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• EJB client can't find a DataSource that tests successfully in WebLogic admin console

  - by suszterpatt

  Disclaimer: I'm completely new to JEE/EJB and all that, so bear with me. I have a simple EJB that I can successfully deploy using JDeveloper 11g's integrated WebLogic server and a remote database connection (JDBC). I have a DataSource named "PGY2" defined in WebLogic, and I can test it successfully from the admin console. Here's the code of the client I'm trying to test it with (generated entirely by JDev except for the three method calls on adminManager): public class AdminManagerClient { public static void main(String [] args) { try { final Context context = getInitialContext(); AdminManager adminManager = (AdminManager)context.lookup("Uran-AdminManager#hu.elte.pgy2.BACNAAI.UranEJB.AdminManager"); adminManager.addAdmin("root", "root", "Kovács Isten"); adminManager.addStudent("BACNAAI", "matt", "B Cs", 2005); adminManager.addTeacher("SIPKABT", "patt", "S P", "numanal", "Dr."); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } private static Context getInitialContext() throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); // WebLogic Server 10.x connection details env.put( Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory" ); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "t3://127.0.0.1:7101"); return new InitialContext( env ); } } But when I try to run this, I get the following error on the line with adminManager.addAdmin (that is, after the lookup): javax.ejb.EJBException: EJB Exception: ; nested exception is: Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 1.0.2 (Build 20081024)): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Internal error: Cannot obtain XAConnection Creation of XAConnection for pool PGY2 failed after waitSecs:30 : java.sql.SQLException: Data Source PGY2 does not exist. Why can't the client find the data source, and how do I make it find it? EDIT: I took a closer look at WebLogic's output during deployment, and I found this. I have no idea what it means, but it may be relevant: <2010.05.20. 0:50:43 CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149231> <Unable to set the activation state to true for the application 'PGY2'. weblogic.application.ModuleException: at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:349) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$2.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:411) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.activate(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:74) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace weblogic.common.ResourceException: is already bound at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.RmiDataSource.start(RmiDataSource.java:387) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:136) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:97) at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:346) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace >

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• Salesforce consuming XML and display data in Visualforce report

  - by JavaKungFu

  Firstly, this question requires a bit of introduction so please bear with me. The high level is that I am connecting to a outside web service which will return some XML to my apex controller. The idea is that I want to display the XML returned into a nice tabular format in a VisualForce page. The format of the XML coming back will look something like this: <Wrapper><reportTable name='table_id' title='Report Title'> <row> <Element1><![CDATA[campaign_id]]></Element1> <Element2><![CDATA[577373]]></Element2> <Element3><![CDATA[4129]]></Element3> <Element4 dataFormat='2' dataSuffix='%'><![CDATA[0.7151]]></Element4> <Element5><![CDATA[2010-04-04]]></Element5> <Element6><![CDATA[2010-05-03]]></Element6> </row> </reportTable> ... Now currently I am using the XMLdom utility class (developed by SF for XML functions) to map this data into a custom object "reportTable" which contains a list of "row" custom objects. The reason I am building it out this way is because I don't know how many elements will be in each row, nor the number of rows. The Visualforce page looks something like this: <table><apex:repeat value="{!reportTables}" var="table"> <apex:repeat value="{!table.rows}" var="row"> <tr> <apex:repeat value="{!row.ColumnValue}" var="column"> <apex:repeat value="{!column}" var="value"> <td> <apex:outputText value="{!value}" /> </td> </apex:repeat> </apex:repeat> </tr> </apex:repeat> Questions are: 1) Does this seem like a good approach to the problem? 2) Is there a simpler/better way to consume the XML besides writing my own custom objects to map VF to? Open to any and all suggestions. I really hope there is a better way than building the HTML table myself, as then I also have to deal with styling and alignment etc. Thanks.

