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  • Copying metadata over a database link in Oracle 10g

    - by Tunde
    Thanks in advance for your help experts. I want to be able to copy over database objects from database A into database B with a procedure created on database B. I created a database link between the two and have tweaked the get_ddl function of the dbms_metadata to look like this: create or replace function GetDDL ( p_name in MetaDataPkg.t_string p_type in MetaDataPkg.t_string ) return MetaDataPkg.t_longstring is -- clob v_clob clob; -- array of long strings c_SYSPrefix constant char(4) := 'SYS_'; c_doublequote constant char(1) := '"'; v_longstrings metadatapkg.t_arraylongstring; v_schema metadatapkg.t_string; v_fullength pls_integer := 0; v_offset pls_integer := 0; v_length pls_integer := 0; begin SELECT DISTINCT OWNER INTO v_schema FROM all_objects@ENTORA where object_name = upper(p_name); -- get DDL v_clob := dbms_metadata.get_ddl(p_type, upper(p_name), upper(v_schema)); -- get CLOB length v_fullength := dbms_lob.GetLength(v_clob); for nIndex in 1..ceil(v_fullength / 32767) loop v_offset := v_length + 1; v_length := least(v_fullength - (nIndex - 1) * 32767, 32767); dbms_lob.read(v_clob, v_length, v_offset, v_longstrings(nIndex)); -- Remove table’s owner from DDL string: v_longstrings(nIndex) := replace( v_longstrings(nIndex), c_doublequote || user || c_doublequote || '.', '' ); -- Remove the following from DDL string: -- 1) "new line" characters (chr(10)) -- 2) leading and trailing spaces v_longstrings(nIndex) := ltrim(rtrim(replace(v_longstrings(nIndex), chr(10), ''))); end loop; -- close CLOB if (dbms_lob.isOpen(v_clob) > 0) then dbms_lob.close(v_clob); end if; return v_longstrings(1); end GetDDL; so as to remove the schema prefix that usually comes with metadata. I get a null value whenever I run this function over the database link with the following queries. select getddl( 'TABLE', 'TABLE1') from user_tables@ENTORA where table_name = 'TABLE1'; select getddl( 'TABLE', 'TABLE1') from dual@ENTORA; t_string is varchar2(30) t_longstring is varchar2(32767) and type t_ArrayLongString is table of t_longstring I would really appreciate it if any one could help. Many thanks.

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  • Embedded "Smart" character LCD driver. Is this a good idea?

    - by chris12892
    I have an embedded project that I am working on, and I am currently coding the character LCD driver. At the moment, the LCD driver only supports "dumb" writing. For example, let's say line 1 has some text on it, and I make a call to the function that writes to the line. The function will simply seek to the beginning of the line and write the text (plus enough whitespace to erase whatever was last written). This is well and good, but I get the feeling it is horribly inefficient sometimes, since some lines are simply: "Some-reading: some-Value" Rather than "brute force" replacing the entire line, I wanted to develop some code that would figure out the best way to update the information on the LCD. (just as background, it takes 2 bytes to seek to any char position. I can then begin writing the string) My idea was to first have a loop. This loop would compare the input to the last write, and in doing so, it would cover two things: A: Collect all the differences between the last write and the input. For every contiguous segment (be it same or different) add two bytes to the byte count. This is referenced in B to determine if we are wasting serial bandwidth. B: The loop would determine if this is really a smart thing to do. If we end up using more bytes to update the line than to "brute force" the line, then we should just return and let the brute force method take over. We should exit the smart write function as soon as this condition is met to avoid wasting time. The next part of the function would take all the differences, seek to the required char on the LCD, and write them. Thus, if we have a string like this already on the LCD: "Current Temp: 80F" and we want to update it to "Current Temp: 79F" The function will go through and see that it would take less bandwidth to simply seek to the "8" and write "79". The "7" will cover the "8" and the "9" will cover the "0". That way, we don't waste time writing out the entire string. Does this seem like a practical idea?

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  • Gotchas INSERTing into SQLite on Android?

