Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 241/332 | < Previous Page | 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248  | Next Page >

  • What is usefulness of W3C's "Semantic Data Extractor" in semantically correct XHTML CSS Development?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    What is the usefulness of W3C's Semantic Data Extractor? http://www.w3.org/2003/12/semantic-extractor.html This tool, geared by an XSLT stylesheet, tries to extract some information from a HTML semantic rich document. It only uses information available through a good usage of the semantics defined in HTML. The aim is to show that providing a semantically rich HTML gives much more value to your code: using a semantically rich HTML code allows a better use of CSS, makes your HTML intelligible to a wider range of user agents (especially search engines bots). As an aside, it can give clues to user agents developers on some hooks that could be interesting to add in their product. After checking validation for CSS and HTML. Should i go for Semantic Data Extractor tool. What it does. and how it can improved our coding.? Is anyone using it? And i check some site randomly with but with most of sites it gives error Using org.apache.xerces.parsers.SAXParser Exception net.sf.saxon.trans.XPathException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`". org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`". Is it possible to get pass every site with this tool? on one site i got this error No top-level heading (h1) found, no outline extracted. Is it necessary to have at least a H1 in any webpage?

    Read the article

  • What is usefulness of W3C's Semantic Data Extractor in semantically correct XHTML CSS Development?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    What is the usefulness of W3C's Semantic Data Extractor? http://www.w3.org/2003/12/semantic-extractor.html This tool, geared by an XSLT stylesheet, tries to extract some information from a HTML semantic rich document. It only uses information available through a good usage of the semantics defined in HTML. The aim is to show that providing a semantically rich HTML gives much more value to your code: using a semantically rich HTML code allows a better use of CSS, makes your HTML intelligible to a wider range of user agents (especially search engines bots). As an aside, it can give clues to user agents developers on some hooks that could be interesting to add in their product. After checking validation for CSS and HTML. Should i go for Semantic Data Extractor tool. What it does. and how it can improved our coding.? Is anyone using it? And i check some site randomly with but with most of sites it gives error Using org.apache.xerces.parsers.SAXParser Exception net.sf.saxon.trans.XPathException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`". org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`".

    Read the article

  • Invert linear linked list

    - by ArtWorkAD
    Hi, a linear linked list is a set of nodes. This is how a node is defined (to keep it easy we do not distinguish between node an list): class Node{ Object data; Node link; public Node(Object pData, Node pLink){ this.data = pData; this.link = pLink; } public String toString(){ if(this.link != null){ return this.data.toString() + this.link.toString(); }else{ return this.data.toString() ; } } public void inc(){ this.data = new Integer((Integer)this.data + 1); } public void lappend(Node list){ Node child = this.link; while(child != null){ child = child.link; } child.link = list; } public Node copy(){ if(this.link != null){ return new Node(new Integer((Integer)this.data), this.link.copy()); }else{ return new Node(new Integer((Integer)this.data), null); } } public Node invert(){ Node child = this.link; while(child != null){ child = child.link; } child.link = this;.... } } I am able to make a deep copy of the list. Now I want to invert the list so that the first node is the last and the last the first. The inverted list has to be a deep copy. I started developing the invert function but I am not sure. Any Ideas? Update: Maybe there is a recursive way since the linear linked list is a recursive data structure. I would take the first element, iterate through the list until I get to a node that has no child and append the first element, I would repeat this for the second, third....

