Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 245/332 | < Previous Page | 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252  | Next Page >

• Bizarre Javascript JSON undefined error

  - by Nate C-K

  I'm experiencing an error that I haven't been able to find any mention of anywhere. I'm developing an AJAX-enabled WCF web service with ASP.NET. In my ASP.NET master page's , I included the json.js file, copied fresh from json.org. When I run the page, it fails (VS 2008 catches a Javascript exception) on the first line of code in json.js (following lots of comments), which is: JSON = JSON || {}; The error says that JSON is undefined: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'JSON' is undefined Well, duh! That's why the line is testing if it's defined and if so setting it to an empty object! It is supposed to be undefined, right? Last I heard it was not an error in Javascript to perform such an operation on an undefined variable. Can anyone give me a clue as to what's going on here? I suspect it's something gone wrong elsewhere that's somehow causing this problem. I don't have deep experience with either Javascript or ASP.NET so it might be that I'm missing some common gotcha in the setup.

  Read the article

• how do i execute a stored procedure with vici coolstorage?

  - by lincolnk

  I'm building an app around Vici Coolstorage (asp.net version). I have my classes created and mapped to my database tables and can pull a list of all records fine. I've written a stored procedure where the query jumps across databases that aren't mapped with Coolstorage, however, the fields in the query result map directly to one of my classes. The procedure takes 1 parameter. so 2 questions here: how do i execute the stored procedure? i'm doing this CSParameterCollection collection = new CSParameterCollection(); collection.Add("@id", id); var result = Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery("procedurename", collection); and getting the exception "Incorrect syntax near 'procedurename'." (i'm guessing this is because it's trying to execute it as text rather than a procedure?) and also, since the class representing my table is defined as abstract, how do i specify that result should create a list of MyTable objects instead of generic or dynamic or whatever objects? if i try Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery<MyTable>(...) the compiler yells at me for it being an abstract class.

  Read the article

• NHibernate stored procedure problem

  - by Calvin

  I'm having a hard time trying to get my stored procedure works with NHibernate. The data returned from the SP does not correspond to any database table. This is my mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DomainModel" namespace="DomainModel.Entities"> <sql-query name="DoSomething"> <return class="SomeClass"> <return-property name="ID" column="ID"/> </return> exec [dbo].[sp_doSomething] </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> Here is my domain class: namespace DomainModel.Entities { public class SomeClass { public SomeClass() { } public virtual Guid ID { get; set; } } } When I run the code, it fails with Exception Details: NHibernate.HibernateException: Errors in named queries: {DoSomething} at line 80 Line 78: config.Configure(Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "NHibernate.config")); Line 79: Line 80: g_sessionFactory = config.BuildSessionFactory(); When I debug into NHibernate code, it seems that SomeClass is not added to the persister dictionary because there isn't a class mapping (only sql-query) defined in hbm.xml. And later on in CheckNamedQueries function, it is not able to find the persistor for SomeClass. I've checked all the obvious things (e.g. make hbm as an embedded resource) and my code isn't too much different from other samples I found on the web, but somehow I just can't get it working. Any idea how I can resolve this issue?

  Read the article

• How can I get bitfields to arrange my bits in the right order?

  - by Jim Hunziker

  To begin with, the application in question is always going to be on the same processor, and the compiler is always gcc, so I'm not concerned about bitfields not being portable. gcc lays out bitfields such that the first listed field corresponds to least significant bit of a byte. So the following structure, with a=0, b=1, c=1, d=1, you get a byte of value e0. struct Bits { unsigned int a:5; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); (Actually, this is C++, so I'm talking about g++.) Now let's say I'd like a to be a six bit integer. Now, I can see why this won't work, but I coded the following structure: struct Bits2 { unsigned int a:6; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); Setting b, c, and d to 1, and a to 0 results in the following two bytes: c0 01 This isn't what I wanted. I was hoping to see this: e0 00 Is there any way to specify a structure that has three bits in the most significant bits of the first byte and six bits spanning the five least significant bits of the first byte and the most significant bit of the second? Please be aware that I have no control over where these bits are supposed to be laid out: it's a layout of bits that are defined by someone else's interface.