    - by paul.meier
    Hi friends, I'm trying to set up a simple SQLite database in Android, handling the schema via a subclass of SQLiteOpenHelper. However, when I query my tables, the columns I think I've inserted are never present. Namely, in SQLiteOpenHelper's onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) method, I use db.execSQL() to run CREATE TABLE commands, then have tried both db.execSQL and db.insert() to run INSERT commands on the tables I've just created. This appears to run fine, but when I try to query them I always get 0 rows returned (for debugging, the queries I'm running are simple SELECT * FROM table and checking the Cursor's getCount()). Anybody run into anything like this before? These commands seem to run on command-line sqlite3. Are they're gotchas that I'm missing (e.g. INSERTS must/must not be semicolon terminated, or some issue involving multiple tables)? I've attached some of the code below. Thanks for your time, and let me know if I can clarify further. @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ LEVEL_TABLE +" (" + " "+ _ID +" INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT," + " level TEXT NOT NULL,"+ " rows INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " cols INTEGER NOT NULL);"); db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ DYNAMICS_TABLE +" (" + " level_id INTEGER NOT NULL," + " row INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " col INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " type INTEGER NOT NULL);"); db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ SCORE_TABLE +" (" + " level_id INTEGER NOT NULL," + " score INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " date_achieved DATE NOT NULL,"+ " name TEXT NOT NULL);"); this.enterFirstLevel(db); } And a sample of the insert code I'm currently using, which gets called in enterFirstLevel() (some values hard-coded just to get it running...): private void insertDynamic(SQLiteDatabase db, int row, int col, int type) { ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put("level_id", "1"); values.put("row", Integer.toString(row)); values.put("col", Integer.toString(col)); values.put("type", Integer.toString(type)); db.insertOrThrow(DYNAMICS_TABLE, "col", values); } Finally, query code looks like this: private Cursor fetchLevelDynamics(int id) { SQLiteDatabase db = this.leveldata.getReadableDatabase(); try { String fetchQuery = "SELECT * FROM " + DYNAMICS_TABLE; String[] queryArgs = new String[0]; Cursor cursor = db.rawQuery(fetchQuery, queryArgs); Activity activity = (Activity) this.context; activity.startManagingCursor(cursor); return cursor; } finally { db.close(); } }

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  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • Selenium: How to use stored value in a javascript comparison

    - by dstrube
    I've searched around for the answer to this and found lots of much more complicated questions, but none that gave me insight enough to figure this one out. What I'm doing: 1- open a page with a number that will probably be large 2- get the X Path to where that number is and store it to a variable 3- do a javascript to compare the above stored variable to see if it is bigger than 10, if so, set a new varaible to true; else false (because that is the default value) 4- verify the variable in #3 is true Sounds simple enough, no? Where it goes wrong: At step 3, comparing the variable from step #2 to 10 isn't allowed, at least not the way I'm writing it. Why? Details: <tr> <td>open</td> <td>http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=selenium+verifyEval</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>store</td> <td>/html/body/div[5]/div/p/b[3]</td> <td>resultCount</td> </tr> <tr> <td>storeEval</td> <td>var isMoreThan10 = new Boolean(); isMoreThan10 = (resultCount &gt; 10);</td> <td>isMoreThan10</td> </tr> <tr> <td>verifyExpression</td> <td>${isMoreThan10}</td> <td>true</td> </tr> I just thought of one possible workaround: Exapnd the javascript code to get the value there & assign it to a variable there so I'll be more likely to be able to use that variable in the javascript. Not sure exactly how that would be done- anyone wanna help with that? But surely there is be a better way, isn't there? I must be able to assign a value to a variable in Selenium, then in the next line use that variable in a javascript, right?

