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  • Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

    - by Lie Ryan
    I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

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  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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  • JQuery set img src depending on where you click

    - by Anna
    Hello ! I used javascript for loading a picture on my website depending on which "small" photos in ul you clicked... I had something like that : <script type="text/javascript"> function viewImage(src, legende) { document.getElementById("imageBig").src = "images/photos/"+src; document.getElementById("legend").innerHTML = legende; } </script> and in html simply : things like that : <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('flute.jpg','La Reine de la Nuit au Comedia')"><img src="images/photos/carre-09.jpg" alt="" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('perichole.jpg','Manuelita - <em>La P&eacute;richole</em> &agrave; l&#8217;Op&eacute;ra Comique')"><img src="images/photos/carre-03.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('12.png','R&eacute;cital &agrave; Carnac, septembre 2008')"><img src="images/photos/carre-12.jpg" alt="Marion Baglan Carnac R&eacute;" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('01.jpg','')"><img src="images/photos/carre-01.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> so you see, I could, depending on which small photos in the unordered list you clicked, load some particular photos, by passing the src string in argument... but I decided to use Jquery to get some fade-in effect. But I can't find a way to pass an argument that would tell my JQuery function which photo to load depending on where I clicked... stuck here : $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ulPhotos').click(function() { var newSrc= $('#imageBig').attr("src", "images/photos/11.jpg"); }); }); I don't want the 11.jpg to be hardcoded, I need to pass it through argument when I click on a special li element in my ul element of id #ulPhotos... I hope I'm clear enough sorry !

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  • Paste or Drop, copy data and release source?

    - by Harvey
    I have an MFC DocView SDI App that receives data from either the clipboard or drag and drop. The data is in either CF_HDROP or CF_TEXT format. I have a COleDropTarget derived CMyDropTarget member m_dropTarget of my CMainFrame class. I have two member functions of CMyDropTarget; OnDrop(...) and OnPaste() which each call another member function PostData(pDataObject). I want to get a copy of the pDataObject from either CF_... format and PostMessage to my CmainFrame which will call a member of my Doc class. What is a simple way of getting a copy of the global data to pass with the PostMessage() so that I can get the drop source released before I get around to processing the global data? NOTE that they are always treated as a copy of the source data, so there is no need for the source to delete anything when the operation is done. Or perhaps a better way of asking the question is: How can I release the Drop source before processing the global data? Can I pass the HGLOBAL via PostMessage and still release the source without making a copy of it?

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  • C# WebBrowser Invoke issue

    - by James Jeffrey
    I am logging into facebook using a web browser. Everything works, but the problem is when I invoke the button click I need to check if the password is correct but, the check seems to happen before the button is invoked which makes no sense at all because the checking code is after the invoke. private void Facebook_Login(String username, String password) { webBrowser1.Url = new Uri("http://m.facebook.com"); while (webBrowser1.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); HtmlElementCollection inputs = webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("input"); foreach(HtmlElement input in inputs) { if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "email") { input.SetAttribute("value", "[email protected]"); } if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "pass") { input.SetAttribute("value", "kelaroostj"); // dont worry that pass wont work lol. } if (input.GetAttribute("name") == "login") { input.InvokeMember("click"); } } while (webBrowser1.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); HtmlElementCollection bs = webBrowser1.Document.GetElementsByTagName("b"); foreach(HtmlElement b in bs) { MessageBox.Show(b.InnerHtml); } Log_Message("Logged into Facebook with: [email protected]"); }

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  • Values are not returning from MY SQL database to my java class

    - by sam
    Hi, This is my Query DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTSdiscoverdb.getuser_info$$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). `CREATE PROCEDURE discoverdb.getuser_info ( IN name VARCHAR(100), IN pass VARCHAR(100) ) BEGIN SELECT * FROM ad_user WHERE sLogin = name AND sPassHash=password(pass); END $$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). DELIMITER ; This is my calling method public Authentication getAuthentication (String username,String password) { //TODO write your implementation code here: Authentication ack = new Authentication(); try{ String simpleProc = "{ call getuser_infosam(?,?)}"; java.sql.CallableStatement cs = con.prepareCall(simpleProc); cs.setString(1, username); cs.setString(2, password); java.sql.ResultSet rs = cs.executeQuery(); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println(rs.getString("sLogin")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sPassHash")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sForename")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sName")); System.out.println(rs.getString("company")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sEmail")); rs.close();} }catch ( Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.out.print(e); } return ack; }

