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• Find if a user is facing a certain Location using Digital Compass by constructing a triangle and usi

  - by Aidan

  Hi Guys, I'm constructing a geolocation based application and I'm trying to figure out a way to make my application realise when a user is facing the direction of the given location (a particular long / lat co-ord). I've done some Googling and checked the SDK but can't really find anything for such a thing. Does anyone know of a way? To clarify Android knows my location, the second location and my orientation. What I want is a way for Android to recognise when my orientation is "facing" the second location (e.g within 90 Degrees or so). We're also assuming that the user is stationary and needs updates every second or so therefore getBearing(); is useless. Alright so we get it has to be math, there appears to be no simple SDK stuff we can use. I did some searching of my own and found Barycentric Co-ords http://www.blackpawn.com/texts/pointinpoly/default.html . So what I'm trying to do now is map the camera's field of view. For Example if the person is facing a certain direction the program should construct a triangle around that field of view, e.g it should make one vertices the phone's position and then go out either side for a set distance making the 2 end points vertices constructing a triangle. If I had this I could then apply Barycentric co-ords to see if the point lay within the newly constructed triangle. Idea's anyone? Example. I could get my current orientation, add 45 to it and go up X distance one side and subtact 45 and go up X distance the other side to find my 2 other points. Though, how would I make android know which way it should go "up" I guess? It would know its baring as this stage so I need it to recognise it's bearing and go out that direction.

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• Symfony 2 - Updating a table based on newly inserted record in another table

  - by W00d5t0ck

  I'm trying to create a small forum application using Symfony 2 and Doctrine 2. My ForumTopic entity has a last_post field (oneToOne mapping). Now when I persist my new post with $em->persist($post); I want to update my ForumTopic entity so its last_post field would reference this new post. I have just realised that it cannot be done with a Doctrine postPersist Listener, so I decided to use a small hack, and tried: $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); $topic->setLastPost($post); $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); but it doesn't seem to update my topics table. I also took a look at http://docs.doctrine-project.org/projects/doctrine-orm/en/2.1/reference/working-with-associations.html#transitive-persistence-cascade-operations hoping it will solve the problem by adding cascade: [ 'persist' ] to my Topic.orm.yml file, but it didn't help, either. Could anyone point me to a solution or an example class? My ForumTopic is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumTopic: type: entity table: forum_topics id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: title: type: string(100) nullable: false slug: type: string(100) nullable: false created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: text nullable: true oneToMany: posts: targetEntity: ForumPost mappedBy: topic manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: articles nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic_group: targetEntity: ForumTopicGroup inversedBy: topics nullable: false oneToOne: last_post: targetEntity: ForumPost nullable: true default: null cascade: [ persist ] uniqueConstraint: uniqueSlugByGroup: columns: [ topic_group, slug ] And my ForumPost is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumPost: type: entity table: forum_posts id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: string nullable: true text: type: text nullable: false manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: forum_posts nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic: targetEntity: ForumTopic inversedBy: posts

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• How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

  - by RememberME

  I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

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• Fixing an SQL where statement that is ugly and confusing

  - by Mike Wills

  I am directly querying the back-end MS SQL Server for a software package. The key field (vehicle number) is defined as alpha though we are entering numeric value in the field. There is only one exception to this, we place an "R" before the number when the vehicle is being retired (which means we sold it or the vehicle is junked). Assuming the users do this right, we should not run into a problem using this method. (Right or wrong isn't the issue here) Fast forward to now. I am trying to query a subset of these vehicle numbers (800 - 899) for some special processing. By doing a range of '800' to '899' we also get 80, 81, etc. If I cast the vehicle number into an INT, I should be able to get the right range. Except that these "R" vehicles are kicking me in the butt now. I have tried where vehicleId not like 'R%' and cast(vehicleId as int) between 800 and 899 however, I get a casting error on one of these "R" vehicles. What does work is where vehicleId not between '800' and '899' and cast(vehicleId as int) between 800 and 899', but I feel there has to be a better way and less confusing way. I have also tried other variations with HAVING and a sub-query all producing a casting error.

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• How can I use CssResources in UiBinder a generated Cell?

