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Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

- by Robert

I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

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Memcached: booking a fetch

- by iBobo

I would like to use getDelayed on the PHP Memcached extension but I think it's not implemented in the right way. Right now you ask for some keys and then retrieve all of them with fetch() and fetchAll(). But imagine a scenario where I need to retrieve 15 keys used in different parts of the page which I don't know in advance, but I can ask the various objects to give me the list. What I want is give the Memcached instance this list (each component would give its part) then later when I need them retrieve from the instance, but not all of them at once: each component would take the one it needs. Basically if I were to implement this I would prohibit using getDelayed alone and implement a bookGet($keys) method where you would add the keys to book (which actually calls getDelayed), and redefine get to handle these three cases: key is booked and retrieved - return the value; key is booked but not retrieved - go and force the fetch of the booked keys and return the correct value; key not booked - do a normal lookup. I want to know if this makes sense, your thoughts on the subject and if someone already implemented this or maybe PECL Memcached already works this way and actually the documentation doesn't explain it correctly.

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Query table value aliasing in Oracle SQL

- by Strata

I have a homework assignment in SQL for Oracle 10g where I have to apply union to two different select statements, to return two columns. I need the values of each cell under vendor_state to indicate CA and every other value in another state to return "Outside CA", to indicate they're elsewhere. I applied the union and produced the two columns and the listings for CA, but many other state IDs were listed and I couldn't find an explanation for how to change the actual values in the query itself. Eventually, I stumbled on an answer, but I can't explain why this works. The code is as follows: SELECT vendor_name, vendor_state FROM vendors WHERE vendor_state IN 'CA' UNION SELECT vendor_name, 'Outside CA' AS vendor_state FROM vendors WHERE vendor_state NOT IN 'CA' ORDER BY vendor_name This gives me the exact answer I need, but I don't know why the aliasing in the second select statement can behave this way....no explanation is given in my textbook and nothing I've read indicates that column aliasing can be done like this. But, by switching the column name and the alias value, I have replaced the value being returned rather than the column name itself...I'm not complaining about the result, but it would help if I knew how I did it.

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[ask][php] find dynamic filename exist

- by r4ccoon

hi. i am writing a cache module in php. it tries to write a cache with a $string+timestamp as a filename. i dont have problem with writing the cache. the problem is i do a foreach loop to get the cache that i want. this is the logic that i use for getting the cache foreach ($filenames as $filename){ if(strstr($filename,$cachename)){//if found if(check_timestamp($filename,time())) display_cace($filename); break; } } but when it tries to get and read the cache, it slows the server down. imagine that i have 10000 cache file in a folder, and i need to check for every file in that cache folder. so how do you think the best way of doing this. here i explain again, because even me still dont understand my written question.. :D i write cache file with this format filename_timestamp.. e.g cache_function_random_news_191982899010 in a folder ./cache/ when i want to get the cache, i only pass "cache_function_random_news_" and check recursively on that folder. if i find something with that needle on a file name, display it, and break. but checking recursively on a 10000 files in a folder is not a good thing yeah? please give me your opinion ok, that would clarify more. thanks.

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"Cannot find the declaration of element 'beans'. at mvc-dispatcher-servlet.xml", but can when I copy, delete and re-paste?

- by stevendao

Running Maven, Eclipse, and Weblogic, when I try to Run As Server onto my local server, I get this error: "Cannot find the declaration of element 'beans'. at mvc-dispatcher-servlet.xml" Then, when I go back into the xml, select all, copy, delete, and paste, error goes away and I'm able to run the web app just fine on the server. Can anyone explain why? <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <context:component-scan base-package="src.srcc.sndao" /> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="prefix"> <value>/WEB-INF/view/</value> </property> <property name="suffix"> <value>.jsp</value> </property> </bean> </beans>

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Target to a page inside an iframe