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  • using dictionaries with WebServices

    - by umit-alba
    Hi! I tried to pass a dictionary via WebServices. However it is not serializeable. So i wrote an Own Class that makes it serializeable: using System; using System.Net; using System.Windows; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Schema; namespace Platform { public class SaDictionary<TKey, TValue> : Dictionary<TKey, TValue>, IXmlSerializable { #region Constructors public SaDictionary() : base() { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary) : base(dictionary) { } public SaDictionary(IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity) : base(capacity) { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(dictionary, comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(capacity, comparer) { } //protected SaDictionary(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) // : base(info, context) //{ //} #endregion public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); bool wasEmpty = reader.IsEmptyElement; reader.Read(); if (wasEmpty) return; while (reader.NodeType != XmlNodeType.EndElement) { reader.ReadStartElement("item"); reader.ReadStartElement("key"); TKey key = (TKey)keySerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //key reader.ReadStartElement("value"); TValue value = (TValue)valueSerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //value this.Add(key, value); reader.ReadEndElement(); //item // reader.MoveToContent(); } reader.ReadEndElement(); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); foreach (TKey key in this.Keys) { writer.WriteStartElement("item"); writer.WriteStartElement("key"); keySerializer.Serialize(writer, key); writer.WriteEndElement(); //key writer.WriteStartElement("value"); TValue value = this[key]; valueSerializer.Serialize(writer, value); writer.WriteEndElement(); //value writer.WriteEndElement(); //item } } } } However i get an ArrayOfXElement back. Is there a way to cast it back to a Dictionary? greets

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  • MATLAB image corner coordinates & referncing to cell arrays

    - by James
    Hi, I am having some problems comparing the elements in different cell arrays. The context of this problem is that I am using the bwboundaries function in MATLAB to trace the outline of an image. The image is of a structural cross section and I am trying to find if there is continuity throughout the section (i.e. there is only one outline produced by the bwboundaries command). Having done this and found where the is more than one section traced (i.e. it is not continuous), I have used the cornermetric command to find the corners of each section. The code I have is: %% Define the structural section as a binary matrix (Image is an I-section with the web broken) bw(20:40,50:150) = 1; bw(160:180,50:150) = 1; bw(20:60,95:105) = 1; bw(140:180,95:105) = 1; Trace = bw; [B] = bwboundaries(Trace,'noholes'); %Traces the outer boundary of each section L = length(B); % Finds number of boundaries if L > 1 disp('Multiple boundaries') % States whether more than one boundary found end %% Obtain perimeter coordinates for k=1:length(B) %For all the boundaries perim = B{k}; %Obtains perimeter coordinates (as a 2D matrix) from the cell array end %% Find the corner positions C = cornermetric(bw); Areacorners = find(C == max(max(C))) % Finds the corner coordinates of each boundary [rowindexcorners,colindexcorners] = ind2sub(size(Newgeometry),Areacorners) % Convert corner coordinate indexes into subcripts, to give x & y coordinates (i.e. the same format as B gives) %% Put these corner coordinates into a cell array Cornerscellarray = cell(length(rowindexcorners),1); % Initialises cell array of zeros for i =1:numel(rowindexcorners) Cornerscellarray(i) = {[rowindexcorners(i) colindexcorners(i)]}; %Assigns the corner indicies into the cell array %This is done so the cell arrays can be compared end for k=1:length(B) %For all the boundaries found perim = B{k}; %Obtains coordinates for each perimeter Z = perim; % Initialise the matrix containing the perimeter corners Sectioncellmatrix = cell(length(rowindexcorners),1); for i =1:length(perim) Sectioncellmatrix(i) = {[perim(i,1) perim(i,2)]}; end for i = 1:length(perim) if Sectioncellmatrix(i) ~= Cornerscellarray Sectioncellmatrix(i) = []; %Gets rid of the elements that are not corners, but keeps them associated with the relevent section end end end This creates an error in the last for loop. Is there a way I can check whether each cell of the array (containing an x and y coordinate) is equal to any pair of coordinates in cornercellarray? I know it is possible with matrices to compare whether a certain element matches any of the elements in another matrix. I want to be able to do the same here, but for the pair of coordinates within the cell array. The reason I don't just use the cornercellarray cell array itself, is because this lists all the corner coordinates and does not associate them with a specific traced boundary.

