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• Bytecode and Objects

  - by HH

  Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

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• Jquery .Show() .Hide() not working as expected

  - by fizgig07

  I'm trying to use the show and hide to display a different set of select options when a certain report type is selected. I have a couple problems with this: The .show .hide only execute properly if I pass params, slow fast, in the the first result of my conditional statement. If I take out the params or pass params in both results, only one select shows and it never changes.. here's is the code that currently kind of works. if ($('#ReportType').val() == 'PbuseExport') { $('#PbuseServices').show('fast'); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').hide('fast'); } else { $('#PbuseServices').hide(); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').show(); } After i've used this control I am taken to a differnt page. When I use the control again, it reatins the original search values and repopulates the control. Then again I only want to show one select option if a certain report is chosen.. This works correctly if the report type I originally searched on is not the "PbuseExport". If I searched on the report type "PbuseExport", then both selects show on the screen, and only until I change the report type does it show only one select. I know this probably isn't very clear.. Here is the code that handles the change event on the report type drop down. var serviceValue = $("#ReportType").val(); switch (serviceValue) { case 'PbuseExport': $('#PbuseServices').show('fast'); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').hide('fast'); default: $('#PbuseServices').hide(); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').show(); break; }

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• Azure Table Storage rejects an entity with a Property whose value is an Interface

  - by Andrew B Schultz

  I have a type called "Comment" that I'm saving to Azure Table Storage. Since a comment can be about any number of other types, I created an interface which all of these types implement, and then put a property of type ICommentable on the comment. So Comment has a property called About of type ICommentable. When I try to save a Comment to Azure Table Storage, if the Comment.About property has a value, I get the worthless invalid input error. However, if there is no value for Comment.About, I have no problem. Why would this be? Comment.About is not the only property that is a reference type. For example, Comment.From is a reference type, but the Comment.About is the only property of a type that is an interface. Fails: var comment = new Comment(); comment.CommentText = "It fails!"; comment.PartitionKey = "TEST"; comment.RowKey = "TEST123"; comment.About = sow1; comment.From = person1; Works: var comment = new Comment(); comment.CommentText = "It works!"; comment.PartitionKey = "TEST"; comment.RowKey = "TEST123"; //comment.About = sow1; comment.From = person1; Thanks!

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• What does the windbg command "kd" do?

  - by Oskar

  I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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• Do variable references (alias) incure runtime costs in c++?

  - by cheshirekow

  Maybe this is a compiler specific thing. If so, how about for gcc (g++)? If you use a variable reference/alias like this: int x = 5; int& y = x; y += 10; Does it actually require more cycles than if we didn't use the reference. int x = 5; x += 10; In other words, does the machine code change, or does the "alias" happen only at the compiler level? This may seem like a dumb question, but I am curious. Especially in the case where maybe it would be convenient to temporarily rename some member variables just so that the math code is a little easier to read. Sure, we're not exactly talking about a bottleneck here... but it's something that I'm doing and so I'm just wondering if there is any 'actual' difference... or if it's only cosmetic.

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• How to get a JTextField event that started a pop up menu in Java ?