  - by confile

  I want to generate a Cell for a CellWidget with the UiBinder (UiRenderer). What I did to generate the cell is in MyCell.java: public class MyCell implements AbstractCell<MyDto> { public interface Resources extends ClientBundle { @Source({Css.DEFAULT_CSS }) Css css(); } public interface Css extends CssResource { String DEFAULT_CSS = "test/MyStyle.css"; String test(); } interface MyUiRenderer extends UiRenderer { void render(SafeHtmlBuilder sb, String name, SafeStyles styles); } private static MyUiRenderer renderer = GWT.create(MyUiRenderer.class); Resources resources = GWT.create(Resources.class); @Override public void render(SafeHtmlBuilder safeHtmlBuilder, MyDto model) { SafeStyles style = SafeStylesUtils.fromTrustedString(resources.css().test().toString()); renderer.render(safeHtmlBuilder, model.getName(), style); } } My MyCell.ui.xml file looks like this: <!DOCTYPE ui:UiBinder SYSTEM "http://dl.google.com/gwt/DTD/xhtml.ent"> <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui='urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder'> <ui:with field="name" type="java.lang.String" /> <ui:with field='styles' type='com.google.gwt.safecss.shared.SafeStyles'/> <div style="{styles}"><ui:text from="{name}" /></div> </ui:UiBinder> MyStyle.css: .test { background-color: red; font-size: 20px; display: flex; ... } When I run my code I get the following error: [DEBUG] [mobile] - Rebinding test.client.app.MyCell.MyUiRenderer [DEBUG] [mobile] - Invoking generator com.google.gwt.uibinder.rebind.UiBinderGenerator [ERROR] [mobile] - java.lang.String required, but {styles} returns com.google.gwt.safecss.shared.SafeStyles: <div style='{styles}'> (:9) [ERROR] [mobile] - Deferred binding failed for 'test.client.app.MyCell.MyUiRenderer'; expect subsequent failures [ERROR] [mobile] - (GWT.java:72) 2014-06-08 17:15:05,214 [FATAL] Uncaught Exception: Then I tried to this: in my UiBinder but it does not work. How can I use css style from a CssResource in my UiRenderer?

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• Setting initial state of a JSF component to invalid

  - by user359391

  Hi there I have a small JSF application where the user is required to enter some data about themselves. For each component on the page that has required="true" I want to show an icon depending if there is data in the field or not. My problem is that when the page is initially shown all fields are valid, even if they do not have any data in them. So my question is how I can set a component to be invalid based on if there is data in the field or not? After a submit of the page (or after the component loses focus) the icon is shown properly, it is only on the initial page load I have a problem. (i.e there is no post data) Here is my xhtml for a component that needs to be validated: <s:decorate id="employeeIdDecoration" template="/general/util/errorStyle.xhtml"> <ui:define name="label">#{messages['userdetails.employeeId']}</ui:define> <h:inputText value="#{authenticator.user.employeeId}" required="true"> <a4j:support event="onblur" reRender="employeeIdDecoration" bypassUpdates="true"/> </h:inputText> the template: <s:label styleClass="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <ui:insert name="label"/> <s:span styleClass="required" rendered="#{required}">*</s:span> </s:label> <span class="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <s:validateAll> <ui:insert/> </s:validateAll> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/redx.png" rendered="#{invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/Checkmark.png" rendered="#{!invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> </span> Any help will be appreciated.

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• MVC3 html.TextBox

  - by BigTommy79

  I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

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• Make form redirect users after posting

  - by Liso22

  I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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• How to speed up a slow UPDATE query

  - by Mike Christensen

  I have the following UPDATE query: UPDATE Indexer.Pages SET LastError=NULL where LastError is not null; Right now, this query takes about 93 minutes to complete. I'd like to find ways to make this a bit faster. The Indexer.Pages table has around 506,000 rows, and about 490,000 of them contain a value for LastError, so I doubt I can take advantage of any indexes here. The table (when uncompressed) has about 46 gigs of data in it, however the majority of that data is in a text field called html. I believe simply loading and unloading that many pages is causing the slowdown. One idea would be to make a new table with just the Id and the html field, and keep Indexer.Pages as small as possible. However, testing this theory would be a decent amount of work since I actually don't have the hard disk space to create a copy of the table. I'd have to copy it over to another machine, drop the table, then copy the data back which would probably take all evening. Ideas? I'm using Postgres 9.0.0. UPDATE: Here's the schema: CREATE TABLE indexer.pages ( id uuid NOT NULL, url character varying(1024) NOT NULL, firstcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, lastcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, recipeid uuid, html text NOT NULL, lasterror character varying(1024), missingings smallint, CONSTRAINT pages_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id ), CONSTRAINT indexer_pages_uniqueurl UNIQUE (url ) ); I also have two indexes: CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_missingings ON indexer.pages USING btree (missingings ) WHERE missingings > 0; and CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_null ON indexer.pages USING btree (recipeid ) WHERE NULL::boolean; There are no triggers on this table, and there is one other table that has a FK constraint on Pages.PageId.