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  • Passing arguments and values from HTML to jQuery (events)

    - by Jaroslav Moravec
    What is the practice to pass arguments from HTML to jQuery events function. For example getting id of row from db: <tr class="jq_killMe" id="thisItemId-id"> ... </tr> and jQuery: $(".jq_killMe").click(function () { var tmp = $(this).attr('id).split("-"); var id = tmp[0] // ... } What's the best practise, if I want to pass more than one argument? Is it better not to use jQuery? For example: <tr onclick="killMe('id')"> ... </tr> I didn't find the answer on my question, I will be glad even for links. Thanks. Edit (pre solution) So you suggested two methods to do that: Add custom attributes to element (XHTML) Use attribute ID and parse it by regex Attribute data-* attributes in HTML5 Use hidden children elements I like first solution, but... I would like to (I have to (employer)) produce valid code. Here is a nice question and answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/994856/so-what-if-custom-html-attributes-arent-valid-xhtml And the second is not so pretty as the first, but valid. So the compromise is... The third is the solution for future, but here is a lot of CMS where we have to use XHTML or HTML4. (And HTML5 is the long process)

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  • Programming style question on how to code functions

    - by shawnjan
    Hey all! So, I was just coding a bit today, and I realized that I don't have much consistency when it comes to a coding style when programming functions. One of my main concerns is whether or not its proper to code it so that you check that the input of the user is valid OUTSIDE of the function, or just throw the values passed by the user into the function and check if the values are valid in there. Let me sketch an example: I have a function that lists hosts based on an environment, and I want to be able to split the environment into chunks of hosts. So an example of the usage is this: listhosts -e testenv -s 2 1 This will get all the hosts from the "testenv", split it up into two parts, and it is displaying part one. In my code, I have a function that you pass it in a list, and it returns a list of lists based on you parameters for splitting. BUT, before I pass it a list, I first verify the parameters in my MAIN during the getops process, so in the main I check to make sure there are no negatives passed by the user, I make sure the user didnt request to split into say, 4 parts, but asking to display part 5 (which would not be valid), etc. tl;dr: Would you check the validity of a users input the flow of you're MAIN class, or would you do a check in your function itself, and either return a valid response in the case of valid input, or return NULL in the case of invalid input? Obviously both methods work, I'm just interested to hear from experts as to which approach is better :) Thanks for any comments and suggestions you guys have!

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  • Passing data between objects in Chain of Responsibility pattern

    - by AbrahamJP
    While implementing the Chain of Responsibility pattern, i came across a dilemma om how to pass data between objects in the chain. The datatypes passed between object in the chain can differ for each object. As a temporary fix I had created a Static class containing a stack where each object in the chain can push the results to the stack while the next object in the chain could pop the results from the stack. Here is a sample code on what I had implemented. public interface IHandler { void Process(); } public static class StackManager { public static Stack DataStack = new Stack(); } //This class doesn't require any input to operate public class OpsA : IHandler { public IHandler Successor {get; set; } public void Process() { //Do some processing, store the result into Stack var ProcessedData = DoSomeOperation(); StackManager.DataStack.Push(ProcessedData); if(Successor != null) Successor(); } } //This class require input data to operate upon public class OpsB : IHandler { public IHandler Successor {get; set; } public void Process() { //Retrieve the results from the previous Operation var InputData = StackManager.DataStack.Pop(); //Do some processing, store the result into Stack var NewProcessedData = DoMoreProcessing(InputData); StackManager.DataStack.Push(NewProcessedData); if(Successor != null) Successor(); } } public class ChainOfResponsibilityPattern { public void Process() { IHandler ProcessA = new OpsA(); IHandler ProcessB = new OpsB(); ProcessA.Successor = ProcessB; ProcessA.Process(); } } Please help me to find a better approach to pass data between handlers objects in the chain.