- by Marcelo Srougi

I will try to explain again: I have 3 images in my index.html that when clicked i'd like to point respectively to ourmission.html, ourvalues.html and ourvision.html. But this 3 pages are inside an iframe located in the page ourcompany.html as you can see below: <aside class="sidebar"> <h4>Our Company</h4> <ul class="nav nav-list primary pull-bottom"> <li><a href="contactus.html"target="conteudo">Contact Us</a></li> <li><a href="ourmission.html" target="conteudo">Our Mission</a></li> <li><a href="ourvalues.html" target="conteudo">Our Values</a></li> <li><a href="ourvision.html"target="conteudo">Our Vision</a></li> </ul> </aside> <iframe src="contactus.html" frameborder='0' name="conteudo" width="700" height="700"> </iframe> How do i to point them directly, so the page ourcompany.html will load with the specific iframe opened.

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Using overloaded operator== in a generic function

- by Dimitri C.

Consider the following code: class CustomClass { public CustomClass(string value) { m_value = value; } public static bool operator==(CustomClass a, CustomClass b) { return a.m_value == b.m_value; } public static bool operator!=(CustomClass a, CustomClass b) { return a.m_value != b.m_value; } public override bool Equals(object o) { return m_value == (o as CustomClass).m_value; } public override int GetHashCode() { return 0; /* not needed */ } string m_value; } class G { public static bool enericFunction1<T>(T a1, T a2) where T : class { return a1.Equals(a2); } public static bool enericFunction2<T>(T a1, T a2) where T : class { return a1==a2; } } Now when I call both generic functions, one succeeds and one fails: var a = new CustomClass("same value"); var b = new CustomClass("same value"); Debug.Assert(G.enericFunction1(a, b)); // Succeeds Debug.Assert(G.enericFunction2(a, b)); // Fails Apparently, G.enericFunction2 executes the default operator== implementation instead of my override. Can anybody explain why this happens?

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Questions about shifting from mysql to PDO

- by Scarface

Hey guys I have recently decided to switch all my current plain mysql queries performed with php mysql_query to PDO style queries to improve performance, portability and security. I just have some quick questions for any experts in this database interaction tool Will it prevent injection if all statements are prepared? (I noticed on php.net it wrote 'however, if other portions of the query are being built up with unescaped input, SQL injection is still possible' I was not exactly sure what this meant). Does this just mean that if all variables are run through a prepare function it is safe, and if some are directly inserted then it is not? Currently I have a connection at the top of my page and queries performed during the rest of the page. I took a look at PDO in more detail and noticed that there is a try and catch procedure for every query involving a connection and the closing of that connection. Is there a straightforward way to connecting and then reusing that connection without having to put everything in a try or constantly repeat the procedure by connecting, querying and closing? Can anyone briefly explain in layman's terms what purpose a set_exception_handler serves? I appreciate any advice from any more experienced individuals.

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Access property of a class from within a class instantiated in the original class.

- by Iain

I'm not certain how to explain this with the correct terms so maybe an example is the best method... $master = new MasterClass(); $master-doStuff(); class MasterClass { var $a; var $b; var $c; var $eventProccer; function MasterClass() { $this->a = 1; $this->eventProccer = new EventProcess(); } function printCurrent() { echo '<br>'.$this->a.'<br>'; } function doStuff() { $this->printCurrent(); $this->eventProccer->DoSomething(); $this->printCurrent(); } } class EventProcess { function EventProcess() {} function DoSomething() { // trying to access and change the parent class' a,b,c properties } } My problem is i'm not certain how to access the properties of the MasterClass from within the EventProcess-DoSomething() method? I would need to access, perform operations on and update the properties. The a,b,c properties will be quite large arrays and the DoSomething() method would be called many times during the execuction of the script. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated :)

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Clarification on ZVals

- by Beachhouse

I was reading this: http://www.dereleased.com/2011/04/27/the-importance-of-zvals-and-circular-references/ And there's an example that lost me a bit. $foo = &$bar; $bar = &$foo; $baz = 'baz'; $foo = &$baz; var_dump($foo, $bar); /* string(3) "baz" NULL */ If you’ve been following along, this should make perfect sense. $foo is created, and pointed at a ZVal location identified by $bar; when $bar is created, it points at the same place $foo was pointed. That location, of course, is null. When $foo is reassigned, the only thing that changes is to which ZVal $foo points; if we had assigned a different value to $foo first, then $bar would still retain that value. I learned to program in C. I understand that PHP is different and it uses ZVals instead of memory locations as references. But when you run this code: $foo = &$bar; $bar = &$foo; It seems to me that there would be two ZVals. In C there would be two memory locations (and the values would be of the opposite memory location). Can someone explain?