  - by Frank

  I have a JTextField that represents a day, such as "Sunday", when I left mouse click on it, it changes background color, when I right mouse click on it, a pop up menu comes up, after I click on a menu item, such as "1st of month", it gets the value, closes the menu and then change the bgcolor, my code looks like this : JTextField dayHeading=new JTextField("Su"); ...... final JPopupMenu Pmenu; JMenuItem menuItem; Pmenu=new JPopupMenu(); menuItem=new JMenuItem("1st of month"); Pmenu.add(menuItem); menuItem=new JMenuItem("2nd of month"); Pmenu.add(menuItem); ...... menuItem.addMouseListener(new MouseAdapter() { public void mouseReleased(final MouseEvent e) { System.out.println(((JMenuItem)e.getComponent()).getText()); onHeadingClicked(e); // Error : java.lang.ClassCastException: javax.swing.JMenuItem cannot be cast to javax.swing.JTextField // How to get the orininal JTextField event that started this pop up menu, so I can pass it onto onHeadingClicked() ? } }); ...... dayHeading.setEditable(false); dayHeading.setFocusable(false); dayHeading.addMouseListener(new MouseAdapter() { public void mouseReleased(final MouseEvent evt) { if (SwingUtilities.isLeftMouseButton(evt)) onHeadingClicked(evt); else if (SwingUtilities.isRightMouseButton(evt)) Pmenu.show(evt.getComponent(),evt.getX(),evt.getY()); } }); ...... void onHeadingClicked(final java.awt.event.MouseEvent evt) { final javax.swing.JTextField fld=(javax.swing.JTextField) evt.getSource(); ... } My question is : in the menuItem.addMouseListener section, how to get the orininal JTextField event that started this pop up menu, so I can pass it onto onHeadingClicked() ?

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• Liskov Substition and Composition

  - by FlySwat

  Let say I have a class like this: public sealed class Foo { public void Bar { // Do Bar Stuff } } And I want to extend it to add something beyond what an extension method could do....My only option is composition: public class SuperFoo { private Foo _internalFoo; public SuperFoo() { _internalFoo = new Foo(); } public void Bar() { _internalFoo.Bar(); } public void Baz() { // Do Baz Stuff } } While this works, it is a lot of work...however I still run into a problem: public void AcceptsAFoo(Foo a) I can pass in a Foo here, but not a super Foo, because C# has no idea that SuperFoo truly does qualify in the Liskov Substitution sense...This means that my extended class via composition is of very limited use. So, the only way to fix it is to hope that the original API designers left an interface laying around: public interface IFoo { public Bar(); } public sealed class Foo : IFoo { // etc } Now, I can implement IFoo on SuperFoo (Which since SuperFoo already implements Foo, is just a matter of changing the signature). public class SuperFoo : IFoo And in the perfect world, the methods that consume Foo would consume IFoo's: public void AcceptsAFoo(IFoo a) Now, C# understands the relationship between SuperFoo and Foo due to the common interface and all is well. The big problem is that .NET seals lots of classes that would occasionally be nice to extend, and they don't usually implement a common interface, so API methods that take a Foo would not accept a SuperFoo and you can't add an overload. So, for all the composition fans out there....How do you get around this limitation? The only thing I can think of is to expose the internal Foo publicly, so that you can pass it on occasion, but that seems messy.

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• How can I return the number of rows affected in sqlplus to a shell script?

  - by jessica

  Here is my shell script: # Deletes data from the 'sample' table starting August 30, 2011. # This is done in stages with a 7 second break every # 2 seconds or so to free up the database for other users. # The message "Done." will be printed when there are # no database entries left to delete. user="*****" pass="*****" while(true); do starttime=`date +%s` while [[ $((`date +%s` - $starttime)) -lt 2 ]]; do sqlplus $user/$pass@//blabla <<EOF whenever sqlerror exit 1 delete from sample where sampletime >= to_date('08-30-2011','mm-dd-yyyy') and rownum <= 2; commit; EOF rows = ??? if [ $rows -eq 0 ] ; then echo "Done." exit 0; fi done sleep 7 done If there is no way to get the number of rows, maybe I can use an error code returned by sqlplus to figure out when to end the script? Any thoughts? Thank you!

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• Does unboxing just return a pointer to the value within the boxed object on the heap?

  - by Charles

  I this MSDN Magazine article, the author states (emphasis mine): Note that boxing always creates a new object and copies the unboxed value's bits to the object. On the other hand, unboxing simply returns a pointer to the data within a boxed object: no memory copy occurs. However, it is commonly the case that your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway. I'm confused by the sentence I've bolded and the sentence that follows it. From everything else I've read, including this MSDN page, I've never before heard that unboxing just returns a pointer to the value on the heap. I was under the impression that unboxing would result in you having a variable containing a copy of the value on the stack, just as you began with. After all, if my variable contains "a pointer to the value on the heap", then I haven't got a value type, I've got a pointer. Can someone explain what this means? Was the author on crack? (There is at least one other glaring error in the article). And if this is true, what are the cases where "your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway"? I just noticed that the article is nearly 10 years old, so maybe this is something that changed very early on in the life of .Net.