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  • Seperation of business logic

    - by bruno
    Dear all, When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and seperate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other soluition, is just to seperate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So i'm asking for your oppinions. Thx, Bruno

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  • Problem: writing parameter values to data driven MSTEST output

    - by Shubh
    Hi, I am trying to extract some information about the parameter variants used in an MSTEST data driven test case from trx file. Currently, For data driven tests, I get the output of same testcase with different inputs as a sequence of tags , but there is no info about the value of the variants. Example: Suppose we have a [data driven]TestMethod1() and the data rows contain variations a and b. There are two variations a=1,b=2 for which the test passes and a=3,b=4 for which the test fails. If we can output the info that it was a=1,b=2 which passed and a=3 b=4 which failed in the trx file; the output will be meaningful. Better information about test case runs from the output file alone(without any dependencies). Investigating the test failure without rerunning the whole set If the data rows change in data source(now a=1,b=2 pass and a=5,b=6 fail) , easy to decipher that the errors are different; although the fail sequence is still the same(row 0 pass row 1 fail but now row1 is different) Has any of you gone through a similar problem? What did you follow? I tried to put the parameter value information in the Description attribute of TestMethod, it didnt work. Any other methods you think can work too? thanks, Shubhankar

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  • Passing an arbitrary JSONValue to a JSNI function

    - by Riley Lark
    I have a JSONValue in my Java that may be a JSONArray, a JSONObject, a JSONString, etc. I want to pass it to a JSNI function that can accept any of those types. If I naively write my JSNI as something like: public final native jsni(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public void useFunction(JSONValue value) { jsni(value); //Throws js exception at runtime :( } then I get a javascript exception, because GWT doesn't know how to convert the JSONValue to a JavaScriptObject (or native string / number value). My current workaround is public final native jsniForJSO(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForString(String parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForNumber(double parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public actuallyUseFunction(JSONValue value) { if (value.isObject()) { jsniForJSO(value.isObject().getJavaScriptObject()); } else if (value.isString()) { jsniForString(value.isString().stringValue()); } else { //etc } } This is a big burden for code maintainability, etc... especially if you have more than one parameter. Is there a way to generate these functions automatically, or get around this issue altogether? I've taken to wrapping everything in a JSONObject first, so I can definitely get a JavaScriptObject to pass to my jsni, but that's another clumsy mechanic.

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  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

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  • Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

    - by AndreLiem
    I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

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  • ldap login form works, but need to add active-directory group access

    - by Brad
    I created a form that asks you to log in, then verifies the user/pass against the ldap server/active-directory, if successful, it creates a session, which will be checked on every page. Now I want to check the session, which is the username of the person who is logged in, and do a search for them using ldap_search, so I can check what group they belong to and pass that group thru a function to verify that they can view that page. Each page will accessible to a certain group or groups of users, which those groups are defined within Active Directory. I am unsure on how I can do that using ldap_search, or maybe that is just one piece of the puzzle I am trying to solve. Any help is appreciated - thank you! In the example code below, it is seeing if the user belongs to the student active-directory group (I do not know if this code works, but it should give you an idea of what I want to accomplish). $filter = "CN=StudentCN=Users,dc=domain,dc=control"; $result = ldap_search($ldapconn,$filter,$valid_session_username); if($result == TRUE) { print $valid_session_username.' does have access to this page'; } else { print $valid_session_username.' does NOT have access to this page'; }

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  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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  • Bytecode and Objects

    - by HH
    Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

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  • Unable to Get a Correct Time when I am Calling serverTime using jquery.countdown.js + Asp.net ?

    - by user312891
    When i am calling the below function I unable to get a correct Answer. Both var Shortly and newTime having same time one coming from the client site other sync with server. http://keith-wood.name/countdown.html I am waiting from your response. Thanks $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; }

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  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

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  • Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

    - by Charsee
    We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

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  • How to get a JTextField event that started a pop up menu in Java ?