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  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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  • functional dependencies vs type families

    - by mhwombat
    I'm developing a framework for running experiments with artificial life, and I'm trying to use type families instead of functional dependencies. Type families seems to be the preferred approach among Haskellers, but I've run into a situation where functional dependencies seem like a better fit. Am I missing a trick? Here's the design using type families. (This code compiles OK.) {-# LANGUAGE TypeFamilies, FlexibleContexts #-} import Control.Monad.State (StateT) class Agent a where agentId :: a -> String liveALittle :: Universe u => a -> StateT u IO a -- plus other functions class Universe u where type MyAgent u :: * withAgent :: (MyAgent u -> StateT u IO (MyAgent u)) -> String -> StateT u IO () -- plus other functions data SimpleUniverse = SimpleUniverse { mainDir :: FilePath -- plus other fields } defaultWithAgent :: (MyAgent u -> StateT u IO (MyAgent u)) -> String -> StateT u IO () defaultWithAgent = undefined -- stub -- plus default implementations for other functions -- -- In order to use my framework, the user will need to create a typeclass -- that implements the Agent class... -- data Bug = Bug String deriving (Show, Eq) instance Agent Bug where agentId (Bug s) = s liveALittle bug = return bug -- stub -- -- .. and they'll also need to make SimpleUniverse an instance of Universe -- for their agent type. -- instance Universe SimpleUniverse where type MyAgent SimpleUniverse = Bug withAgent = defaultWithAgent -- boilerplate -- plus similar boilerplate for other functions Is there a way to avoid forcing my users to write those last two lines of boilerplate? Compare with the version using fundeps, below, which seems to make things simpler for my users. (The use of UndecideableInstances may be a red flag.) (This code also compiles OK.) {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances #-} import Control.Monad.State (StateT) class Agent a where agentId :: a -> String liveALittle :: Universe u a => a -> StateT u IO a -- plus other functions class Universe u a | u -> a where withAgent :: Agent a => (a -> StateT u IO a) -> String -> StateT u IO () -- plus other functions data SimpleUniverse = SimpleUniverse { mainDir :: FilePath -- plus other fields } instance Universe SimpleUniverse a where withAgent = undefined -- stub -- plus implementations for other functions -- -- In order to use my framework, the user will need to create a typeclass -- that implements the Agent class... -- data Bug = Bug String deriving (Show, Eq) instance Agent Bug where agentId (Bug s) = s liveALittle bug = return bug -- stub -- -- And now my users only have to write stuff like... -- u :: SimpleUniverse u = SimpleUniverse "mydir"

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  • (mySQL) Unable to query 2 tables properly for data