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• posting form with file upload

  - by Jan

  I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

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• HiddenField.Value is an empty string upon postback inside my custom control

  - by Matthew Cox

  I have a custom control that has a hidden field. Upon postback I want to obtain the value stored in it, but it's always an empty string. any thoughts? I am performing client-side manipulation of the hidden field values and have verified in firebug that the fields are correct before issue a post back Here is the setup: public class DualListPanel : SWebControl, INamingContainer { protected IList<DlpItem> UnassignedList { get; set; } protected IList<DlpItem> AssignedList { get; set; } private HiddenField assignedItemsField, unassignedItemsField; public DualListPanel() { CssClass = "DualListPanel"; EnableViewState = true; } #region ViewState protected override void LoadViewState(object savedState) { var state = savedState as object[]; UnassignedList = state[0] as List<DlpItem>; AssignedList = state[1] as List<DlpItem>; base.LoadViewState(state[2]); } protected override object SaveViewState() { object[] state = new object[3]; state[0] = UnassignedList; state[1] = AssignedList; state[2] = base.SaveViewState(); return state; } #endregion #region WebControl Overrides protected override void CreateChildControls() { assignedItemsField = new HiddenField(); assignedItemsField.ID = "HiddenAssignedItems"; assignedItemsField.EnableViewState = true; unassignedItemsField = new HiddenField(); unassignedItemsField.ID = "HiddenUnassignedItems"; unassignedItemsField.EnableViewState = true; Controls.Add(assignedItemsField); Controls.Add(unassignedItemsField); base.CreateChildControls(); } #endregion #region Item Lists Retrieval public string GetCommaDelimUnassignedItems() { return unassignedItemsField.Value; } public string GetCommaDelimAssignedItems() { return assignedItemsField.Value; } #endregion }

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• How to avoid concurrent execution of a time-consuming task without blocking?

  - by Diego V

  I want to efficiently avoid concurrent execution of a time-consuming task in a heavily multi-threaded environment without making threads wait for a lock when another thread is already running the task. Instead, in that scenario, I want them to gracefully fail (i.e. skip its attempt to execute the task) as fast as possible. To illustrate the idea considerer this unsafe (has race condition!) code: private static boolean running = false; public void launchExpensiveTask() { if (running) return; // Do nothing running = true; try { runExpensiveTask(); } finally { running = false; } } I though about using a variation of Double-Checked Locking (consider that running is a primitive 32-bit field, hence atomic, it could work fine even for Java below 5 without the need of volatile). It could look like this: private static boolean running = false; public void launchExpensiveTask() { if (running) return; // Do nothing synchronized (ThisClass.class) { if (running) return; running = true; try { runExpensiveTask(); } finally { running = false; } } } Maybe I should also use a local copy of the field as well (not sure now, please tell me). But then I realized that anyway I will end with an inner synchronization block, that still could hold a thread with the right timing at monitor entrance until the original executor leaves the critical section (I know the odds usually are minimal but in this case we are thinking in several threads competing for this long-running resource). So, could you think in a better approach?

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• Excel, Pivot Calculated formula: SUM(Field1)/AVG(Field2)

  - by Bas

  I've a simple table with some amount and interval in sec by date and product name. Month | Product | Amount | Interval in sec ------------------------------------------ 05-'12| Prod A | 10 | 5 05-'12| Prod A | 3 | 5 05-'12| Prod B | 4 | 5 05-'12| Prod C | 13 | 5 05-'12| Prod C | 5 | 5 From this table I've derived a Pivot table with SUM(Amount), AVERAGE(Interval in sec) by Month and Product. Month | Product | SUM of Amount | AVG of Interval in sec -------------------------------------------------------- 05-'12| Prod A | 13 | 5 05-'12| Prod B | 4 | 5 05-'12| Prod C | 18 | 5 So far So good... Now i want to add and extra column to my Pivot table with gives me the outcome of SUM of Amount / AVG of Interval in sec Adding a calculated value =SUM(Amount)/AVERAGE(Interval) is not giving me the right values. Exel gives me. Month | Product | SUM of Amount | AVG of Interval in sec | Amount per sec ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 05-'12| Prod A | 13 | 5 | 1.3 05-'12| Prod B | 4 | 5 | 0.8 05-'12| Prod C | 18 | 5 | 1.8 What it actually is doing is =SUM(Amount)/SUM(Interval in sec) for every Month and Product based on the values in the first table... But I'm looking for Month | Product | SUM of Amount | AVG of Interval in sec | Amount per sec ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 05-'12| Prod A | 13 | 5 | 2.6 05-'12| Prod B | 4 | 5 | 0.8 05-'12| Prod C | 18 | 5 | 3.6 So litterly devide pivot field 'Sum of Amount' by pivot field 'AVG of Interval in sec' How to achieve this? Thank you in advanced