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• validation in javascript - remove the error msg on focus

  - by fusion

  i'm not very well-versed with javascript, so please bear with me. i've a form in which i validate the controls with javascript. the error is displayed when the fields are empty via a div, but when i focus and type something in the textbox, the div should go away. but the error div doesn't and even if i type something valid, it still displays the div. i'd like to know where am i going wrong with this script: <script type="text/javascript"> var err = document.getElementById("errmsg"); function checkInput(inPut) { if (inPut.getValue() == "") { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Field cannot be empty!"); inPut.focus(); return false; } else { return true; } } function checkTextBox(textBox) { if (textBox.getValue() == "") { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Field cannot be empty!"); textBox.focus(); return false; } else if (!checkValidity(textBox.getValue())) { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Please enter a valid email address!"); textBox.focus(); return false; } else { return true; } } . . . <div id="errmsg" class="invalid" style="display:none;"></div> <br /> . . . <input type="text" tabindex="1" name="name" id="name" class="input_contact" onblur="checkInput(this);"/> <br /> . . . <input type="text" tabindex="2" name="email" id="email" class="input_contact" onblur="checkTextBox(this);"/> <br /> it's a form in facebook app but while the fbjs works, i assume there's a problem with my basic javascript.

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• Swing: Scroll to bottom of JScrollPane, conditionally on current viewport location

  - by I82Much

  Hi all, I am attempting to mimic the functionality of Adium and most other chat clients I've seen, wherein the scrollbars advance to the bottom when new messages come in, but only if you're already there. In other words, if you've scrolled a few lines up and are reading, when a new message comes in it won't jump your position to the bottom of the screen; that would be annoying. But if you're scrolled to the bottom, the program rightly assumes that you want to see the most recent messages at all times, and so auto-scrolls accordingly. I have had a bear of a time trying to mimic this; the platform seems to fight this behavior at all costs. The best I can do is as follows: In constructor: JTextArea chatArea = new JTextArea(); JScrollPane chatAreaScrollPane = new JScrollPane(chatArea); // We will manually handle advancing chat window DefaultCaret caret = (DefaultCaret) chatArea.getCaret(); caret.setUpdatePolicy(DefaultCaret.NEVER_UPDATE); In method that handles new text coming in: boolean atBottom = isViewAtBottom(); // Append the text using styles etc to the chatArea if (atBottom) { scrollViewportToBottom(); } public boolean isAtBottom() { // Is the last line of text the last line of text visible? Adjustable sb = chatAreaScrollPane.getVerticalScrollBar(); int val = sb.getValue(); int lowest = val + sb.getVisibleAmount(); int maxVal = sb.getMaximum(); boolean atBottom = maxVal == lowest; return atBottom; } private void scrollToBottom() { chatArea.setCaretPosition(chatArea.getDocument().getLength()); } Now, this works, but it's janky and not ideal for two reasons. By setting the caret position, whatever selection the user may have in the chat area is erased. I can imagine this would be very irritating if he's attempting to copy/paste. Since the advancement of the scroll pane occurs after the text is inserted, there is a split second where the scrollbar is in the wrong position, and then it visually jumps towards the end. This is not ideal. Before you ask, yes I've read this blog post on Text Area Scrolling, but the default scroll to bottom behavior is not what I want. Other related (but to my mind, not completely helpful in this regard) questions: Setting scroll bar on a jscrollpane Making a JScrollPane automatically scroll all the way down. Any help in this regard would be very much appreciated.

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• Model-View-Controller in JavaScript

  - by Casey Hope

  tl;dr: How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a clean way? I'm trying to implement MVC in JavaScript. I have googled and reorganized with my code countless times but have not found a suitable solution. (The code just doesn't "feel right".) Here's how I'm going about it right now. It's incredibly complicated and is a pain to work with (but still better than the pile of code I had before). It has ugly workarounds that sort of defeat the purpose of MVC. And behold, the mess, if you're really brave: // Create a "main model" var main = Model0(); function Model0() { // Create an associated view and store its methods in "view" var view = View0(); // Create a submodel and pass it a function // that will "subviewify" the submodel's view var model1 = Model1(function (subview) { view.subviewify(subview); }); // Return model methods that can be used by // the controller (the onchange handlers) return { 'updateModel1': function (newValue) { model1.update(newValue); } }; } function Model1(makeSubView) { var info = ''; // Make an associated view and attach the view // to the parent view using the passed function var view = View1(); makeSubView(view.__view); // Dirty dirty // Return model methods that can be used by // the parent model (and so the controller) return { 'update': function (newValue) { info = newValue; // Notify the view of the new information view.events.value(info); } }; } function View0() { var thing = document.getElementById('theDiv'); var input = document.getElementById('theInput'); // This is the "controller", bear with me input.onchange = function () { // Ugly, uses a global to contact the model main.updateModel1(this.value); }; return { 'events': {}, // Adds a subview to this view. 'subviewify': function (subview) { thing.appendChild(subview); } }; } // This is a subview. function View1() { var element = document.createElement('div'); return { 'events': { // When the value changes this is // called so the view can be updated 'value': function (newValue) { element.innerHTML = newValue; } }, // ..Expose the DOM representation of the subview // so it can be attached to a parent view '__view': element }; } How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a cleaner way? How can I improve this system? Or is this the completely wrong way to go, should I follow another pattern?