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Which way of declaring a variable is fastest?

- by ADB

For a variable used in a function that is called very often and for implementation in J2ME on a blackberry (if that changed something, can you explain)? class X { int i; public void someFunc(int j) { i = 0; while( i < j ){ [...] i++; } } } or class X { static int i; public void someFunc(int j) { i = 0; while( i < j ){ [...] i++; } } } or class X { public void someFunc(int j) { int i = 0; while( i < j ){ [...] i++; } } } I know there is a difference how a static versus non-static class variable is accessed, but I don't know it would affect the speed. I also remember reading somewhere that in-function variables may be accessed faster, but I don't know why and where I read that. Background on the question: some painting function in games are called excessively often and even small difference in access time can affect the overall performance when a variable is used in a largish loop.

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Destroy? Delete? What's going on here? Rails 2.3.5

- by Steve

I am new to rails. My rails version is 2.3.5. I found usage like: In controller, a destroy method is defined and in view, you can use :action = "delete" to fire that method. Isn't the action name has to be the same as the method name? Why delete is mapped to destroy? Again, in my controller, I define a method called destroy to delete a record. In a view, I have <%= link_to "remove", :action = 'destroy', :id = myrecord %. But it never works in practice. Every time I press the remove link, it redirects me to the show view, showing the record's content. I am pretty sure that my destroy method is: def destroy @myobject = MyObject.find(params[:id]) @myobject.destroy @redirect_to :action = 'index' end If I change the method name from destroy to something like remove_me and change the action name to remove_me in the view, everything works as expected. In the above two wired problems, I am sure there is no tricky rountting set in my configuration. All in all, seems the destroy and delete are mysterious keywords in rails. Anyone can explain this to me? Thank you very much.

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Populate array from vector

- by Zag zag..

Hi, I would like to populate an 2 dimensional array, from a vector. I think the best way to explain myself is to put some examples (with a array of [3,5] length). When vector is: [1, 0] [ [4, 3, 2, 1, 0], [4, 3, 2, 1, 0], [4, 3, 2, 1, 0] ] When vector is: [-1, 0] [ [0, 1, 2, 3, 4], [0, 1, 2, 3, 4], [0, 1, 2, 3, 4] ] When vector is: [-2, 0] [ [0, 0, 1, 1, 2], [0, 0, 1, 1, 2], [0, 0, 1, 1, 2] ] When vector is: [1, 1] [ [2, 2, 2, 1, 0], [1, 1, 1, 1, 0], [0, 0, 0, 0, 0] ] When vector is: [0, 1] [ [2, 2, 2, 2, 2], [1, 1, 1, 1, 1], [0, 0, 0, 0, 0] ] Have you got any ideas, a good library or a plan? Any comments are welcome. Thanks. Note: I consulted Ruby "Matrix" and "Vector" classes, but I don't see any way to use it in my way... Edit: In fact, each value is the number of cells (from the current cell to the last cell) according to the given vector. If we take the example where the vector is [-2, 0], with the value *1* (at array[2, 3]): array = [ [<0>, <0>, <1>, <1>, <2>], [<0>, <0>, <1>, <1>, <2>], [<0>, <0>, <1>, *1*, <2>] ] ... we could think such as: The vector [-2, 0] means that -2 is for cols and 0 is for rows. So if we are in array[2, 3], we can move 1 time on the left (left because 2 is negative) with 2 length (because -2.abs == 2). And we don't move on the top or bottom, because of 0 for rows.