  Read the article

• DesignTime data not showing in Blend when bound against CollectionViewSource

  - by bitbonk

  I have datatemplate for a viewmodel where an itemscontrol is bound again a CollectionViewSource (to enable sorting in xaml). <DataTemplate x:Key="equipmentDataTemplate"> <Viewbox> <Viewbox.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="viewSource" Source="{Binding Modules}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ID" Direction="Ascending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Viewbox.Resources> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource viewSource}}" Height="{DynamicResource equipmentHeight}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource moduleDataTemplate}"> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </Viewbox> </DataTemplate> I have also setup the UserControl where all of this is defined to provide designtime data d:DataContext="{x:Static vm:DesignTimeHelper.Equipment}"> This is basically a static property that gives me an EquipmentViewModel that has a list of ModuleViewModels (Equipment.Modules). Now as long as I bind to the CollectionViewSource the designtime data does not show up in blend 3. When I bind to the ViewModel collection directly <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Modules}" I can see the designtime data. Any idea what I could do?

  Read the article

• why DbCommandBuilder (Oracle) produces weird WHERE-clause to UpdateCommand?

  - by matti

  I have a table HolidayHome in oracle db which has unique db index on Id (I haven't specified this in the code in any way for adapter/table/dataset, don't know if i should/can). DbDataAdapter.SelectCommand is like this: SELECT Id, ExtId, Label, Location1, Location2, Location3, Location4, ClassId, X, Y, UseType FROM HolidayHome but UpdateCommand generated by DbCommandBuilder has very weird where clause: UPDATE HOLIDAYHOME SET ID = :p1, EXTID = :p2, LABEL = :p3, LOCATION1 = :p4, LOCATION2 = :p5, LOCATION3 = :p6, LOCATION4 = :p7, CLASSID = :p8, X = :p9, Y = :p10, USETYPE = :p11 WHERE ((ID = :p12) AND ((:p13 = 1 AND EXTID IS NULL) OR (EXTID = :p14)) AND ((:p15 = 1 AND LABEL IS NULL) OR (LABEL = :p16)) AND ((:p17 = 1 AND LOCATION1 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION1 = :p18)) AND ((:p19 = 1 AND LOCATION2 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION2 = :p20)) AND ((:p21 = 1 AND LOCATION3 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION3 = :p22)) AND ((:p23 = 1 AND LOCATION4 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION4 = :p24)) AND (CLASSID = :p25) AND (X = :p26) AND (Y = :p27) AND (USETYPE = :p28)) all these fields that have like: ((:p17 = 1 AND LOCATION1 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION1 = :p18)) are defined in oracle db like this: LOCATION1 VARCHAR2(30) so they allow null values. the code looks like this: static bool CreateInsertUpdateDeleteCmds(DbDataAdapter dataAdapter) { DbCommandBuilder builder = _trgtProvFactory.CreateCommandBuilder(); builder.DataAdapter = dataAdapter; // Get the insert, update and delete commands. dataAdapter.InsertCommand = builder.GetInsertCommand(); dataAdapter.UpdateCommand = builder.GetUpdateCommand(); dataAdapter.DeleteCommand = builder.GetDeleteCommand(); } what to do? The UpdateCommand is utter madness. Thanks & Best Regards: Matti

  Read the article

• Splitting EJBs and interfaces into separate module -- deployment fails

  - by Hank

  I'm having trouble following this guide to "extract" my interfaces and entities from my EAR to use them from another Web Application: I use NetBeans 6.8 and Glassfish 3.0.1 "Java Class Library" project contains all the entities and interfaces "Java EE Application" project class library added to the project, is packaged into the EAR contains EJB implementations, MDBs, Test "Java Web Application" project class library added to the project, is packaged into the WAR contains REST interface When I build and deploy the Web Application, all goes well. When I build the JEE application, I can see the jar-file (interfaces, entities) being included. But when I try to deploy the EAR, Glassfish refuses it with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError error: [#|2010-03-28T18:25:59.875+0200|WARNING|glassfishv3.0|javax.enterprise.system.tools.deployment.org.glassfish.deployment.common|_ThreadID=28;_ThreadName=Thread-1;|Error in annotation processing: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: mvs/core/StoreServiceLocal|#] [#|2010-03-28T18:25:59.876+0200|SEVERE|glassfishv3.0|javax.enterprise.system.core.com.sun.enterprise.v3.server|_ThreadID=28;_ThreadName=Thread-1;|Exception while deploying the app java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Invalid ejb jar [CoreServer]: it contains zero ejb. Note: 1. A valid ejb jar requires at least one session, entity (1.x/2.x style), or message-driven bean. 2. EJB3+ entity beans (@Entity) are POJOs and please package them as library jar. 3. If the jar file contains valid EJBs which are annotated with EJB component level annotations (@Stateless, @Stateful, @MessageDriven, @Singleton), please check server.log to see whether the annotations were processed properly. 'mvs/core/StoreServiceLocal' is an interface which is defined in the library jar file. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• MYSQL not running on Ubuntu OS - Error 2002.