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• How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

  - by chrissygormley

  Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

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• Getting data from child controls loaded programmatically

  - by Farinha

  I've created 2 controls to manipulate a data object: 1 for viewing and another for editing. On one page I load the "view" User Control and pass data to it this way: ViewControl control = (ViewControl)LoadControl("ViewControl.ascx"); control.dataToView = dataObject; this.container.Controls.Add(control); That's all fine and inside the control I can grab that data and display it. Now I'm trying to follow a similar approach for editing. I have a different User Control for this (with some textboxes for editing) to which I pass the original data the same way I did for the view: EditControl control = (EditControl)LoadControl("EditControl.ascx"); control.dataToEdit = dataObject; this.container.Controls.Add(control); Which also works fine. The problem now is getting to this data. When the user clicks a button I need to fetch the data that was edited and do stuff with it. What's happening is that because the controls are being added programmatically, the data that the user changed doesn't seem to be accessible anywhere. Is there a solution for this? Or is this way of trying to keep things separated and possibly re-usable not possible? Thanks in advance.

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• Developing Job References

  - by Joe Smith

  How do you develop references for jobs? I have 6 years of programming experience spanning two jobs, but sadly I don't have a lot of people I can draw on as references. It's been several years since I left my last job, which was at a small company, and I've lost touch with the few people I knew there. I now work at another small company. I think I've gone as far as I can in my current position, and would like to look for greener pastures, but I can't exactly use my current boss as a reference, even though I have a very good repore with him. I'm sure he'd make a great reference down the road, but I'm afraid I'd insult him or jeopardize my current job by mentioning that I'm thinking of leaving and would like him to help me. I've applied to some jobs, and I have gotten several replies like, "Oh, you're exactly what we're looking for. Send us a couple references and we'll schedule an interview. Oh, no references? You must be a psychopath, nevermind." I've tried doing some small freelance work on the side, just so I can have a contact who can vouch for my work, but the competition for even small projects is pretty fierce and I can rarely devote adequate time to freelancing while holding a full time job. In addition, I often encounter a Catch-22 where a lot of freelancing jobs also require references. So how do programmers maintain existing references and develop new ones, especially while holding a full time job?

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• Developing ASP.Net User Control to be imported to SharePoint MOSS 2007

  - by Don Kirkham

  Apologies if this has been answered, but I could not find a similar question: I am developing a webpart for MOSS 2007. I am using WSPBuilder to built a visual webpart (ascx) and everything works fine, but the development/debug cycle is just painfully slow, so I'd like to know if it is possible (without being too painful) to develop the user control faster using an .Net Web Application project with all of the nice F5 debugging, then import the final product into my SharePoint visual webpart. The user control interacts with a LOB system (SQL) and does not reference the SharePoint API at all. (The reason I am building this as a webpart is because I don't need another web app to run this one page, so putting it into a webpart on a new webpart page on my existing site is the best solution IMO.) I would obviously need to import (reference?) my data access classes into my "temp" web app, but think that would not be too much trouble. I realize this will be extra effort to get this set up, but am thinking the payoff will be reduced development time of the actual user control using a little web application vs having to use the compile/build WSP/deploy WSP/reset ISS/test/make a change/repeat cycle that MOSS requires. (I guess SP2010/VS2010 has spoiled me with the native SharePoint tools available.)