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How do I get a thumbnail or saveable path from UIImagePickerController to use for a UIImageView?

- by viperacr99

Could somebody please explain or show some sample code of how I can use get a thumbnail to be put into a UIImageView after the user selects a photo with UIImagePickerController? Let's say I want to set a thumbnail as the image of a table view cell. When the user presses the cell, the image picker is shown and the user selects an image that is already on their device. I also want to save the path to that thumbnail so that the next time the view is displayed, the proper thumbnail can be shown. I am able to display an image picker and my delegate get's the chosen image correctly, but I want the path to the thumbnail, and I want to load the thumbnail using that path (i.e. I want to save the path). I've searched for hours today and haven't figured this out. Perhaps I'm not understanding ALAsset, or maybe it is something else, but I can't find any examples that are helping me. I have never used the image picker or ALAsset before now, so I'm completely new at this.

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IE showing hidden div under certain circumstances

- by karola

After googling around and finding a lot of ie bugs I still did not find a description of the problem I have. The initial situation is a standard one. We have a tooltip which is actually a hidden div that will be displayed on mouseover at a given location. The div is hidden with display:none and contains a table with the content. We tried different libraries for showing the div (scriptaculous and jQuery Cluetip) but the effect is the same. The problem: Everything is fine as long as the contents fits the width of my window. But when I resize it until the horizontal scrollbar is activated the content of the hidden div will be shown at the end of the page when the tooltip is activated. This is really strange as it happens only under these premises. When more than one tooltip is involved the browser might even crash (and under Vista takes the whole system with him duh). I know it's a bit complicated to explain but I hope that someone at least had heard of that bug and can point me into the right direction.

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How to use XML namespace prefixes without xmlns="..." everywhere? (.NET)

- by LonelyPixel

The subject is probably too short to explain it... I'm writing out XML files with no namespace stuff at all, for some application. That part I cannot change. But now I'm going to extend those files with my own application-defined element names, and I'd like to put them in a different namespace. For this, the result should look like this: <doc xmlns:x="urn:my-app-uri"> <a>existing element name</a> <x:addon>my additional element name</x:addon> </doc> I've used an XmlNamespaceManager and added my URI with the prefix "x" to it. I've also passed it to each CreateElement for my additional element names. But the nearest I can get is this: <doc> <a>existing element name</a> <addon xmlns="urn:my-app-uri">my additional element name</addon> </doc> Or maybe also <x:addon xmlns:x="urn:my-app-uri">my additional element name</x:addon> So the point is that my URI is written to every single of my additional elements, and no common prefix is written to the document element where I'd like to have it. How can I get the above XML result with .NET?

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[javascript] Can I overload an object with a function?

- by user257493

Lets say I have an object of functions/values. I'm interested in overloading based on calling behavior. For example, this block of code below demonstrates what I wish to do. var main_thing = { initalized: false, something: "Hallo, welt!", something_else: [123,456,789], load: { sub1 : function() { //Some stuff }, sub2 : function() { //Some stuff }, all : function() { this.load.sub1(); this.load.sub2(); } } init: function () { this.initalized=true; this.something="Hello, world!"; this.something_else = [0,0,0]; this.load(); //I want this to call this.load.all() instead. } } The issue to me is that main_thing.load is assigned to an object, and to call main_thing.load.all() would call the function inside of the object (the () operator). What can I do to set up my code so I could use main_thing.load as an access the object, and main_thing.load() to execute some code? Or at least, similar behavior. Basically, this would be similar to a default constructor in other languages where you don't need to call main_thing.constructor(). If this isn't possible, please explain with a bit of detail.

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Calling a constructor to reinitialize variables doesn't seem to work?