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• Transposing and Untransposing a String in java

  - by Will

  I have been working on two methods that will Transpose and Untranspose a String respectively. The solutions that I have come up with both work to the best of my knowledge. I just want to know if I could have solved these problems in a simpler way. My code seems like it is too long for the task that is being performed. The first method, transpose(), will take a String as a parameter and transpose it. If "bridge" is entered, the output will be "bergid". Likewise, with the unTranspose() method, if the user enters "bergid", the output will be "bridge". public void transpose( String s ) { String t = ""; int end = s.length() - 1; for ( int i = 0; i < s.length() / 2; i++ ) { t += Character.toString( s.charAt( i ) ) + Character.toString( s.charAt( end ) ); end--; } // Lenth of String is odd if ( s.length() % 2 == 1 ) { // add character in middle of String to the end of the new String t+= Character.toString( s.charAt( s.length() / 2 ) ); } System.out.println( t ); } public void unTranspose( String s ) { String t = ""; // Length of String is odd if ( s.length() % 2 == 1 ) { for ( int i = 0; i < s.length(); i+=2 ) { t+= Character.toString( s.charAt( i ) ); } for ( int i = s.length() - 2; i > 0; i -= 2 ) { t += Character.toString( s.charAt( i ) ); } System.out.println( t ); } // Length of String is even else if ( s.length() % 2 == 0 ) { for ( int i = 0; i < s.length() - 1; i+=2 ) { t+= Character.toString( s.charAt( i ) ); } for ( int i = s.length() - 1; i > 0; i -= 2 ) { t+= Character.toString( s.charAt( i ) ); } System.out.println( t ); } } My code looks horrible. I'm still not used to formatting my code correctly. Please bear with me. Thanks for your time

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• Swing: Scroll to bottom of JScrollPane, conditional on current viewport location

  - by I82Much

  Hi all, I am attempting to mimic the functionality of Adium and most other chat clients I've seen, wherein the scrollbars advance to the bottom when new messages come in, but only if you're already there. In other words, if you've scrolled a few lines up and are reading, when a new message comes in it won't jump your position to the bottom of the screen; that would be annoying. But if you're scrolled to the bottom, the program rightly assumes that you want to see the most recent messages at all times, and so auto-scrolls accordingly. I have had a bear of a time trying to mimic this; the platform seems to fight this behavior at all costs. The best I can do is as follows: In constructor: JTextArea chatArea = new JTextArea(); JScrollPane chatAreaScrollPane = new JScrollPane(chatArea); // We will manually handle advancing chat window DefaultCaret caret = (DefaultCaret) chatArea.getCaret(); caret.setUpdatePolicy(DefaultCaret.NEVER_UPDATE); In method that handles new text coming in: boolean atBottom = isViewAtBottom(); // Append the text using styles etc to the chatArea if (atBottom) { scrollViewportToBottom(); } public boolean isAtBottom() { // Is the last line of text the last line of text visible? Adjustable sb = chatAreaScrollPane.getVerticalScrollBar(); int val = sb.getValue(); int lowest = val + sb.getVisibleAmount(); int maxVal = sb.getMaximum(); boolean atBottom = maxVal == lowest; return atBottom; } private void scrollToBottom() { chatArea.setCaretPosition(chatArea.getDocument().getLength()); } Now, this works, but it's janky and not ideal for two reasons. By setting the caret position, whatever selection the user may have in the chat area is erased. I can imagine this would be very irritating if he's attempting to copy/paste. Since the advancement of the scroll pane occurs after the text is inserted, there is a split second where the scrollbar is in the wrong position, and then it visually jumps towards the end. This is not ideal. Before you ask, yes I've read this blog post on Text Area Scrolling, but the default scroll to bottom behavior is not what I want. Other related (but to my mind, not completely helpful in this regard) questions: Setting scroll bar on a jscrollpane Making a JScrollPane automatically scroll all the way down. Any help in this regard would be very much appreciated.