    - by Devner
    I have 2 tables. One is 'page_links' and the other is 'rpp'. Table page_links is the superset of table rpp. The following is the schema of my tables: -- Table structure for table `page_links` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `page_links` ( `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `page_link` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `heading_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `page_links` -- INSERT INTO `page_links` (`page`, `page_link`, `heading_id`) VALUES ('a1.php', 'A1', 8), ('b1.php', 'B1', 8), ('c1.php', 'C1', 5), ('d1.php', 'D1', 5), ('e1.php', 'E1', 8), ('f1.php', 'F1', 8), ('g1.php', 'G1', 8), ('h1.php', 'H1', 1), ('i1.php', 'I1', 1), ('j1.php', 'J1', 8), ('k1.php', 'K1', 8), ('l1.php', 'L1', 8), ('m1.php', 'M1', 8), ('n1.php', 'N1', 8), ('o1.php', 'O1', 8), ('p1.php', 'P1', 4), ('q1.php', 'Q1', 5), ('r1.php', 'R1', 4); -- Table structure for table `rpp` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `rpp` ( `role_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `is_allowed` tinyint(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`role_id`,`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `rpp` -- INSERT INTO `rpp` (`role_id`, `page`, `is_allowed`) VALUES (3, 'a1.php', 1), (3, 'b1.php', 1), (3, 'c1.php', 1), (3, 'd1.php', 1), (3, 'e1.php', 1), (3, 'f1.php', 1), (3, 'h1.php', 1), (3, 'i1.php', 1), (3, 'l1.php', 1), (3, 'm1.php', 1), (3, 'n1.php', 1), (4, 'a1.php', 1), (4, 'b1.php', 1), (4, 'q1.php', 1), (5, 'r1.php', 1); WHAT I AM TRYING TO DO: I am trying to query both the above tables (in a single query) in such a way that all the pages from page_links are displayed along with the is_allowed value from rpp for a particular role. For example, I want to get the is_allowed value of all the pages from rpp for role_id = 3 and at the same time, list all the available pages from page_links. A clear example of my expected result would be: page is_allowed role_id ---------------------------------------- a1.php 1 3 b1.php 1 3 c1.php 1 3 d1.php 1 3 e1.php 1 3 f1.php 1 3 g1.php NULL NULL h1.php 1 3 i1.php 1 3 j1.php NULL NULL k1.php NULL NULL l1.php 1 3 m1.php 1 3 n1.php 1 3 o1.php NULL NULL p1.php NULL NULL q1.php NULL NULL r1.php NULL NULL One more example of my desired result could be achieved by doing a LEFT JOIN rpp ON page_links.page = rpp.page but we need to omit using role_id = 3 (or any value) to be able to get that. But I do want to specify the role_id as well and get the results. I need the query to be able to get this result. I would appreciate any replies that could help me with this. If you can suggest me any changes as well to the table(s) design to be able to achieve the desired result, that's good as well. Thanks in advance.

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  • Find a base case for a recursive void method

    - by Evan S
    I am doing homework. I would like to build a base case for a recursion where ordering given numbers (list2) in ascending order. Purpose of writing this codes is that when all numbers are in ascending order then should stop calling a method called ascending(list2, list1); and all values in list2 should be shipped to list1. For instance, list2 = 6,5,4,3,2,1 then list2 becomes empty and list1 should be 1,2,3,4,5,6. I am trying to compare result with previous one and if matches then stop. But I can't find the base case to stop it. In addition, Both ascending() and fixedPoint() are void method. Anybody has idea? lol Took me 3 days... When I run my code then 6,5,4,3,2,1 5,6,4,3,2,1 4,5,6,3,2,1 3,4,5,6,2,1 2,3,4,5,6,1 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 infinite............. public class Flipper { public static void main(String[] args) { Flipper aFlipper = new Flipper(); List<Integer> content = Arrays.asList(6,5,4,3,2,1); ArrayList<Integer> l1 = new ArrayList<Integer>(content); ArrayList<Integer> l2 = new ArrayList<Integer>(); // empty list aFlipper.fixedPoint(l2,l1); System.out.println("fix l1 is "+l1); System.out.println("fix l2 is "+l2); } public void fixedPoint(ArrayList<Integer> list1, ArrayList<Integer> list2) { // data is in list2 ArrayList<Integer> temp1 = new ArrayList<Integer>(); // empty list if (temp1.equals(list2)) { System.out.println("found!!!"); } else { ascending(list2, list1); // data, null temp1 = list1; // store processed value System.out.println("st list1 is "+list1); System.out.println("st list2 is "+list2); } fixedPoint(list2, list1); // null, processed data }

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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  • How to implement best matching logic in TSQL (SQL Server 2000)