    Read the article

  • How to stop ejabberd from using mnesia

    - by Eldad Mor
    I'm trying to establish a procedure for restoring my database from a crashed server to a new server. My server is running Ejabberd as an XMPP server, and I configured it to use postgresql instead of mnesia - or so I thought. My procedure goes something like "dump the contents of the original DB, run the new server, restore the contents of the DBs using psql, then run the system". However, when I try running Ejabberd again I get a crash: =CRASH REPORT==== 3-Dec-2010::22:05:00 === crasher: pid: <0.36.0> registered_name: [] exception exit: {bad_return,{{ejabberd_app,start,[normal,[]]}, {'EXIT',"Error reading Mnesia database"}}} in function application_master:init/4 Here I was thinking that my system is running on PostgreSQL, while it seems I was still using Mnesia. I have several questions: How can I make sure mnesia is not being used? How can I divert all the ejabberd activities to PGSQL? This is the modules part in my ejabberd.cfg file: {modules, [ {mod_adhoc, []}, {mod_announce, [{access, announce}]}, % requires mod_adhoc {mod_caps, []}, {mod_configure,[]}, % requires mod_adhoc {mod_ctlextra, []}, {mod_disco, []}, {mod_irc, []}, {mod_last_odbc, []}, {mod_muc, [ {access, muc}, {access_create, muc}, {access_persistent, muc}, {access_admin, muc_admin}, {max_users, 500} ]}, {mod_offline_odbc, []}, {mod_privacy_odbc, []}, {mod_private_odbc, []}, {mod_pubsub, [ % requires mod_caps {access_createnode, pubsub_createnode}, {plugins, ["default", "pep"]} ]}, {mod_register, [ {welcome_message, none}, {access, register} ]}, {mod_roster_odbc, []}, {mod_stats, []}, {mod_time, []}, {mod_vcard_odbc, []}, {mod_version, []} ]}. What am I missing? I am assuming the crash is due to the mnesia DB being used by Ejabberd, and since it's out of sync with the PGSQL DB, it cannot operate correctly - but maybe I'm totally off track here, and would love some direction. EDIT: One problem solved. Since I'm using amazon cloud, I needed to hardcode the ERLANG_NODE so it won't be defined by the hostname (which changes on reboot). This got my ejabberd running, but still I wish to stop using mnesia, and I wonder what part of ejabberd is still using it and how can I found it.

    Read the article

  • Ibator didn't generate Oracle varchar2 field

    - by bugbug
    I have table APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE with following fields: "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "TRACK_NO" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "REQ_DATE" DATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "OFFCODE" CHAR(6 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "COMPARE_CASE_ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "VEHICLE_NAME" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "ENGINE_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "BODY_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "HOLD_SHIP" NUMBER, "OWNERSHIP" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "RENT_NAME" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "CONTRACT" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_DATE" DATE, "ISLAWBREAKERRENT" CHAR(1 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "MISTAKE_DETAIL" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "COMPARE_REASON" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "CREATE_BY" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "CREATE_ON" DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "UPDATE_BY" NUMBER, "UPDATE_ON" DATE, When I generate a java bean using Ibator , I didn't find trackNo, VehicalName, ... (all fields defined as varchar2). What is the problem in my case? Here is my Ibator configuration file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE ibatorConfiguration PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Apache iBATIS Ibator Configuration 1.0//EN" "http://ibatis.apache.org/dtd/ibator-config_1_0.dtd"> <ibatorConfiguration> <classPathEntry location="/dos/connector/oracle_jdbc.jar"/> <ibatorContext id="autoPerson" defaultModelType="flat" targetRuntime="Ibatis2Java2"> <jdbcConnection connectionURL="jdbc:oracle:thin:@192.168.42.144:1521:orcl" driverClass="oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver" userId="user" password="password"/> <javaModelGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> <property name="trimStrings" value="true"/> </javaModelGenerator> <sqlMapGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.map" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> </sqlMapGenerator> <daoGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model.dao" type="SPRING" targetProject="FormConfig" implementationPackage="com.ko.model.dao.impl" > <property name="enableSubPackges" value="true"/> <property name="methodNameCalculator" value="extended"/> </daoGenerator> <table tableName="APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE" domainObjectName="AppReqApproveCompare"/> <ibatorConfiguration>

    Read the article

  • WPF tree data binding

    - by Am
    Hi, I have a well defined tree repository. Where I can rename items, move them up, down, etc. Add new and delete. The data is stored in a table as follows: Index Parent Label Left Right 1 0 root 1 14 2 1 food 2 7 3 2 cake 3 4 4 2 pie 5 6 5 1 flowers 8 13 6 5 roses 9 10 7 5 violets 11 12 Representing the following tree: (1) root (14) (2) food (7) (8) flowers (13) (3) cake (4) (5) pie (6) (9) roeses (10) (11) violets (12) or root food cake pie flowers roses violets Now, my problem is how to represent this in a bindable way, so that a TreeView can handle all the possible data changes? Renaming is easy, all I need is to make the label an updatble field. But what if a user moves flowers above food? I can make the relevant data changes, but they cause a complete data change to all other items in the tree. And all the examples I found of bindable hierarchies are good for non static trees.. So my current (and bad) solution is to reload the displayed tree after relocation change. Any direction will be good. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ArgumentOutOfRangeException when reading bytes from stream

