the standard WinForms DateTimePicker control? I have users running on both Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 R2, and they are reporting that on 2008 (and Vista/Win7), clicking the right or left arrows on the drop-down Calendar now selects the first day of the month rather than retaining the same day like 2003 (and XP) does. I have checked this out (I have a Win7 machine) and I have confirmed this behavior. I would prefer that the behavior remain consistent whenever possible. Does anybody know what causes this and if there is a way to get around this? Is there a way to trap the arrow-click event and force the resulting date to retain the original day rather than be reset to the first of the month? I thought about seeing if there was a way to hit-test the control on a MouseUp event and determine if the arrow buttons were clicked, and then override the month value being set, but I'm not sure if that is even possible. Can anybody provide some wisdom or insight? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

    - by huffmaster
    So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

    Read the article

  • C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

    - by KaiserJohaan
    Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

    Read the article

  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

    Read the article

  • Confused about UIView frame property

    - by slowfungus
    I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

    Read the article

  • Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

    - by Wonko the Sane
    I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

    Read the article

  • JavaApplicationStub with SWT causing problems

    - by mystro
    I created an application in Eclipse that uses SWT for the GUI. I've attempted to deploy the application using the Eclipse deploy, but it seems that when I do that, LSUIElement is not respected, and I can't force the application to disappear from the dock. Nonwhistanding that issue, the application actually deploys ok and is runnable. I attempted to deploy the application using Jar Bundler, but when I try to run the application, I get the following errors: 2010-06-09 21:44:02.564 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10021f260 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.568 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10010a0a0 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.569 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001127a0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.582 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff70b7af70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.583 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100123ea0 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.587 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225b90 of class NSCFDictionary autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.588 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225ee0 of class __NSFastEnumerationEnumerator autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking in a very, very, very, long list. The application launches and appears to hang with the icon constantly bouncing in the dock, and the first GUI menu only partially loaded (it looks like one of the text boxes is semi visible, and the overall rectangle is the right size, but the GUI is not showing properly. It is essentially hung.) I'm hoping someone has had experience with this problem, and may be able to help! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to create TestContext for Spring Test?

    - by HDave
    Newcomer to Spring here, so pardon me if this is a stupid question. I have a relatively small Java library that implements a few dozen beans (no database or GUI). I have created a Spring Bean configuration file that other Java projects use to inject my beans into their stuff. I am now for the first time trying to use Spring Test to inject some of these beans into my junit test classes (rather than simply instantiating them). I am doing this partly to learn Spring Test and partly to force the tests to use the same bean configuration file I provide for others. In the Spring documentation is says I need to create an application context using the "TestContext" class that comes with Spring. I believe this should be done in a spring XML file that I reference via the @ContextConfiguration annotation on my test class. @ContextConfiguration({"/test-applicationContext.xml"}) However, there is no hint as to what to put in the file! When I go to run my tests from within Eclipse it errors out saying "failed to load Application Context"....of course.

    Read the article

  • Using the hardware keyboard to simulate button press on Android

    - by Bevor
    Hello, it is difficult to test a game with the mouse pointer on android buttons. I would like to control those buttons with the hardware keyboard. Actually I don't want to control the buttons itself but I want to control the behaviour the buttons would also do. For example I have 4 buttons in the android application with "arrow up, down, left, right". I'd like to use the arrow buttons of my hardware keyboard to control the same. How can I do that? Actually the question is, where can I set the Listener? I tried something in my activity. I set this listener to the application button: button.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_DOWN) //scroll down return true; } }); The behaviour is the following: I can't scroll down with my hardware keyboard but with the hardware keyboard I can select the android buttons (they will be highlighted when I move on any button). After I selected the button with the Listener I can't select any other button anymore but then the Listener comes into force. Now I can scroll down with the hardware keyboard arrow down button. I would like to achieve this behaviour without selecting any button. So I thought about setting the listener to the layout container or any other layout but this has no effect. Is there any other approach to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • .htaccess Redirect Loop, adding multiple .php extensions

    - by Ryan Smith
    I have sort of a small parent/teacher social network set up for my school. I use my .htaccess file to make the links to teacher profiles cleaner and to add a trailing slash to all urls. I get this problem when going to /teachers/teacher-name/ the link (sometimes) redirects to /teachers/teacher-name.php.php.php.php.php.php.php.php... Below is my .htaccess file. Sometimes if I clear my browser cache in Chrome it temporarily fixes it. I can't exactly wright .htaccess syntax, but I'm pretty familiar with it. Any suggestions are appreciated! RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / #remove php ext RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/$ $1.php RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/([^/]+)/$ $1/$2.php #force trailing slash/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)([^/])$ /$1$2/ [L,R=301] #other rewrites RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/profile.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/$ /teachers/posts.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/post.php?u=$1&p=$2 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/album.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/slideshow/$ /gallery/slideshow.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/photo.php?a=$1&p=$2&e=$3 EDIT:I have attached a screenshot of exactly what I'm talking about.

    Read the article

  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

    Read the article

  • DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

    - by Thomas
    I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

    Read the article

  • Drupal administration theme doesn't apply to Blocks pages (admin/build/block)

    - by hfidgen
    A site I'm creating for a customer in D6 has various images overlaying parts of the main content area. It looks very pretty and they have to be there for the general effect. The problem is, if you use this theme in the administration pages, the images get in the way of everything. My solution was to create a custom admin theme, based on the default one, which has these image areas disabled in the output template files - page.tpl.php The problem is that when you try and edit the blocks page, it uses the default theme and half the blocks admin settings are unclickable behind the images. I KNOW this is by design in Drupal, but it's annoying the hell out of me and is edging towards "bug" rather than "feature" in my mind. It also appears that there is no way of getting around it. You can edit /modules/blocks/block.admin.inc to force Drupal to show the blocks page in the chosen admin theme. BUT whichever changes you then make will not be transferred to the default theme, as Drupal treats each theme separately and each theme can have different block layouts. :x function block_admin_display($theme = NULL) { global $custom_theme; // If non-default theme configuration has been selected, set the custom theme. // $custom_theme = isset($theme) ? $theme : variable_get('theme_default', 'garland'); // Display admin theme $custom_theme = variable_get('admin_theme', '0'); // Fetch and sort blocks $blocks = _block_rehash(); usort($blocks, '_block_compare'); return drupal_get_form('block_admin_display_form', $blocks, $theme); } Can anyone help? the only thing I can think of is to push the $content area well below the areas where the image appear and use blocks only for content display. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244  | Next Page >