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• HttpClient response handler always returns closed stream

  - by Alex Ciminian

  I'm new to Java development so please bear with me. Also, I hope I'm not the champion of tl;dr :). I'm using HttpClient to make requests over Http (duh!) and I'd gotten it to work for a simple servlet that receives an URL as a query string parameter. I realized that my code could use some refactoring, so I decided to make my own HttpResponseHandler, to clean up the code, make it reusable and improve exception handling. I currently have something like this: public class HttpResponseHandler implements ResponseHandler<InputStream>{ public InputStream handleResponse(HttpResponse response) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { int statusCode = response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); InputStream in = null; if (statusCode != HttpStatus.SC_OK) { throw new HttpResponseException(statusCode, null); } else { HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { in = entity.getContent(); // This works // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); } } return in; } } And in the method where I make the actual request: HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(target); ResponseHandler<InputStream> httpResponseHandler = new HttpResponseHandler(); try { InputStream in = httpclient.execute(httpget, httpResponseHandler); // This doesn't work // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); return in; } catch (HttpResponseException e) { throw new HttpResponseException(e.getStatusCode(), null); } The problem is that the input stream returned from the handler is closed. I don't have any idea why, but I've checked it with the prints in my code (and no, I haven't used them both at the same time :). While the first print works, the other one gives a closed stream error. I need InputStreams, because all my other methods expect an InputStream and not a String. Also, I want to be able to retrieve images (or maybe other types of files), not just text files. I can work around this pretty easily by giving up on the response handler (I have a working implementation that doesn't use it), but I'm pretty curious about the following: Why does it do what it does? How do I open the stream, if something closes it? What's the right way to do this, anyway :)? I've checked the docs and I couldn't find anything useful regarding this issue. To save you a bit of Googling, here's the Javadoc and here's the HttpClient tutorial (Section 1.1.8 - Response handlers). Thanks, Alex

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• What Can I Do To One Of My Team Number (Good Friend As Well) Who Lost His Passion.

  - by skyflyer

  It seems this question is not program related, but there are lot of similar questions. So please bear with me! By the way, I am programmer and my team is also charging a software project. And SO is the only place which solved me lot of thorny troubles!THANK YOU GUYS! I joined my company with him years ago. At that time he was quite passionate on his job which is a front-end development. He gave us lot of useful suggestions concerning his work like design. And I believed he was a smart guy. I believe he still is smart too by the way. One years later, however, he seemed lost his passion and fooling around every day, did not care about his work any more and produced poorwork. Even worse he literally stopped learning new skills and honing his work related skills. For me it is horrible, we got to keep abreast with new technology development, otherwise we will be throw out. Since we were just coworkers, I did not care about it too much except mentioned my thoughts several times. But last month, we resembled a new group and assigned very important project. And I am the team leader, sadly! My boss gave me lot of support and expectation as well. I did a pretty good job before and I am very optimism to our future. But as a team, if my team does not work hard, we will be doomed to failure no matter how hard I work and push. In order to revitalize his passion, I tried couple of ways like talking to him about my concern and my boss's angry. I offered his new task which is quite new to him. I even persuaded my boss to give him new incentive package. But all of them knocked wall. His reaction was just he did not care. Even worse he did not want to talk about his situation. I want to be hard on him, but since we are friends and coworkers, I really can not see it will work. Even it works, I can not so quickly change my self from friend and coworker into manager. As a novice in management, I am really overwhelmed! I do not want get him fired, we are friends and I do not see him fired as my team number. What can I do? Thank you guys!