    - by user345194
    I'm trying to read the response stream from an HttpWebResponse object. I know the length of the stream (_response.ContentLength) however I keep getting the following exception: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: size While debugging, I noticed that at the time of the error, the values were as such: length = 15032 //the length of the stream as defined by _response.ContentLength bytesToRead = 7680 //the number of bytes in the stream that still need to be read bytesRead = 7680 //the number of bytes that have been read (offset) body.length = 15032 //the size of the byte[] the stream is being copied to The peculiar thing is that the bytesToRead and bytesRead variables are ALWAYS 7680, regardless of the size of the stream (contained in the length variable). Any ideas? Code: int length = (int)_response.ContentLength; byte[] body = null; if (length 0) { int bytesToRead = length; int bytesRead = 0; try { body = new byte[length]; using (Stream stream = _response.GetResponseStream()) { while (bytesToRead > 0) { // Read may return anything from 0 to length. int n = stream.Read(body, bytesRead, length); // The end of the file is reached. if (n == 0) break; bytesRead += n; bytesToRead -= n; } stream.Close(); } } catch (Exception exception) { throw; } } else { body = new byte[0]; } _responseBody = body;

    Read the article

  • resource-ref at application scope in EJB 2.1 Project

    - by Mike Deck
    Is it possible to define resource references that are applicable to all EJBs in an application? Currently I have an ejb-jar.xml that looks something like this: <ejb-jar> <enterprise-beans> <session id="foo"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> <session id="bar"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> </enterprise-beans> </ejb-jar> You'll notice that both EJBs have the same resource-ref defined for both of them. Is there a way to factor this duplication out within a J2EE 1.4 application? Ideally I should be able to define the jdbc/myDatasource resource once within the application and have anything running inside that container be able to access it by doing a JNDI lookup for "java:comp/env/jdbc/myDatasource". Is there any way to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • how to refer to the current struct in an overloaded operator?

    - by genesys
    Hi! I have a struct for which i want to define a relative order by defining < , , <= and = operators. actually in my order there won't be any equality, so if one struct is not smaller than another, it's automatically larger. I defined the first operator like this: struct MyStruct{ ... ... bool operator < (const MyStruct &b) const {return (somefancycomputation);} }; now i'd like to define the other operators based on this operator, such that <= will return the same as < and the other two will simply return the oposite. so for example for the operator i'd like to write something like bool operator > (const MyStruct &b) const {return !(self<b);} but i don't know how to refere to this 'self' since i can refere only to the fields inside the current struct. whole is in C++ hope my question was understandable :) thank you for the help!

    Read the article

  • javafx doesnt repaint label till method has finished, why?

    - by jeff porter
    Hi all, I have a JavaFX app with a some code like this... public class MainListener extends EventListener{ override public function event (arg0 : String) : Void { statusText.content = arg0; } } statusText is defined like this... var statusText = Text { x: 30 y: stageHeight - 40 font: Font { name: "Bitstream Vera Sans Bold" size: 10 } wrappingWidth: 420 fill: Color.WHITE textAlignment: TextAlignment.CENTER content: "Status: awaiting DBF file." }; I also have some other Javacode that is load data, much like this.. public ArrayList<CustomerRecord> read(EventListener listener) { ArrayList<CustomerRecord> listOfCustomerRecords = new ArrayList<CustomerRecord>(); listener.event("Status: Starting read"); // ** takes a while... List<Map<String, CustomerField>> customerRecords = new Reader(file).readData(listener); // ** long running method over. listener.event("Status: Loaded all customers, count:" + listOfCustomerRecords.size()); return listOfCustomerRecords; } Now while the last method is in its long running call, I would expect to see my statusText updated to have 'Status: Starting read', but its doesn't. Its only when the read() method returns that the text is updated. If its was 'straight' java I would presume that the long running job is hogging the CPU, or the statusText needed to have repaint() called on it. Can anyone give me any ideas? Thanks Jeff Porter

    Read the article

  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • How do I code a loop for my echo statement?