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• Entity Framework 4 Self Many-To-Many with Properties

  - by csharpnoob

  UPDATE: Solved by myself. Tricky but works. If you know a better solution, feel free to correct me. DESIGNER: CODE: Product product1 = new Product{key = "Product 1"}; sd.AddToProducts(product1); Product product2 = new Product{key = "Product 2"}; sd.AddToProducts(product2); Product product3 = new Product{key = "Product 3"}; ProductRelated pr = new ProductRelated(); pr.Products.Add(product1); pr.Products.Add(product2); product3.ProductRelateds.Add(pr); sd.AddToProducts(product3); CODE VIEW: foreach(var x in (from b in sd.Products select b)) { %><%=x.key %><br /> <% foreach (var y in x.ProductRelateds) { foreach (var k in y.Products) { %>- <%=k.key%><br /><%} } } OUTPUT Product1 Product2 Product3 - Product2 - Product1 QUESTION: Hi, i want to have a Self Reference for Releated Products on a Product Entity, something like here: http://my.safaribooksonline.com/9781430227038/modeling_a_many-to-many_comma_self-refer But i also want on the Many-To-Many Reference addional Properties like deleted, created etc. I tried to do it by another Entity "Related", but somehow it won't work. Does anyone had this Problem before? Is there any other Example? Thanks

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• Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

  - by bateman_ap

  I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

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• dynamical binding or switch/case?

  - by kingkai

  A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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• Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

  - by AndreLiem

  I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

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• Combining JSON Arrays

  - by George

  I have 3 json arrays, each with information listed in the same format: Array: ID: NAME: DATA: ID: NAME: DATA: etc... My goal is to combine all 3 arrays into one array, and sort and display by NAME by passing the 3 arrays into a function. The function I've tried is: JSCRIPT Call: // to save time I'm just passing the name of the array, I've tried passing // the full array name as json[0]['DATA'][array_1][0]['NAME'] as well. combineNames(['array_1','array_2']); FUNCTION: function combineNames(names) { var allNames = [] for (i=0;i<names.length;i++) { for (j=0;j<json[0]['DATA'][names[i]].length;j++) { allNames.push(json[0]['DATA'][names[i]][j]['NAME']); } } return allNames.sort(); } The above gives me the error that NAME is null or undefined. I've also tried using the array.concat function which works when I hard code it: var names = []; var allNames = []; var names = names.concat(json[0]['DATA']['array_1'],json[0]['DATA']['array_2']); for (i=0;i<names.length;i++) { allNames.push(names[i]['NAME']); } return allNames.sort(); But I can't figure out how to pass in the arrays into the function (and if possible I would like to just pass in the array name part instead of the whole json[0]['DATA']['array_name'] like I was trying to do in the first function...

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• wpf observableCollection

  - by Asha

  I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

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• Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

  - by James Wiseman

  I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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• Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate and the Persistence Life Cycle

  - by Stephano

  The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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• Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

  - by ozone

  Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

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• Is dependency injection only for service type objects and singletons? (and NOT for gui?)

  - by sensui

  I'm currently experimenting with the Google's guice inversion of control container. I previously had singletons for just about any service (database, active directory) my application used. Now I refactored the code: all the dependencies are given as parameters to constructors. So far, so good. Now the hardest part is with the graphical user interface. I face this problem: I have a table (JTable) of products wrapped in an ProductFrame. I give the dependencies as parameters (EditProductDialog). @Inject public ProductFrame(EditProductDialog editProductDialog) { // ... } // ... @Inject public EditProductDialog(DBProductController productController, Product product) { // ... } The problem is that guice can't know what Product I have selected in the table, so it can't know what to inject in the EditProductDialog. Dependency Injection is pretty viral (if I modify one class to use dependency injection I also need to modify all the other classes it interacts with) so my question is should I directly instantiate EditProductDialog? But then I would have to pass manually the DBProductController to the EditProductDialog and I will also need to pass it to the ProductFrame and all this boils down to not using dependency injection at all. Or is my design flawed and because of that I can't really adapt the project to dependecy injection? Give me some examples of how you used dependency injection with the graphical user interface. All the examples found on the Internet are really simple examples where you use some services (mostly databases) with dependency injection.

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• Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

  - by Kelly Cline

  I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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• Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

  - by typeof

  I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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