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• Positioning element under another

  - by Cedar Jensen

  I am not an expert web-dev so please bear with me here. I would like to display a banner style header for a page with the top part taken up by an image that is 275x116 and then a horizontal menu bar (styled using ul items) appearing at 70% from the top of the banner. How would I set this up so that the banner appears underneath my navigation? Currently, a portion of the left side of my menu bar sits underneath the image but I'd like it to be the opposite so the menu bar is above the image, some thing like this: ============= <start of header> =========== -------- | img | | | | Horizontal menu | | -------- ============= <end of header> =========== My css: #header { background-color: green; border: 0; margin: 0; padding: 0; overflow: hidden; width: 100%; height: 120px; } #logo { background: green url(images/logo.png) no-repeat scroll 0 0; margin: 0px 0px; border: 1px solid white; left: 20px; top: 20px; width: 275px; height: 116px; position: absolute; z-index: -1000; } .container { border:1px solid grey; margin-left:auto; margin-right:auto; width:960px; } My Html: <body> <div id="header"> <div id="logo"> </div> <div class="container" id="primaryNavbar"> <ul> <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#">Books</a></li> <li><a href="#">Shows</a></li> <li><a href="#">Movies</a></li> </ul> <div class="clear">&nbsp;</div> </div> <!-- end of container --> </div> <!-- end of header --> </body> I thought that setting the position to "absolute" for the logo element and adding in a very low z-index would achieve this but that isn't the case here. Any suggestions?

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• Do you feel underappreciated or resent the geek/nerd stigma?

  - by dotnetdev

  At work we have a piece of A4 paper with the number of everyone in the office. The structure of this document is laid out in rectangles, by department. I work for the department that does all the technical stuff. That includes support—bear in mind that the support staff isn't educated in IT but just has experience in PC maintenance and providing support to a system we resell but don't have source code access to, project manager, team leader, a network administrator, a product manager, and me, a programmer. Anyway, on this paper, we are labelled as nerds and geeks. I did take a little offence to this, as much as it is light hearted (but annoying and old) humour. I have a vivid image that a geek is someone who doesn't go out but codes all day. I code all day at home and at work (when I have something to code...), but I keep balance by going out. I don't know why it is only people who work with computers that get such a stigma. No other profession really gets the same stigma—skilled, technical, or whatever. An account manager (and this is hardly a skilled job) says, "Perhaps [MY NAME HERE] could write some geeky code tomorrow to add this functionality to the website." It is funny how I get such an unfair stigma but I am so pivotal. In fact, if it wasn't for me, the company would have nothing to sell so the account managers would be redundant! I make systems, they get sold, and this is what pays the wages. It's funny how the account managers get a commission for how many systems they sell, or manage to make clients resubscribe to. Yet I built the thing in the first place! On top of that, my brother says all I do is type stuff on a keyboard all day. Surely if I did, I'd be typing at my normal typing speed of 100wpm+ as if I am writing a blog entry. Instead, I plan as I code along on the fly if commercial pressures and time prohibit proper planning. I never type as if I'm writing normal English. There is more to our jobs than just typing code. And my brother is a pipe fitter with no formal qualifications in his name. I could easily, and perhaps more justifiably, say he just manipulates a spanner or something. Does you feel underappreciated or that a geek/nerd stigma is undeserved or unfair?

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• Question about design (inheritance, polymorphism)

  - by Dan

  Hi, I have a question about a problem I'm struggling with. Hope you can bear with me. Imagine I have an Object class representing the base class of a hierarchy of physical objects. Later I inherit from it to create an Object1D, Object2D and Object3D classes. Each of these derived classes will have some specific methods and attributes. For example, the 3d object might have functionality to download a 3d model to be used by a renderer. So I'd have something like this: class Object {}; class Object1D : public Object { Point mPos; }; class Object2D : public Object { ... }; class Object3D : public Object { Model mModel; }; Now I'd have a separate class called Renderer, which simply takes an Object as argument and well, renders it :-) In a similar way, I'd like to support different kinds of renderers. For instance, I could have a default one that every object could rely on, and then provide other specific renderers for some kind of objects: class Renderer {}; // Default one class Renderer3D : public Renderer {}; And here comes my problem. A renderer class needs to get an Object as an argument, for example in the constructor in order to retrieve whatever data it needs to render the object. So far so good. But a Renderer3D would need to get an Object3D argument, in order to get not only the basic attributes but also the specific attributes of a 3d object. Constructors would look like this: CRenderer(Object& object); CRenderer3D(Object3D& object); Now how do I specify this in a generic way? Or better yet, is there a better way to design this? I know I could rely on RTTI or similar but I'd like to avoid this if possible as I feel there is probably a better way to deal with this. Thanks in advance!