  - by mgj

  Hi, I am a novice to mysql DB. I am trying to run the MYSQL Server on Ubuntu 10.04. Through Synaptic Package Manager I am have installed the mysql version: mysql-client-5.1 I wonder that how was the database password set for the mysql-client software that I installed through the above way.It would be nice if you could enlighten me on this. When I tried running this database, I encountered the error given below: mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ mysql ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (2) mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ I referred to a similar question posted by another user. I didn't find a solution through the proposed answers. For instance when I tried the solutions posted for the similar question I got the following: mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ service start mysqld start: unrecognized service mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ ps -u mysql ERROR: User name does not exist. ********* simple selection ********* ********* selection by list ********* -A all processes -C by command name -N negate selection -G by real group ID (supports names) -a all w/ tty except session leaders -U by real user ID (supports names) -d all except session leaders -g by session OR by effective group name -e all processes -p by process ID T all processes on this terminal -s processes in the sessions given a all w/ tty, including other users -t by tty g OBSOLETE -- DO NOT USE -u by effective user ID (supports names) r only running processes U processes for specified users x processes w/o controlling ttys t by tty *********** output format ********** *********** long options *********** -o,o user-defined -f full --Group --User --pid --cols --ppid -j,j job control s signal --group --user --sid --rows --info -O,O preloaded -o v virtual memory --cumulative --format --deselect -l,l long u user-oriented --sort --tty --forest --version -F extra full X registers --heading --no-heading --context ********* misc options ********* -V,V show version L list format codes f ASCII art forest -m,m,-L,-T,H threads S children in sum -y change -l format -M,Z security data c true command name -c scheduling class -w,w wide output n numeric WCHAN,UID -H process hierarchy mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ which mysql /usr/bin/mysql mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ mysql ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (2) I even tried referring to http://forums.mysql.com/read.php?11,27769,84713#msg-84713 but couldn't find anything useful. Please let me know how I could tackle this error. Thank you very much..

  Read the article

• UI Automation Button Style Enabled

  - by Victor Gaspar

  Hi, I'm evaluating UI Automation for UI testing for that I have a WPF application with the following button defined: <Button Style="{DynamicResource ButtonStyle}" x:Name="MyBtn"/> when I need to visually disable the button I just change the style so the user is aware that the button is disabled (the colour changed) but still the button is internally enabled so I can still launch the OnClick event in order to show a message when the user clicks on a "disabled" button. Now the problem is that I don't know how to check from UI Automation the Style that its currently applied i.e. if the button is disabled or enabled. Do you know how can I do that? In a normal situation I should do something like that: Automation.Condition cEBtn = new PropertyCondition(AutomationElement.AutomationIdProperty, "MyBtn"); AutomationElement mybtnElement = appRegraceElement.FindFirst(TreeScope.Children, cEBtn); bool disMyBtn = (bool)mybtnElement .GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.IsEnabledProperty); but in my case the button is always enabled therefore I need to check the Style applied to the button. Thank you very much. Best regards

  Read the article

• Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

  - by Deukalion

  I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

  Read the article

• Setting processor affinity on CSC.exe launched by CoreCompile MSBuild Task

  - by Hardy

  I am wondering if there is simple way to ensure that when a c# project is compiled the CSC.exe launched inherits the parent processor affinity settings, or perhaps of a way where by i can supply this. I have been trying to accomplish this by launching a bat file from vs.net cmd prompt like start /affinity 01 custombuild.cmd and inside my custombuild.cmd i have @echo off msbuild Libraries.sln /t:rebuild /p:Configuration=Release;platform=x64 /m:1 :END The command line call to Csc.exe this generates looks like the following C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. What i 'd like to see is the CSC.exe to inherit the processor affinity or a simple way to be able to override how csc.exe call is generated so i can make it into a start /affinity 01 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. I also noticed that CoreCompile target is defined in Microsoft.CSharp.targets, should i be considering overriding MSBuildToolsPath variable so i can sneak in my own version. This feels rather hacky. Any help would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Mysql InnoDB performance optimization and indexing