- by Matt

I wanted to run 1,000 iterations of a program, so set a counter for 1000 in main. I needed to reinitialize various variables after each iteration, and since the class constructor had all the initializations already written out - I decided to call that after each iteration, with the result of each iteration being stored in a variable in main. However, when I called the constructor, it had no effect...it took me a while to figure out - but it didn't reinitialize anything! I created a function exactly like the constructor - so the object would have its own version. When I called that, it reinitialized everything as I expected. int main() { Class MyClass() int counter = 0; while ( counter < 1000 ) { stuff happens } Class(); // This is how I tried to call the constructor initially. // After doing some reading here, I tried: // Class::Class(); // - but that didn't work either /* Later I used... MyClass.function_like_my_constructor; // this worked perfectly */ } ...Could someone try to explain why what I did was wrong, or didn't work, or was silly or what have you? I mean - mentally, I just figured - crap, I can call this constructor and have all this stuff reinitialized. Are constructors (ideally) ONLY called when an object is created?

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Trouble understanding the semantics of volatile in Java

- by HungryTux

I've been reading up about the use of volatile variables in Java. I understand that they ensure instant visibility of their latest updates to all the threads running in the system on different cores/processors. However no atomicity of the operations that caused these updates is ensured. I see the following literature being used frequently A write to a volatile field happens-before every read of that same field . This is where I am a little confused. Here's a snippet of code which should help me better explain my query. volatile int x = 0; volatile int y = 0; Thread-0: | Thread-1: | if (x==1) { | if (y==1) { return false; | return false; } else { | } else { y=1; | x=1; return true; | return true; } | } Since x & y are both volatile, we have the following happens-before edges between the write of y in Thread-0 and read of y in Thread-1 between the write of x in Thread-1 and read of x in Thread-0 Does this imply that, at any point of time, only one of the threads can be in its 'else' block(since a write would happen before the read)? It may well be possible that Thread-0 starts, loads x, finds it value as 0 and right before it is about to write y in the else-block, there's a context switch to Thread-1 which loads y finds it value as 0 and thus enters the else-block too. Does volatile guard against such context switches (seems very unlikely)?

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Sinatra: rendering snippets (partials)

- by Michael

I'm following along with an O'Reilly book that's building a twitter clone with Sinatra. As Sinatra doesn't have 'partials' (in the way that Rails does), the author creates his own 'snippets' that work like partials. I understand that this is fairly common in Sinatra. Anyways, inside one of his snippets (see the first one below) he calls another snippet text_limiter_js (which is copied below). Text_limiter_js is basically a javascript function. If you look at the javascript function in text_limiter_js, you'll notice that it takes two parameters. I don't understand where these parameters are coming from because they're not getting passed in when text_limiter_js is rendered inside the other snippet. I'm not sure if I've given enough information/code for someone to help me understand this, but if you can, please explain. =snippet :'/snippets/text_limiter_js' %h2.comic What are you doing? %form{:method => 'post', :action => '/update'} %textarea.update.span-15#update{:name => 'status', :rows => 2, :onKeyDown => "text_limiter($('#update'), $('#counter'))"} .span-6 %span#counter 140 characters left .prepend-12 %input#button{:type => 'submit', :value => 'update'} text_limiter_js.haml :javascript function text_limiter(field,counter_field) { limit = 139; if (field.val().length > limit) field.val(field.val().substring(0, limit)); else counter_field.text(limit - field.val().length); }

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Template specialization to use default type if class member typedef does not exist

- by Frank

Hi Everyone, I'm trying to write code that uses a member typedef of a template argument, but want to supply a default type if the template argument does not have that typedef. A simplified example I've tried is this: struct DefaultType { DefaultType() { printf("Default "); } }; struct NonDefaultType { NonDefaultType() { printf("NonDefault "); } }; struct A {}; struct B { typedef NonDefaultType Type; }; template<typename T, typename Enable = void> struct Get_Type { typedef DefaultType Type; }; template<typename T> struct Get_Type< T, typename T::Type > { typedef typename T::Type Type; }; int main() { Get_Type::Type test1; Get_Type::Type test2; } I would expect this to print "Default NonDefault", but instead it prints "Default Default". My expectation is that the second line in main() should match the specialized version of Get_Type, because B::Type exists. However, this does not happen. Can anyone explain what's going on here and how to fix it, or another way to accomplish the same goal? Thank you.