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• Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

  - by user210119

  I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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• UITableViewCell outlets not set during bundle load (possibly very elementary question)

  - by Jan Zich

  What are the most common reasons for an outlet (a class property) not being set during a bundle load? I'm sorry; most likely I'm not using the correct terms. It's my first steps with iPhone OS development and Objective-C, so please bear with me. Here is more details. Basically, I'm trying to create a table view based form with a fixed number of static rows. I followed this example: http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/userexperience/conceptual/TableView_iPhone/TableViewCells/TableViewCells.html Scroll down to The Technique for Static Row Content please. I have one nib file with one table view, three table cells and all connections set as in the example. The problem is that the corresponding cell properties in my controller are never initialised. I get an exception in cellForRowAtIndexPath complaining that the returned cell is nil: UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath. Here are the relevant parts from the implementation of the controller: @synthesize cellA; @synthesize cellB; @synthesize cellC; - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: return cellA; break; case 1: return cellB; break; case 2: return cellC; break; default: return nil; } } And here is the interface part: @interface AssociatePhoneViewController : UITableViewController { UITableViewCell *cellA; UITableViewCell *cellB; UITableViewCell *cellB; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellA; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellB; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellC; @end This must be possibly one of the the most embarrassing questions on StackOverflow. It looks like the most basic example code. Is is possible that the cells are not instantiated with the nib file? I have them on the same level before the tabula view in the nib file. I tried to move them after the table view, but it did not make any difference. Are table cells in some way special? Do I need to set some flag or some property on them in the nib file? I was under the impression that all classes (views, windows, controllers …) listed in a nib file are simply instantiated (and linked using the provided connections). Could it possibly be some memory issue? The cell properties in my controller are not defined in any special way.

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• Selecting one row when working with typed datasets.

  - by Wodzu

  I have a typed dataset in my project. I would like to populate a datatable with only one row instead of all rows. The selected row must be based on the primary key column. I know I could modify the designer code to achive this functionality however if I change the code in the designer I risk that this code will be deleted when I update my datased via designer in the future. So I wanted to alter the SelectCommand not in the designer but just before firing up MyTypedTableAdapter.Fill method. The strange thing is that the designer does not create a SelectCommand! It creates all other commands but not this one. If it would create SelectCommand I could alter it in this way: this.operatorzyTableAdapter.Adapter.SelectCommand.CommandText += " WHERE MyColumn = 1"; It is far from perfection but atleast I would not have to modify the designer's work. unfortunately as I said earlier the SelectCommand is not created. Instead designer creates something like this: [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] private void InitCommandCollection() { this._commandCollection = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand[1]; this._commandCollection[0] = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(); this._commandCollection[0].Connection = this.Connection; this._commandCollection[0].CommandText = "SELECT Ope_OpeID, Ope_Kod, Ope_Haslo, Ope_Imie, Ope_Nazwisko FROM dbo.Operatorzy"; this._commandCollection[0].CommandType = global::System.Data.CommandType.Text; } It doesn't make sense in my opinion. Why to create UpdateCommand, InsertCommand and DeleteCommand but do not create SelectCommand? I could bear with this but this._commandCollection is private so I cannot acces it outside of the class code. I don't know how to get into this collection without changing the designer's code. The idea which I have is to expose the collection via partial class definition. However I want to introduce many typed datasets and I really don't want to create partial class definition for each of them. Please note that I am using .NET 3.5. I've found this article about accessing private properties but it concerns .NET 4.0 Thanks for your time.