  - by Davide C

  Hello everybody, I have 2 databases and I need to link information between two big tables (more than 3M entries each, continuously growing). The 1st database has a table 'pages' that stores various information about web pages, and includes the URL of each one. The column 'URL' is a varchar(512) and has no index. The 2nd database has a table 'urlHops' defined as: CREATE TABLE urlHops ( dest varchar(512) NOT NULL, src varchar(512) DEFAULT NULL, timestamp timestamp NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, KEY dest_key (dest), KEY src_key (src) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 Now, I need basically to issue (efficiently) queries like this: select p.id,p.URL from db1.pages p, db2.urlHops u where u.src=p.URL and u.dest=? At first, I thought to add an index on pages(URL). But it's a very long column, and I already issue a lot of INSERTs and UPDATEs on the same table (way more than the number of SELECTs I would do using this index). Other possible solutions I thought are: -adding a column to pages, storing the md5 hash of the URL and indexing it; this way I could do queries using the md5 of the URL, with the advantage of an index on a smaller column. -adding another table that contains only page id and page URL, indexing both columns. But this is maybe a waste of space, having only the advantage of not slowing down the inserts and updates I execute on 'pages'. I don't want to slow down the inserts and updates, but at the same time I would be able to do the queries on the URL efficiently. Any advice? My primary concern is performance; if needed, wasting some disk space is not a problem. Thank you, regards Davide

  Read the article

• How to create a JAX-RS service where the sub-resource @Path doesn't have a leading slash

  - by Matt

  I've created a JAX-RS service (MyService) that has a number of sub resources, each of which is a subclass of MySubResource. The sub resource class being chosen is picked based on the parameters given in the MyService path, for example: @Path("/") @Provides({"text/html", "text/xml"}) public class MyResource { @Path("people/{id}") public MySubResource getPeople(@PathParam("id") String id) { return new MyPeopleSubResource(id); } @Path("places/{id}") public MySubResource getPlaces(@PathParam("id") String id) { return new MyPlacesSubResource(id); } } where MyPlacesSubResource and MyPeopleSubResource are both sub-classes of MySubResource. MySubResource is defined as: public abstract class MySubResource { protected abstract Results getResults(); @GET public Results get() { return getResults(); } @GET @Path("xml") public Response getXml() { return Response.ok(getResults(), MediaType.TEXT_XML_TYPE).build(); } @GET @Path("html") public Response getHtml() { return Response.ok(getResults(), MediaType.TEXT_HTML_TYPE).build(); } } Results is processed by corresponding MessageBodyWriters depending on the mimetype of the response. While this works it results in paths like /people/Bob/html or /people/Bob/xml where what I really want is /people/Bob.html or /people/Bob.xml Does anybody know how to accomplish what I want to do?

  Read the article

• Variable Assignment and loops (Java)

  - by Raven Dreamer

  Greetings Stack Overflowers, A while back, I was working on a program that hashed values into a hashtable (I don't remember the specifics, and the specifics themselves are irrelevant to the question at hand). Anyway, I had the following code as part of a "recordInput" method. tempElement = new hashElement(someInt); while(in.hasNext() == true) { int firstVal = in.nextInt(); if (firstVal == -911) { break; } tempElement.setKeyValue(firstVal, 0); for(int i = 1; i<numKeyValues;i++) { tempElement.setKeyValue(in.nextInt(), i); } elementArray[placeValue] = tempElement; placeValue++; } // close while loop } // close method This part of the code was giving me a very nasty bug -- no matter how I finagled it, no matter what input I gave the program, it would always produce an array full of only a single value -- the last one. The problem, as I later determined it, was that because I had not created the tempElement variable within the loop, and because values were not being assigned to elementArray[] until after the loop had ended -- every term was defined rather as "tempElement" -- when the loop terminated, every slot in the array was filled with the last value tempElement had taken. I was able to fix this bug by moving the declaration of tempElement within the while loop. My question to you, Stackoverflow, is whether there is another (read: better) way to avoid this bug while keeping the variable declaration of tempElement outside the while loop. (suggestions for better title and tags also appreciated)

  Read the article

• transactions and delete using fluent nhibernate

  - by Will I Am

  I am starting to play with (Fluent) nHibernate and I am wondering if someone can help with the following. I'm sure it's a total noob question. I want to do: delete from TABX where name = 'abc' where table TABX is defined as: ID int name varchar(32) ... I build the code based on internet samples: using (ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("FROM TABX WHERE name = :uid") .SetString("uid", "abc"); session.Delete(query.List<Person>()[0]); transaction.Commit(); } but alas, it's generating two queries (one select and one delete). I want to do this in a single statement, as in my original SQL. What is the correct way of doing this? Also, I noticed that in most samples on the internet, people tend to always wrap all queries in transactions. Why is that? If I'm only running a single statement, that seems an overkill. Do people tend to just mindlessly cut and paste, or is there a reason beyond that? For example, in my query above, if I do manage it to get it from two queries down to one, i should be able to remove the begin/commit transaction, no? if it matters, I'm using PostgreSQL for experimenting.