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• Better way to catch trouble points

  - by mac

  User submits a CSV file which is consumed by a program. Values which are used throughout the program come from the CSV, natually if values are missed it is a problem. Below is my solution. Ip on top private List<String> currentFieldName = new ArrayList<String>(); As part of the method: try { setCurrentFieldName("Trim Space"); p.setTrimSpace(currentLineArray[dc.getTRIM_POSITION()].equals("yes") ? true : false); setCurrentFieldName("Ignore Case"); p.setIgnoreCase(currentLineArray[dc.getIGNORE_CASE_POSITION()].equals("yes") ? true : false); } catch (NullPointerException e) { throw new InputSpreadsheetValueUnassignedException("\"Type\" field not set: " + currentFieldName); } And the method which keeps track of a current field being looked at: private void setCurrentFieldName(String fieldName) { currentFieldName.clear(); currentFieldName.add(fieldName); } The idea there is that if user fails to submit value and i will end up getting null, before throwing an exception, i will know what value was not assigned. So, this being said, specific questions: Is what i have shown below an acceptable solution? Can you suggest something more elegant?

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• In CakePHP, how do I create a form to list models withing a date range?

  - by anonymous coward

  I have a very simple model that includes the auto-filled field much like 'created'. (DateTime format). I'd like to use the Form helpers if possible, to validate the date fields and whatnot. I'd like a simple form with a "Begin Date" (YMD, 12 hours), and an "End Date" (same format). There is already a controller action set up as follows: function view_between($start_date = null, $end_date = null) { // ... stuff that works correctly when the URL is manually entered. } Have I defined the controller wrong, or how can I pass these values into that function? The reason I'm stuck is because I tried adding a $form->input('my_datetime_field' ...) twice, but obviously the name/id were the same on the respective elements. I have also tried using $form->dateTime(...) with similar results. I'm not sure how to uniquely identify a Begin and End date selection, when it should interact with a single field. Am I going about this wrong? A kind shove in the right direction should suffice.

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• Can a dropdown box using PHP / MySQL automatically select what was last saved in the database with it?

  - by wertz8090

  I am currently working on trying to get a dropdown box to display the most recently saved field each time I open a page for editing an item in an inventory. For example, let's say that my dropdown box selections are Iron, Copper, Gold, Silver, Titanium. The first time the dropdown box loads, I would like it to load in that order (the default order that I set it to). However, once a user submits a form that specifies a selection, I would like that selection to appear as the new default for the dropdown box (for example, if the user picks Gold, Gold will now display as the default). However - the new default that is selected and submitted can only appear for those fields which it is saved under (for example, since the user selected Gold, their preference is now saved as Gold and will appear as such under the field Necklace - however, Gold should not be the default for the fields Ring, Bracelet, and Earring when I open a page to view them). Basically, I need a dropdown box that can save the option of the latest selection on a page after the form is submitted, while at the same time making sure not to affect the default order of the dropdown box across other pages. Your help is much appreciated.

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• UTF-8 support in java application

  - by jacekn

  I'm having trouble with UTF-8. common.jsp <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> typical.jsp <%@ include file="common.jsp" %> Page Head <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> Form <form id="screenObject" accept-charset="UTF-8" action="/SiteAdmin/articleHeaderEdit?articleId=15" method="post"> I enter non latin1 characters into a text field and click Save. Validator complains about another field and stops the submission. This never gets to the database, so database ability to handle UTF-8 is not in this picture. The page redisplays with appropriate error but the text that had been entered is all messed up. All non latin1 characters are converted to some gibberish. I'm using Spring 3 MVC, in case that matters... Attempts Adding this to my view resolver didn't help: <property name="contentType" value="text/html;charset=UTF-8" />

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• java script is not working in mozila

  - by Piyush

  I have added some javascript in html page for input validation.same page is working correct in IE and chrome but in mozila its not working.The problem is when user inputs invalid data its supposed to show alert msg box and when user clicks OK it should return false to form...BUT mozila is not waiting for alert box it just shows alert box for 5-6 sec and then goes to next page defined in form action="nextpage.php" function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if (validate_required(oldpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Old Password!") == false) { changeColor("oldpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(newpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the New Password!!") == false) {newpassword.value=""; changeColor("newpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(cnfpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Confirm Password!!") == false) {cnfpassword.value=""; changeColor("cnfpassword"); return false; } else if (document.getElementById('newpassword').value != document.getElementById('cnfpassword').value) {changeColor("newpassword");cool.error("<b>Error: </b>Passwords entered are not same!"); newpassword.value="";cnfpassword.value="";return false;} } }function validate_required(field, alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value == null || value == "") { cool.error(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } cool.error is nothing but CSS nd Js for alert box.I thing there is not any problem in my code weather problem is in some browser settings.Is it so??? because it is working fine in IE and Chrome.