    - by ggg
    I get only one printed result in the foreach echo loop at the bottom of the page. <?php defined('_JEXEC') or die('Restricted access'); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); $query0 = "SELECT * FROM `jos_ginfo` WHERE . . . LIMIT 30"; //echo $query0; $db->setQuery($query0); $ginfo = $db->loadObjectList(); //echo //$ginfo[0]; foreach($ginfo as $ginfo[$i]): {$i=0; $i++;} endforeach; echo $db->getErrorMsg(); if(empty($ginfo)){ echo "<center>No game found, try a different entry.</center>"; }else{ $pgndata = array ( $ginfo[$i]->Id); $i=0; foreach($pgndata as $ginfo[$i]->Id): //I am only getting one printed result! { echo "<a href='/index.php?option=com_publishpgn&tactical-game=".$ginfo[$i]->Id."&Itemid=78.html'>\n"; echo "".$ginfo[$i]->White." v. ".$ginfo[$i]->Black." (".$ginfo[$i]->Result.") ".$ginfo[$i]->EventDate." ECO:".$ginfo[$i]->ECO."</a><br>\n"; $i++; } endforeach; //echo "</div>"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Problem with Zend Project

    - by Fincha
    Hello, i write a script and it works perfectly, on my local server. I have uploaded it on my server and now I getting this Problem Parse error: syntax error, unexpected '{' in /homepages/46/d319011794/htdocs/suche/public/index.php on line 18 an here is my index.php <?php error_reporting(E_ALL || E_STRICT); define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__)) . '/../application'); set_include_path( APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . '../application/models' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path() ); require_once 'Zend/Loader.php'; Zend_Loader::registerAutoload(); new App_Connect(); try { //Line 18 require '../application/bootstrap.php'; } catch(Exception $exception) { echo "<html><body>Fehler beim bootstraping"; if(defined('APPLICATION_ENVIROMENT') && APPLICATION_EVIROMENT != 'production') { echo "<br><br>" . $exception->getMessage() . "<br>" . "<div align='left'>Stack Trace: " . "<pre> " . $exception->getTraceAsString() . "</pre></div>"; } echo "</body></html>"; exit(1); } Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance()->dispatch(); This is a Zend Project... so may be some one know what to do...

    Read the article

  • DataTable vs. Collection in .Net

    - by B Pete
    I am writing a program that needs to read a set of records that describe the register map of a device I need to communicate with. Each record will have a handfull of fields that describe the properties of each register. I don't really need to edit or modify the data in my VB or C# program, though I would like to be able to display the data on a grid. I would like to store the data in a CSV file, or perhaps an XML file. I need to enable users to edit the data off-line, preferably in excel. I am considering using a DataTable or a Collection of "Register" objects (which I would define). I prototyped a DataTable, and found I can read/write XML easily using the built in methods and I can easily bind to a DataGridView. I was not able to find a way to retreive info on a single register without using a query that returns a collection of rows, even though I defined a unique primaty key column. The syntax to get a value from a column is also complex, though I could be missing something on both counts. I'm tempted to use a collection of "Register" objects that I can access via a unique key. It would be a little more coding up front, but seems like a cleaner solution overall. I should still be able to use LINQ to dataset to query subsets of registers when I need them, but would also be able to grab a single field using a the key value, something like this: Registers(keyValue).fieldName). Which would be a cleaner approach to the problem? Is there a way to read/write XML into a Collection without needing custom code? Could this be accomplished using String for a key?