  Read the article

• Dependency isn't included in my assembly, although scope is "compile"

  - by Bernhard V

  Hi! I have the following dependency specified in my project's pom: <dependency> <groupId>org.jboss.client</groupId> <artifactId>jbossall-client</artifactId> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> My project itself has to be the child of another pom. And in that one, the following is defined: <dependency> <groupId>jboss</groupId> <artifactId>jbossall-client</artifactId> <version>4.2.2</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>jar</type> </dependency> When I now assembly my program, it seems that the "provided" scope of the parent pom overrides the scope of my project, since the jbossall-client-jar is not included in my assembly. Although it seems illogical to me, maybe it's this feature taking effect here. Do you know a way to include the dependency in my assembly without touching the parent pom?

  Read the article

• changing default my.cnf path in mysql

  - by user377941

  I am having two mysql instances on same machine. The installations are on /usr/loca/mysql1 and /usr/local/mysql2. I m having separate my.cnf files located in /etc/mysql1 and /etc/mysql2. I installed the first instance of my sql using source distribution and with the --prefix=/usr/local/mysql1 option. The second one i got from copying and pastinf the same directory to /usr/local/mysql2. When i start the mysql daemon on /usr.local/mysql/libexec it reads the my.cnf file in /etc/mysql1. And if i start the mysql daemon in /usr/local/mysql2 it reads the same my.cnf file. I have separate port numbers and .sock files defined in the .cnf file in those 2 locations. I can read the my.cnf file in the second location by using --defaults-file=/etc/mysql2/my.cnf option on mysqld startup. I dnt need to enter this each and every time i start the daemon. If i am going to have more instances how can i point the correct my.cnf file to read to each and every mysql daemon. What is the retionale behind mysqld links with the my.cnf file. how can i predefine the location of my.cnf file for each instance.

  Read the article

• Redirect to default action in Struts 2

  - by topher-j

  I have an action with an empty string for name defined in the root namespace, and I want to redirect to that action from another action if a certain result is found, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's the default action <action name="" class="com.example.actions.HomeAction"> <result name="success" type="freemarker">freemarker/home.ftl</result> </action> And I'm defining the redirect in the global-results for the package: <global-results> <result name="sendToRouting" type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName"></param> <param name="namespace">/</param> </result> </global-results> I've tried taking out the actionName parameter, but that doesn't work. If I put a name in for the HomeAction and reference it by name in the global-results it works, so I'm assuming the problem is lack of action name for the redirect. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Breaking down currency in c#

  - by Thatguy

  i'm trying to get this program to break down a user defined amount of dollars into the fewest possible bills. i don't think my for loops are running because if i put a writeline line in them it doesn't show up when i run it. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication13 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.Write("Enter the amount of money: $"); int totalAmount = Convert.ToInt32(Console.ReadLine()); calculateNumberOfBills(totalAmount); } static void calculateNumberOfBills(int totalAmount) { int[] denominations = { 20, 10, 5, 1 }; int[] numberOfBills = new int[4]; for (numberOfBills[0] = 0; totalAmount < 20; numberOfBills[0]++) { totalAmount = totalAmount - 20; } for (numberOfBills[1] = 0; totalAmount < 10; numberOfBills[1]++) { totalAmount = totalAmount - 10; } for (numberOfBills[2] = 0; totalAmount < 5; numberOfBills[2]++) { totalAmount = totalAmount - 5; } for (numberOfBills[3] = 0; totalAmount <= 0; numberOfBills[3]++) { totalAmount = totalAmount - 1; } Console.WriteLine("Number of twenties" + numberOfBills[0]); Console.WriteLine("Number of tens" + numberOfBills[1]); Console.WriteLine("Number of fives" + numberOfBills[2]); Console.WriteLine("Number of ones" + numberOfBills[3]); } } }

  Read the article

• JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

  - by Steve Armstrong

  I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

  Read the article

• Total Order between !different! volatile variables?