    - by sanjay-kumar1911
    I have two tables X and Y: Table X C1 C2 C3 1 A 13 2 B 16 3 C 8 Table Y C1 C2 C3 C4 1 A 2 N 2 A 8 N 3 A 12 N 4 A 5 N 5 B 7 N 6 B 16 N 7 B 9 N 8 B 5 N 9 C 8 N 10 C 2 N 11 C 8 N 12 C 6 N Records in Table Y can be n number CREATE TABLE X(C1 INT, C2 CHAR(1), C3 INT); CREATE TABLE Y(C1 INT, C2 CHAR(1), C3 INT, C4 CHAR(1)); with following data: INSERT INTO X VALUES (1 'A',13 ); INSERT INTO X VALUES (2 'B',16 ); INSERT INTO X VALUES (3 'C',8 ); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (1,'A', 2,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (2,'A', 8,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (3,'A', 12,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (4,'A', 5,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (5,'B', 7,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (6,'B', 16,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (7,'B', 9,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (8,'B', 5,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (9,'C', 8,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (10,'C', 2,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (11,'C', 8,'N'); INSERT INTO Y VALUES (12,'C', 6,'N'); EXPECTED RESULT Table Y C1 C2 C3 C4 1 A 2 N 2 A 8 Y 3 A 12 N 4 A 5 Y 5 B 7 N 6 B 16 Y 7 B 9 N 8 B 5 N 9 C 8 Y 10 C 2 N 11 C 8 N 12 C 6 N How do I compare value of column C3 in Table X with all possible matches of column C3 of Table Y and to mark records as matched and unmatched in column C4 of Table Y? Possible matches for A (i.e. value of column C2 in Table X) would be (where R is row number i.e. value of column C1 in Table Y): R1, R2, R3, R4, R1+R2, R1+R3, R1+R4, R2+R3, R2+R4, R3+R4, R4+R5, R1+R2+R3, R1+R2+R4, R2+R3+R4, R1+R2+R3+R4

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  • Why does std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist?

    - by n1ck
    Hi, I'm pretty sure I already saw this question somewhere (comp.lang.c++? Google doesn't seem to find it there either) but a quick search here doesn't seem to find it so here it is: Why does the std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist? I don't know but for me this seems counter-intuitive if you compare to most other operator[] (like std::vector) where if you use it you must be sure that the index exists. I'm wondering what's the rationale for implementing this behavior in std::map. Like I said wouldn't it be more intuitive to act more like an index in a vector and crash (well undefined behavior I guess) when accessed with an invalid key? Refining my question after seeing the answers: Ok so far I got a lot of answers saying basically it's cheap so why not or things similar. I totally agree with that but why not use a dedicated function for that (I think one of the comment said that in java there is no operator[] and the function is called put)? My point is why doesn't map operator[] work like a vector? If I use operator[] on an out of range index on a vector I wouldn't like it to insert an element even if it was cheap because that probably mean an error in my code. My point is why isn't it the same thing with map. I mean, for me, using operator[] on a map would mean: i know this key already exist (for whatever reason, i just inserted it, I have redundancy somewhere, whatever). I think it would be more intuitive that way. That said what are the advantage of doing the current behavior with operator[] (and only for that, I agree that a function with the current behavior should be there, just not operator[])? Maybe it give clearer code that way? I don't know. Another answer was that it already existed that way so why not keep it but then, probably when they (the ones before stl) choose to implement it that way they found it provided an advantage or something? So my question is basically: why choose to implement it that way, meaning a somewhat lack of consistency with other operator[]. What benefit do it give? Thanks

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • how to change color of text following function in javascript

    - by OVERTONE
    Ok before i make spaghetti of this code i thought id ask around here. ive made a quiz for an online site. The answers are stored in an array, and ive a function that checks the answers array to what youve clicked. then it counts them and gives you your score. but i want to change the clor of the right answer wen the user clicks the score button. so the correct answers are highlighted. something like this https://www.shutterpoint.com/Home-Quiz.cfm (just hit submit at the bottom, no need to do the quiz). the little answer icon at the side looks flashy but id rather just have the text change color. heres how my questions are formatted <p>Depth of field is controlled by :?</p> <p id = "question2"><input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer1" value = "a" onClick ="recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The focal length of the lens. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer2" value = "b" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The size of the aperture opening. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer3" value = "c" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The distance between the camera and lens. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer4" value = "d" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> All of these. <br/></p> and these are the two functions that are called throughout. record answer is called every time the user clicks a button function recordAnswer(question,answer) { answers[question-1] = answer; } this is the final button which calculates the score function scoreQuiz() { var totalCorrect = 0; for(var count = 0; count<correctAnswers.length;count++) { if(answers[count]== correctAnswers[count]) totalCorrect++; } <!-- alert("You scored " + totalCorrect + " out of 12 correct!"); --> } another function is best i think. ive already made attemots at it and know i have to set the color using document.getElementById('question2').style.color = '#0000ff'; question2 being the p id i think if i take in the value part of (input type....) ill be able to compare it to the answers array. but im not quite sure how to do this. any helpers? maybe something like this document.getElementById("Answer1").style.color = '#0000ff'; using the id part of the (input type line) i think i got it actually. ill post my answer in a sec