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• EXC_BAD_ACCESS when scrolling table after json data is imported

  - by Michael Robinson

  Hello, I'm having a bear of a time trying to figure out why I'm getting a EXC_BAD ACCESS error. The console is giving me this eror: " -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b14110", I Can't figure it out...Thanks in advance. // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [rows count]; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell. NSDictionary *dict = [rows objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [dict objectForKey:@"name"]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [dict objectForKey:@"age"]; return cell; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationController.navigationBar.tintColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:0.0/255.0 green:207.0/255.0 blue:255.0/255.0 alpha:1.0]; self.title = NSLocalizedString(@"How Big Now", @"How Big Now"); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://10.0.1.8/~imac/iphone/jsontest.php"]; NSString *jsonreturn = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; // NSLog(jsonreturn); // Look at the console and you can see what the restults are NSData *jsonData = [jsonreturn dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; // In "real" code you should surround this with try and catch NSDictionary * dict = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; if (dict) { rows = [dict objectForKey:@"member"]; } NSLog(@"Array: %@",rows); [jsonreturn release]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } - (void)viewDidUnload { // Release any retained subviews of the main view. // e.g. self.myOutlet = nil; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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• What would you suggest as a high school first language?

  - by ldigas

  Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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• markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

  - by spirytus

  For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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• Spring 3 MVC - Form Failure Causes Exception When Reloading JSP

  - by jboyd

  Using Spring 3 MVC, please bear with the long code example, it's quite simple, but I want to make sure all relevant information is posted. Basically here is the use case: There is a registration page, a user can login, OR fill out a registration form. The login form is a simple HTML form, the registration form is a more complicated, Spring bound form that uses a RegistrationFormData bean. Here is the relevant code: UserController.java ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String login(Model model) { model.addAttribute("registrationInfo", new ProfileAdminFormData()); return "login"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login.do", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String doLogin( @RequestParam(value = "userName") String userName, @RequestParam(value = "password") String password, Model model) { logger.info("login.do : userName=" + userName + ", password=" + password); try { getUser().login(userName, password); } catch (UserNotFoundException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("loginError", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } return "redirect:/"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/register.do") public String register( @ModelAttribute(value = "registrationInfo") ProfileAdminFormData profileAdminFormData, BindingResult result, Model model) { //todo: redirect if (new RegistrationValidator(profileAdminFormData, result).validate()) { try { User().register(profileAdminFormData); return "index"; } catch (UserException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("registrationErrorMessage", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } } return "login"; } and the JSP: ... <form:form commandName="registrationInfo" action="register.do"> ... So the problem here is that when login fails I get an exception because there is no bean "registrationInfo" in the model attributes. What I need is that regardless of the path through this controller that the "registrationInfo" bean is not null, that way if login fails, as opposed to registration, that bean is still in the model. As you can see I create the registrationInfo object explicitly in my controller in the method bound to "/login", which is what I thought was going to be kind of a setup method" Something doesn't feel right about the "/login" method which sets up the page, but I needed to that in order to get the page to render at all without throwing an exception because there is no "registrationInfo" model attribute, as needed by the form in the JSP

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• Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

  - by magz2010

  Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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• To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

  - by Globalkeith

  Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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• How to count the length (number of lines) of a csv file in Rails?

  - by Mathias

  Hello, I have a form (Rails) which allows me to load a .csv file using the file_field. In the view: <% form_for(:upcsv, :html => {:multipart => true}) do |f| %> <table> <tr> <td><%= f.label("File:") %></td> <td><%= f.file_field(:filename) %></td> </tr> </table> <%= f.submit("Submit") %> <% end %> Clicking Submit redirects me to another page (create.html.erb). The file was loaded fine, and I was able to read the contents just fine in this second page. I am trying to show the number of lines in the .csv file in this second page. My controller (semi-pseudocode): class UpcsvController < ApplicationController def index end def create file = params[:upcsv][:filename] ... #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.length # Show number of lines in the file #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.size ... end end Both file.length and file.size returns '91' when my file only contains 7 lines. From the Rails documentation that I read, once the Submit button is clicked, Rails creates a temp file of the uploaded file, and the params[:upcsv][:filename] contains the contents of the temp/uploaded file and not the path to the file. And I don't know how to extract the number of lines in my original file. What is the correct way to get the number of lines in the file? My create.html.erb: <table> <tr> <td>File length:</td> <td><%= params[:upcsv][:file_length] %></td> </tr> </table> I'm really new at Rails (just started last week), so please bear with my stupid questions. Thank you!