    - by Frank
    I have a JTextField that represents a day, such as "Sunday", when I left mouse click on it, it changes background color, when I right mouse click on it, a pop up menu comes up, after I click on a menu item, such as "1st of month", it gets the value, closes the menu and then change the bgcolor, my code looks like this : JTextField dayHeading=new JTextField("Su"); ...... final JPopupMenu Pmenu; JMenuItem menuItem; Pmenu=new JPopupMenu(); menuItem=new JMenuItem("1st of month"); Pmenu.add(menuItem); menuItem=new JMenuItem("2nd of month"); Pmenu.add(menuItem); ...... menuItem.addMouseListener(new MouseAdapter() { public void mouseReleased(final MouseEvent e) { System.out.println(((JMenuItem)e.getComponent()).getText()); onHeadingClicked(e); // Error : java.lang.ClassCastException: javax.swing.JMenuItem cannot be cast to javax.swing.JTextField // How to get the orininal JTextField event that started this pop up menu, so I can pass it onto onHeadingClicked() ? } }); ...... dayHeading.setEditable(false); dayHeading.setFocusable(false); dayHeading.addMouseListener(new MouseAdapter() { public void mouseReleased(final MouseEvent evt) { if (SwingUtilities.isLeftMouseButton(evt)) onHeadingClicked(evt); else if (SwingUtilities.isRightMouseButton(evt)) Pmenu.show(evt.getComponent(),evt.getX(),evt.getY()); } }); ...... void onHeadingClicked(final java.awt.event.MouseEvent evt) { final javax.swing.JTextField fld=(javax.swing.JTextField) evt.getSource(); ... } My question is : in the menuItem.addMouseListener section, how to get the orininal JTextField event that started this pop up menu, so I can pass it onto onHeadingClicked() ?

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  • How is a referencing environment generally implemented for closures?

    - by Alexandr Kurilin
    Let's say I have a statically/lexically scoped language with deep binding and I create a closure. The closure will consist of the statements I want executed plus the so called referencing environment, or, to quote this post, the collection of variables which can be used. What does this referencing environment actually look like implementation-wise? I was recently reading about ObjectiveC's implementation of blocks, and the author suggests that behind the scenes you get a copy of all of the variables on the stack and also of all the references to heap objects. The explanation claims that you get a "snapshot" of the referencing environment at the point in time of the closure's creation. Is that more or less what happens, or did I misread that? Is anything done to "freeze" a separate copy of the heap objects, or is it safe to assume that if they get modified between closure creation and the closure executing, the closure will no longer be operating on the original version of the object? If indeed there's copying being made, are there memory usage considerations in situations where one might want to create plenty of closures and store them somewhere? I think that misunderstanding of some of these concepts might lead to tricky issues like the ones Eric Lippert mentions in this blog post. It's interesting because you'd think that it wouldn't make sense to keep a reference to a value type that might be gone by the time the closure is called, but I'm guessing that in C# the compiler will figure out that the variable is needed later and put it into the heap instead. It seems that in most memory-managed languages everything is a reference and thus ObjectiveC is a somewhat unique situation with having to deal with copying what's on the stack.

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  • Entity Framework 4 Self Many-To-Many with Properties

    - by csharpnoob
    UPDATE: Solved by myself. Tricky but works. If you know a better solution, feel free to correct me. DESIGNER: CODE: Product product1 = new Product{key = "Product 1"}; sd.AddToProducts(product1); Product product2 = new Product{key = "Product 2"}; sd.AddToProducts(product2); Product product3 = new Product{key = "Product 3"}; ProductRelated pr = new ProductRelated(); pr.Products.Add(product1); pr.Products.Add(product2); product3.ProductRelateds.Add(pr); sd.AddToProducts(product3); CODE VIEW: foreach(var x in (from b in sd.Products select b)) { %><%=x.key %><br /> <% foreach (var y in x.ProductRelateds) { foreach (var k in y.Products) { %>- <%=k.key%><br /><%} } } OUTPUT Product1 Product2 Product3 - Product2 - Product1 QUESTION: Hi, i want to have a Self Reference for Releated Products on a Product Entity, something like here: http://my.safaribooksonline.com/9781430227038/modeling_a_many-to-many_comma_self-refer But i also want on the Many-To-Many Reference addional Properties like deleted, created etc. I tried to do it by another Entity "Related", but somehow it won't work. Does anyone had this Problem before? Is there any other Example? Thanks

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  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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