  - by andreas

  Hi all, Consider the following Java code: volatile boolean v1 = false; volatile boolean v2 = false; //Thread A v1 = true; if (v2) System.out.println("v2 was true"); //Thread B v2 = true; if (v1) System.out.println("v1 was true"); If there was a globally visible total order for volatile accesses then at least one println would always be reached. Is that actually guaranteed by the Java Standard? Or is an execution like this possible: A: v1 = true; B: v2 = true; A: read v2 = false; B: read v1 = false; A: v2 = true becomes visible (after the if) B: v1 = true becomes visible (after the if) I could only find statements about accesses to the same volatile variable in the Standard (but I might be missing something). "A write to a volatile variable (§8.3.1.4) v synchronizes-with all subsequent reads of v by any thread (where subsequent is defined according to the synchronization order)." http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/third_edition/html/memory.html#17.4.4 Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to bind "rest" variables to list of values in macro in Scheme

  - by Slartibartfast

  I want to make a helper macro for writing match-extensions. I have something like this: (define-match-expander my-expander (? (stx) (let* ([dat (cdr (syntax-e stx))] [var1 (car dat))] [var2 (cadr dat)]) ;transformer goes here ))) So I wanted a macro that will do this let binding. I've started with something like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (match-let ([(vars ...) (cdr (syntax-e stx))]) body)))) but match-let isn't defined in transformation time. First question would be is there any other way of doing this (making this expanders, I mean)? Maybe there is already something similar in plt-scheme that I'm not aware of, or I'm doing it wrong in some way. Regardless of answer on the first question, if I ever want to bound list of variables to list of values inside of a macro, how should I do it? EDIT: In combination with Eli's answer macro now looks like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (syntax-case stx () [(_ vars ...) body]))))

  Read the article

• should variable be released or not? iphone-sdk

  - by psebos

  Hi, In the following piece of code (from a book) data is an NSDictionary *data; defined in the header (no property). In the viewDidLoad of the controller the following occurs: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"home", @"work", nil]; NSArray *homeDVDs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"Thomas the Builder", nil]; NSArray *workDVDs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"Intro to Blender", nil]; NSArray *values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:homeDVDs, workDVDs, nil]; data = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithObjects:values forKeys:keys]; } Since I am really new to objective-c can someone explain to me why I do not have to retain the variables keys,homeDVDs,workDVDs and values prior exiting the function? I would expect prior the data allocation something like: [keys retain]; [homeDVDs retain]; [workDVDs retain]; [values retain]; or not? Does InitWithObjects copies (recursively) all objects into a new table? Assuming we did not have the last line (data allocation) should we release all the NSArrays prior exiting the function (or we could safely assumed that all NSArrays will be autoreleased since there is no alloc for each one?) Thanks!!!!

  Read the article

• Strange constructor

  - by Bilthon

  Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

  Read the article

• How do I stop ValueConverters from firing when swapping the content of a ContentControl

  - by DanM

  I thought what I was doing was right out of the Josh Smith MVVM handbook, but I seem to be having a lot of problems with value converters firing when no data in the view-model has changed. So, I have a ContentControl defined in XAML like this: <ContentControl Grid.Row="0" Content="{Binding CurrentViewModel}" /> The Window containing this ContentControl references a resource dictionary that looks something like this: <ResourceDictionary ...> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:SetupPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:SetupPanel /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:InstructionsPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:InstructionsPanel /> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> So, basically, the two data templates specify which view to show with which view-model. This switches the views as expected whenever the CurrentViewModel property on my window's view-model changes, but it also seems to cause value converters on the views to fire even when no data has changed. It's a particular problem with IMultiValueConverter classes, because the values in the value array get set to DependencyProperty.UnsetValue, which causes exceptions unless I specifically check for that. But I'm getting other weird side effects too. This has me wondering if I shouldn't just do everything manually, like this: Instantiate each view. Set the DataContext of each view to the appropriate view-model. Give the ContentControl a name and make it public. Handle the PropertyChanged event for the window. In the event handler, manually set the Content property of the ContentControl to the appropriate view, based the CurrentViewModel (using if statements). This seems to work, but it also seems very inelegant. I'm hoping there's a better way. Could you please advise me the best way to handle view switching so that value converters don't fire unnecessarily?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252  | Next Page >