    Read the article

  • Writing language converter in ANTLR

    - by Stefan
    I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

    Read the article

  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • iPhone - ModalViewController not raising to top of the screen

    - by Oliver
    Hello, I have a UIImagePickerController that is shown [self presentModalViewController:self.picker animated:NO]; Then later on the code, I allow the user to display a preference panel : PreferencesController *nextWindow = [[[PreferencesController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Preferences" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController* navController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:nextWindow] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; At this point, the new controller raises on the screen, but don't go to the top. Some space is left "transparent" at the top (I can see the camera view behind), and the bottom of the view is hidden out of the screen. The space I am talking about is about a status bar height. The status bar is not present on the screen. The navigation controller is hidden : self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = YES; There is a toolbar at the top of the view. Nothing special into the view. The height of the view is defined at 480. All simulated element are set off in IB. The autoresize properties are all set on. I had a previous xib (I rebuilt it from scratch) that worked very well. I don't see what I missed on this one (I have only changed the xib, that replaces the previous one). I've cleaned the cache to be sure there was nothing left. No change... I've deleted everything in the new view to prevent some conflicts. No change... What did I miss ? How could I remove this empty space ?

    Read the article

  • Why did this work with Visual C++, but not with gcc?

    - by Carlos Nunez
    I've been working on a senior project for the last several months now, and a major sticking point in our team's development process has been dealing wtih rifts between Visual-C++ and gcc. (Yes, I know we all should have had the same development environment.) Things are about finished up at this point, but I ran into a moderate bug just today that had me wondering whether Visual-C++ is easier on newbies (like me) by design. In one of my headers, there is a function that relies on strtok to chop up a string, do some comparisons and return a string with a similar format. It works a little something like the following: int main() { string a, b, c; //Do stuff with a and b. c = get_string(a,b); } string get_string(string a, string b) { const char * a_ch, b_ch; a_ch = strtok(a.c_str(),","); b_ch = strtok(b.c_str(),","); } strtok is infamous for being great at tokenizing, but equally great at destroying the original string to be tokenized. Thus, when I compiled this with gcc and tried to do anything with a or b, I got unexpected behavior, since the separator used was completely removed in the string. Here's an example in case I'm unclear; if I set a = "Jim,Bob,Mary" and b="Grace,Soo,Hyun", they would be defined as a="JimBobMary" and b="GraceSooHyun" instead of staying the same like I wanted. However, when I compiled this under Visual C++, I got back the original strings and the program executed fine. I tried dynamically allocating memory to the strings and copying them the "standard" way, but the only way that worked was using malloc() and free(), which I hear is discouraged in C++. While I'm curious about that, the real question I have is this: Why did the program work when compiled in VC++, but not with gcc? (This is one of many conflicts that I experienced while trying to make the code cross-platform.) Thanks in advance! -Carlos Nunez

    Read the article

  • MVC Localization of Default Model Binder

    - by Dai Bok
    Hi, I am currently trying to figure out how to localize the error messages generated by MVC. Let me use the default model binder as an example, so I can explain the problem. Assuming I have a form, where a user enters thier age. The user then enters "ten" in to the form, but instead of getting the expected error of "Age must be beween 18 and 25." the message "The value 'ten' is not valid for Age." is displayed. The entity's age property is defined below: [Range(18, 25, ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof (Errors), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Age", ErrorMessage = "Range_ErrorMessage")] public int Age { get; set; } After some digging, I notice that this error text comes from the System.Web.Mvc.Resources.DefaultModelBinder_ValueInvalid in the MvcResources.resx file. Now, how can create localized versions of this file? As A solution, for example, should I download MVC source and add MvcResources.en_GB.resx, MvcResources.fr_FR.resx, MvcResources.es_ES.resx and MvcResources.de_DE.resx, and then compile my own version of MVC.dll? But I don't like this idea. Any one else know a better way?