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  • NHibernate and objects with value-semantics

    - by Groo
    Problem: If I pass a class with value semantics (Equals method overridden) to NHibernate, NHibernate tries to save it to db even though it just saved an entity equal by value (but not by reference) to the database. What am I doing wrong? Here is a simplified example model for my problem: Let's say I have a Person entity and a City entity. One thread (producer) is creating new Person objects which belong to a specific existing City, and another thread (consumer) is saving them to a repository (using NHibernate as DAL). Since there is lot of objects being flushed at a time, I am using Guid.Comb id's to ensure that each insert is made using a single SQL command. City is an object with value-type semantics (equal by name only -- for this example purposes only): public class City : IEquatable<City> { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual bool Equals(City other) { if (other == null) return false; return this.Name == other.Name; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as City); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode(); } } Fluent NH mapping is something like: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.City) .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } } public class CityMap : ClassMap<City> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); } } Right now (with my current NHibernate mapping config), my consumer thread maintains a dictionary of cities and replaces their references in incoming person objects (otherwise NHibernate will see a new, non-cached City object and try to save it as well), and I need to do it for every produced Person object. Since I have implemented City class to behave like a value type, I hoped that NHibernate would compare Cities by value and not try to save them each time -- i.e. I would only need to do a lookup once per session and not care about them anymore. Is this possible, and if yes, what am I doing wrong here?

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  • Postgresql count+sort performance

    - by invictus
    I have built a small inventory system using postgresql and psycopg2. Everything works great, except, when I want to create aggregated summaries/reports of the content, I get really bad performance due to count()'ing and sorting. The DB schema is as follows: CREATE TABLE hosts ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHAR(255) ); CREATE TABLE items ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, description TEXT ); CREATE TABLE host_item ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, host INTEGER REFERENCES hosts(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, item INTEGER REFERENCES items(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ); There are some other fields as well, but those are not relevant. I want to extract 2 different reports: - List of all hosts with the number of items per, ordered from highest to lowest count - List of all items with the number of hosts per, ordered from highest to lowest count I have used 2 queries for the purpose: Items with host count: SELECT i.id, i.description, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM items AS i LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (i.id=hi.item) GROUP BY i.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Hosts with item count: SELECT h.id, h.name, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM hosts AS h LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (h.id=hi.host) GROUP BY h.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Problem is: the queries runs for 5-6 seconds before returning any data. As this is a web based application, 6 seconds are just not acceptable. The database is heavily populated with approximately 50k hosts, 1000 items and 400 000 host/items relations, and will likely increase significantly when (or perhaps if) the application will be used. After playing around, I found that by removing the "ORDER BY count DESC" part, both queries would execute instantly without any delay whatsoever (less than 20ms to finish the queries). Is there any way I can optimize these queries so that I can get the result sorted without the delay? I was trying different indexes, but seeing as the count is computed it is possible to utilize an index for this. I have read that count()'ing in postgresql is slow, but its the sorting that are causing me problems... My current workaround is to run the queries above as an hourly job, putting the result into a new table with an index on the count column for quick lookup. I use Postgresql 9.2.

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  • What the best approach to iterate and "store" files over a directory in C (Linux) ?