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• CKEdtior not displaying

  - by user1708468

  I am trying to integrate CKEditor into a MVC application. As far as I can tell all I should really have to do is. Add the following to my master page. <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/jscript" src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> Then on my view itself. I have the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#news').ckeditor(); }); </script> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="title">Title:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("title")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("title", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="news">News:</label> <%=Html.TextArea("news")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("news", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="publishedDate">Publication Date:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("publishedDate") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("publishedDate", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> Please bear in mind I am not trying to get this to actually DO anything postback wise. Just to actually render in the first place. Can someone point out exactly what it is I am doing wrong? Oh and if it helps any VS is also giving me the following warning: Warning 1 Error updating JScript IntelliSense: ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\ckeditor\ckeditor.js: 'getFirst()' is null or not an object @ 15:180 ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\Views\Shared\Admin.Master 1 1 ilaTraining

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• Calling a JAVA method from C++ with JNI, no parameters

  - by PRNDL Development Studios

  Please bear with me, I am an iPhone developer and this whole android this confuses me a bit. I have some c++ methods that are called from a cocos2d-x CCMenuItem. Therefore I cannot send any parameters, according to the docs. I need to open a url with the android browser which will require me to call a JAVA function to start a new intent. I understand that I need to create a VM, however the below code gives me the error: jni/../../Classes/MyClass.cpp:184: error: 'JNI_CreateJavaVM' was not declared in this scope I was looking at this thread: Calling a java method from c++ in Android But he uses parameters, and I can't do that. And I don't see where those are in his code to just make them myself. I don't know what the string should be in the 'Find Class' method. Also, I assume it is pretty terrible to create a new VM instance in every method I need to call. How would I create one as a singleton to use across the board? This is my c++ code called by my menu item: #include <jni.h> ... JavaVM *vm; // Global ... void OptionsScene::website(){ JNIEnv *env; JavaVMInitArgs vm_args; vm_args.version = JNI_VERSION_1_2; vm_args.nOptions = 0; vm_args.ignoreUnrecognized = 1; jint result = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&vm, (void **)&env, &vm_args); // This line still errors jclass clazz = env->FindClass("com/prndl/project/WebExecute"); jmethodID method = env->GetMethodID(clazz, "website", "(Ljava/lang/String;)V"); env->CallVoidMethod(NULL,method); vm->DestroyJavaVM(); And this is the JAVA Method that I need to call: public class WebExecute extends Activity{ public void website(){ Intent browserIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://www.google.com")); startActivity(browserIntent); } } Honestly, I am struggling with this, any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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• How to properly mix generics and inheritance to get the desired result?

  - by yamsha

  My question is not easy to explain using words, fortunately it's not too difficult to demonstrate. So, bear with me: public interface Command<R> { public R execute();//parameter R is the type of object that will be returned as the result of the execution of this command } public abstract class BasicCommand<R> { } public interface CommandProcessor<C extends Command<?>> { public <R> R process(C<R> command);//this is my question... it's illegal to do, but you understand the idea behind it, right? } //constrain BasicCommandProcessor to commands that subclass BasicCommand public class BasicCommandProcessor implements CommandProcessor<C extends BasicCommand<?>> { //here, only subclasses of BasicCommand should be allowed as arguments but these //BasicCommand object should be parameterized by R, like so: BasicCommand<R> //so the method signature should really be // public <R> R process(BasicCommand<R> command) //which would break the inheritance if the interface's method signature was instead: // public <R> R process(Command<R> command); //I really hope this fully illustrates my conundrum public <R> R process(C<R> command) { return command.execute(); } } public class CommandContext { public static void main(String... args) { BasicCommandProcessor bcp = new BasicCommandProcessor(); String textResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<String>() { public String execute() { return "result"; } }); Long numericResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<Long>() { public Long execute() { return 123L; } }); } } Basically, I want the generic "process" method to dictate the type of generic parameter of the Command object. The goal is to be able to restrict different implementations of CommandProcessor to certain classes that implement Command interface and at the same time to able to call the process method of any class that implements the CommandProcessor interface and have it return the object of type specified by the parametarized Command object. I'm not sure if my explanation is clear enough, so please let me know if further explanation is needed. I guess, the question is "Would this be possible to do, at all?" If the answer is "No" what would be the best work-around (I thought of a couple on my own, but I'd like some fresh ideas)

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