    Read the article

  • PHP fails silently when php-code is within html tag

    - by Michal M
    PROBLEM UPDATED, READ BELOW For some reason my CI fails silently when loading view. Loading view is simply called from controller $this->load->view('templates/default.php'); Now. There are some functions in the loaded view that are not defined unless a proper helper is loaded as well. Normally, php would throw an error, but instead it fails silently here. I have no idea why. The template gets outputted till the line containing the undefined function. It took me long time to realise where my script is failing. Here's my setup: Windows 7 Ultimate Apache 2.2.15 PHP 5.3.2 with following error reporting settings: display_errors = On display_startup_errors = On error_reporting = E_ALL | E_STRICT CodeIgniter 1.7.2 Any ideas why would that be? UPDATE After further debugging, it turned out that PHP fails to report any errors when php code is inline with HTML and within the HTML tag. Now this is bizarre. This returns Fatal Error: <p><?php echo $bogus(); ?></p> This doesn't and fails silently: <p class="<?php echo $bogus(); ?>">paragraph</p> Why? :O UPDATE 2 Further investigation showed that if an error_log in PHP is specified, the errors are in fact reported in that file, but still not in the browser... Again, why? UPDATE 3 Actually my code should be slightly different. Checked another PHP installation on completely different machine and it confirmed the PHP bug. Reported here: http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=52040

    Read the article

  • Why does the Combo.SelectedValue get lost after some time

    - by tzup
    So I have this asp:DropDownList on a page. It renders like this (in IE7): <select name="ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista\',\'\')', 0)" id="ctl00_cphFilter_cbLista" class="agsSelect"> <option selected="selected" value="4350">A</option> <option value="4352">B</option> <option value="4349">C</option> <option value="4348">D</option> And then I have a grid and a button on the same page. When the user clicks the button the selected item of the dropdown is read (well a datasource object reads it) and the grid does a databind after a trip to a DB where it gets some data based on that selected value. This works fine most of the time. However sometimes, the selection in the dropdownlist seems to get lost even though the rendered page says the A is the selected item. The datasource object is defined like this: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsVM" runat="server" EnablePaging="False" SelectMethod="Select" SortParameterName="sort" TypeName="X.Business.Entities.LPVM.BE"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter Name="listaId" Type="Int32" ControlID="cphFilter$cbLista" PropertyName="SelectedValue" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Any ideas why the grid would reload its data with a select parameter that is 0 instead of the selected value of the dropdownlist? EDIT Suppose the dropdownlist is bound, the user selected B and the grid is bound as well and shows the right data. Now, I wait 2 minutes and I click the Refresh button. Surprisingly, at this particular moment the dropdownlist.SelectedValue (which I already know it was 4352 before I clicked because that's how it looks in the rendered page) is actually an empty string. Where did the value go?

    Read the article

  • Add multiple entities to Javascript namespace from different files

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    Given a namespaces ns used in two different files: abc.js ns = ns || (function () { foo = function() { ... }; return { abc : foo }; }()); def.js // is this correct? ns = ns || {} ns.def = ns.def || (function () { defoo = function () { ... }; return { deFoo: defoo }; }()); Is this the proper way to add def to the ns to a namespace? In other words, how does one merge two contributions to a namespace in javascript? If abc.js comes before def.js I'd expect this to work. If def.js comes before abc.js I'd expect ns.abc to not exist because ns is defined at the time. It seems there ought to be a design pattern to eliminate any uncertainty of doing inclusions with the javascript namespace pattern. I'd appreciate thoughts and input on how best to go about this sort of 'inclusion'. Thanks for reading. Brian

    Read the article

  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Nested factory methods in Objective-C

    - by StephenT
    What's the best way to handle memory management with nested factory methods, such as in the following example? @implementation MyClass + (MyClass *) SpecialCase1 { return [MyClass myClassWithArg:1]; } + (MyClass *) SpecialCase2 { return [MyClass myClassWithArg:2]; } + (MyClass *) myClassWithArg:(int)arg { MyClass *instance = [[[MyClass alloc] initWithArg:arg] autorelease]; return instance; } - (id) initWithArg:(int)arg { self = [super init]; if (nil != self) { self.arg = arg; } return self; } @end The problem here (I think) is that the autorelease pool is flushed before the SpecialCaseN methods return to their callers. Hence, the ultimate caller of SpecialCaseN can't rely on the result having been retained. (I get "[MyClass copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x100110250" on trying to assign the result of [MyClass SpecialCase1] to a property on another object.) The reason for wanting the SpecialCaseN factory methods is that in my actual project, there are multiple parameters required to initialize the instance and I have a pre-defined list of "model" instances that I'd like to be able to create easily. I'm sure there's a better approach than this.

    Read the article

  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248  | Next Page >