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C++ bit shifting

- by JB_SO

Hi, I am new to working with bits & bytes in C++ and I'm looking at some previously developed code and I need some help in understanding what is going on with the code. There is a byte array and populating it with some data and I noticed that the data was being '&' with a 0x0F (Please see code snipped below). I don't really understand what is going on there....if somebody could please explain that, it would be greatly apperciated. Thanks! //Message Definition /* Byte 1: Bit(s) 3:0 = Unused; set to zero Bit(s) 7:4 = Message ID; set to 10 */ /* Byte 2: Bit(s) 3:0 = Unused; set to zero Bit(s) 7:4 = Acknowledge Message ID; set to 11 */ //Implementation BYTE Msg_Arry[2]; int Msg_Id = 10; int AckMsg_Id = 11; Msg_Arry[0] = Msg_Id & 0x0F; //MsgID & Unused Msg_Arry[1] = AckMsg_Id & 0x0F; //AckMsgID & Unused

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possible solutions of the warning

- by lego69

Hello, I have a very large code, that's why I can't post here all my code, can somebody explain what might be a problem if I have an error incompatible pointer type and give me several ways to solve it, thanks in advance just small clarification: I'm workin with pointers to functions ptrLine createBasicLine(){ DECLARE_RESULT_ALLOCATE_AND_CHECK(ptrLine, Line); result->callsHistory = listCreate(copyCall,destroyCall); <-here result->messagesHistory = listCreate(copyMessage,destroyMessage); <-and here result->linesFeature = NULL; result->strNumber = NULL; result->lastBill = 0; result->lineType = MTM_REGULAR_LINE; result->nCallTime = 0; result->nMessages = 0; result->rateForCalls = 0; result->rateForMessage = 0; return result; } copyCall,destroyCall - pointers to functions /** * Allocates a new List. The list starts empty. * * @param copyElement * Function pointer to be used for copying elements into the list or when * copying the list. * @param freeElement * Function pointer to be used for removing elements from the list * @return * NULL - if one of the parameters is NULL or allocations failed. * A new List in case of success. */ List listCreate(CopyListElement copyElement, FreeListElement freeElement); definitions of the functions ptrCall (*createCall)() = createNumberContainer; void (*destroyCall)(ptrCall) = destroyNumberContainer; ptrCall (*copyCall)(ptrCall) = copyNumberContainer;

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What happens with $q.all() when some calls work and others fail?

- by Alan

What happens with $q.all() when some calls work and others fail? I have the following code: var entityIdColumn = $scope.entityType.toLowerCase() + 'Id'; var requests = $scope.grid.data .filter(function (rowData, i) { return !angular.equals(rowData, $scope.grid.backup[i]); }) .map(function (rowData, i) { var entityId = rowData[entityIdColumn]; return $http.put('/api/' + $scope.entityType + '/' + entityId, rowData); }); $q.all(requests).then(function (allResponses) { //if all the requests succeeded, this will be called, and $q.all will get an //array of all their responses. console.log(allResponses[0].data); }, function (error) { //This will be called if $q.all finds any of the requests erroring. var abc = error; var def = 99; }); When all of the $http calls work then the allResponses array is filled with data. When one fails the it's my understanding that the second function will be called and the error variable given details. However can someone help explain to me what happens if some of the responses work and others fail?

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Remove all rows in duplication (different from distinct row selection)

- by user1671401

How can I remove EVERY duplicating row in a DataTable, based on the value of two columns that are in duplication. Unfortunately, I am unable to find the equivalent LINQ Query. (I dont want distinct values even). The table below shall explain my problem I want to delete every row in duplication based on Column_A and Column_B COLUMN_A COLUMN_B COLUMN_C COLUMN_D..... A B C D E F G H A B E F EXPECTED OUTPUT: COLUMN_A COLUMN_B COLUMN_C COLUMN_D..... C D G H Please help

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