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• Fast serialization/deserialization of structs

  - by user256890

  I have huge amont of geographic data represented in simple object structure consisting only structs. All of my fields are of value type. public struct Child { readonly float X; readonly float Y; readonly int myField; } public struct Parent { readonly int id; readonly int field1; readonly int field2; readonly Child[] children; } The data is chunked up nicely to small portions of Parent[]-s. Each array contains a few thousands Parent instances. I have way too much data to keep all in memory, so I need to swap these chunks to disk back and forth. (One file would result approx. 2-300KB). What would be the most efficient way of serializing/deserializing the Parent[] to a byte[] for dumpint to disk and reading back? Concerning speed, I am particularly interested in fast deserialization, write speed is not that critical. Would simple BinarySerializer good enough? Or should I hack around with StructLayout (see accepted answer)? I am not sure if that would work with array field of Parent.children. UPDATE: Response to comments - Yes, the objects are immutable (code updated) and indeed the children field is not value type. 300KB sounds not much but I have zillions of files like that, so speed does matter.

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• Get parent attribute within new child form?

  - by dannymcc

  I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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• How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by Alex

  Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

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• In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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• Lucene Search Returning Extra, Undesired Records

  - by Brandon

  I have a Lucene index that contains a field called 'Name'. I escape all special characters before inserting a value into my index using QueryParser.Escape(value). In my example I have 2 documents with the following names respectively: Test Test (Test) They get inserted into my index as such (I can confirm this using Luke): [test] [test] [\(test\)] I insert these values as TOKENIZED and using the StandardAnalyzer. When I perform a search, I use the QueryParser.Escape(searchString) against my search string input to escape special characters and then use the QueryParser with my 'Name' field and the StandardAnalyzer to perform my search. When I perform a search for 'Test', I get back both documents in my index (as expected). However, when I perform a search for 'Test (Test)', I am getting back both documents still. I realize that in both examples it matches on the 'test' term in the index, but I am confused in my 2nd example why it would not just pull back the document with the value of 'Test (Test)' because my search should create two terms: [test] and [\(test\)] I would imagine it would perform some sort of boolean operator where BOTH terms must match in that situation so I would get back just one record. Is there something I am missing or a trick to make the search behave as desired?

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• Visual Basic: Newbie questions.

  - by Omega

  Hello there. I am starting to learn visual basic. So far, it is quite simple and easy to use. I am liking it! Anyway, I want to make applications a little bit more complex. So far I have done very silly things. I would appreciate if you could help me with these: How do I open a new window (form)? Maybe I click a button on my main form and another form pops up. How do I "deactivate" the main form while the new form is running? (if I try to click the main form, an error sound plays) So my second form has a text field and a "OK" button. If I click it, the second form closes activating the main form again. I want to "pass" the text in the text field from the second form to the first one. How do I do that? Thank you, I am enjoying this new programming environment (didn't use Visual Studio much before)

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• update record only works when there is no auto_increment

  - by every_answer_gets_a_point

  i am accessing a mysql table through an odbc connection in excel here is how i am updating the table: With rs .AddNew ' create a new record ' add values to each field in the record .Fields("datapath") = dpath .Fields("analysistime") = atime .Fields("reporttime") = rtime .Fields("lastcalib") = lcalib .Fields("analystname") = aname .Fields("reportname") = rname .Fields("batchstate") = "bstate" .Fields("instrument") = "NA" .Update ' stores the new record End With when the schema of the table is this, updating it works: create table batchinfo(datapath text,analysistime text,reporttime text,lastcalib text,analystname text, reportname text, batchstate text, instrument text); but when i have auto_increment in there it does not work: CREATE TABLE batchinfo ( rowid int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, datapath text, analysistime text, reporttime text, lastcalib text, analystname text, reportname text, batchstate text, instrument text, PRIMARY KEY (rowid) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=67 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 has anyone experienced a problem like this where updating does not work when there is an auto_increment field involved? connection string: Private Sub ConnectDB() Set oConn = New ADODB.Connection oConn.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=localhost;" & _ "DATABASE=employees;" & _ "USER=root;" & _ "PASSWORD=pas;" & _ "Option=3" End Sub also here's the rs.open: rs.Open "batchinfo", oConn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic, adCmdTable

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