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    I have written a function that checks if to files are duplicates or not. This function signature is: int check_dup_memmap(char *f1_name, char *f2_name) It returns: (-1) - If something went wrong; (0) - If the two files are similar; (+1) - If the two files are different; The next step is to write a function that iterates through all the files in a certain directory,apply the previous function, and gives a report on every existing duplicates. Initially I've thought to write a function that generates a file with all the filenames in a certain directory and then, read that file again and gain and compare every two files. Here is that version of the function, that gets all the filenames in a certain directory. void *build_dir_tree(char *dirname, FILE *f) { DIR *cdir = NULL; struct dirent *ent = NULL; struct stat buf; if(f == NULL){ fprintf(stderr, "NULL file submitted. [build_dir_tree].\n"); exit(-1); } if(dirname == NULL){ fprintf(stderr, "NULL dirname submitted. [build_dir_tree].\n"); exit(-1); } if((cdir = opendir(dirname)) == NULL){ char emsg[MFILE_LEN]; sprintf(emsg, "Cannot open dir: %s [build_dir_tree]\t",dirname); perror(emsg); } chdir(dirname); while ((ent = readdir(cdir)) != NULL) { lstat(ent->d_name, &buf); if (S_ISDIR(buf.st_mode)) { if (strcmp(".", ent->d_name) == 0 || strcmp("..", ent->d_name) == 0) { continue; } build_dir_tree(ent->d_name, f); } else{ fprintf(f, "/%s/%s\n",util_get_cwd(),ent->d_name); } } chdir(".."); closedir(cdir); } Still I consider this approach a little inefficient, as I have to parse the file again and again. In your opinion what are other approaches should I follow: Write a datastructure and hold the files instead of writing them in the file ? I think for a directory with a lot of files, the memory will become very fragmented. Hold all the filenames in auto-expanding array, so that I can easy access every file by their index, because they will in a contiguous memory location. Map this file in memory using mmap() ? But mmap may fail, as the file gets to big. Any opinions on this. I want to choose the most efficient path, and access as few resources as possible. This is the requirement of the program... EDIT: Is there a way to get the numbers of files in a certain directory, without iterating through it ?

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • How do I create/use a Fluent NHibernate convention to map UInt32 properties to an SQL Server 2008 da

    - by dommer
    I'm trying to use a convention to map UInt32 properties to a SQL Server 2008 database. I don't seem to be able to create a solution based on existing web sources, due to updates in the way Fluent NHibernate works - i.e. examples are out of date. Here's my code as it currently stands (which, when I try to expose the schema, fails due to SQL Server not supporting UInt32). Apologies for the code being a little long, but I'm not 100% sure what is relevant to the problem, so I'm erring on the side of caution. I think I'll need a relatively comprehensive example, as I don't seem to be able to pull the pieces together into a working solution, at present. FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(connectionString)) .Mappings(mapping => mapping.AutoMappings.Add( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Product>() .Conventions.Add<UInt32UserTypeConvention>())); configuration.ExposeConfiguration(x => new SchemaExport(x).Create(false, true)); namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserTypeConvention : UserTypeConvention<UInt32UserType> { // Empty. } } namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserType : IUserType { // Public properties. public bool IsMutable { get { return false; } } public Type ReturnedType { get { return typeof(UInt32); } } public SqlType[] SqlTypes { get { return new SqlType[] { SqlTypeFactory.Int32 }; } } // Public methods. public object Assemble(object cached, object owner) { return cached; } public object DeepCopy(object value) { return value; } public object Disassemble(object value) { return value; } public new bool Equals(object x, object y) { return (x != null && x.Equals(y)); } public int GetHashCode(object x) { return x.GetHashCode(); } public object NullSafeGet(IDataReader rs, string[] names, object owner) { int? i = (int?)NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeGet(rs, names[0]); return (UInt32?)i; } public void NullSafeSet(IDbCommand cmd, object value, int index) { UInt32? u = (UInt32?)value; int? i = (Int32?)u; NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeSet(cmd, i, index); } public object Replace(object original, object target, object owner) { return original; } } }

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I create a safe local development environment?

    - by docgnome
    I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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