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  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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  • F# How to tokenise user input: separating numbers, units, words?

    - by David White
    I am fairly new to F#, but have spent the last few weeks reading reference materials. I wish to process a user-supplied input string, identifying and separating the constituent elements. For example, for this input: XYZ Hotel: 6 nights at 220EUR / night plus 17.5% tax the output should resemble something like a list of tuples: [ ("XYZ", Word); ("Hotel:", Word); ("6", Number); ("nights", Word); ("at", Operator); ("220", Number); ("EUR", CurrencyCode); ("/", Operator); ("night", Word); ("plus", Operator); ("17.5", Number); ("%", PerCent); ("tax", Word) ] Since I'm dealing with user input, it could be anything. Thus, expecting users to comply with a grammar is out of the question. I want to identify the numbers (could be integers, floats, negative...), the units of measure (optional, but could include SI or Imperial physical units, currency codes, counts such as "night/s" in my example), mathematical operators (as math symbols or as words including "at" "per", "of", "discount", etc), and all other words. I have the impression that I should use active pattern matching -- is that correct? -- but I'm not exactly sure how to start. Any pointers to appropriate reference material or similar examples would be great.

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  • Is using advanced constructs (function, new, function calls) in JSON safe?

    - by Vilx-
    JSON is a nice way to pass complex data from my server side code to client side JavaScript. For example, in PHP I can write: <script type="text/javascript> var MyComplexVariable = <?= BigFancyObjectGraph.GetJSON() ?>; DoMagic(MyComplexVariable); </script> This is pretty cool, but sometimes you want to pass more than basic date, like dates or even function definitions. There is a simple and straightforward way of doing it too, like: <script type="text/javascript> var MyComplexVariable = { 'SimpleProperty' : 42, 'FunctionProperty' : function() { return 6*7; }, 'DateProperty' : new Date(989539200000), 'ArbitraryProperty' : GetTheMeaningOfLifeUniverseAndEverything() }; DoMagic(MyComplexVariable); </script> And this works like a charm on all browsers I've seen so far. But according to JSON.org such syntax is invalid. On the other hand, I've seen this syntax being used in very many places, including some popular JavaScript frameworks. So... Can I expect any problems if I use "unsupported" JSON features like the above? Why is it wrong or not?

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  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

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  • Getting Response From Jquery JSON

    - by Howdy_McGee
    I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

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  • Contrary to Python 3.1 Docs, hash(obj) != id(obj). So which is correct?

    - by Don O'Donnell
    The following is from the Python v3.1.2 documentation: From The Python Language Reference Section 3.3.1 Basic Customization: object.__hash__(self) ... User-defined classes have __eq__() and __hash__() methods by default; with them, all objects compare unequal (except with themselves) and x.__hash__() returns id(x). From The Glossary: hashable ... Objects which are instances of user-defined classes are hashable by default; they all compare unequal, and their hash value is their id(). This is true up through version 2.6.5: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79096, Mar 19 2010 21:48:26) ... ... >>> class C(object): pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11335856 >>> hash(c) 11335856 But in version 3.1.2: Python 3.1.2 (r312:79149, Mar 21 2010, 00:41:52) ... ... >>> class C: pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11893680 >>> hash(c) 743355 So which is it? Should I report a documentation bug or a program bug? And if it's a documentation bug, and the default hash() value for a user class instance is no longer the same as the id() value, then it would be interesting to know what it is or how it is calculated, and why it was changed in version 3.

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  • Forms authentication: how do you store username password in web.config?

    - by Nick G
    I'm used to using Forms Authentication with a database, but I'm writing a little internal utility and the app doesn't have a database so I want to store the username and password in web.config. However for some reason, forms authentication is still trying to access SQL Server and I can't see how to stop it doing this and pick up the credentials from web.config. What am I doing wrong? I just get the error "Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to a failure in impersonating the client. The connection will be closed." Here are the relevant sections of my web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" timeout="60" name=".LoginCookie" path="/" > <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="user1" password="[pass]" /> <user name="user2" password="[pass]" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration>

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  • Why does this code sample produce a memory leak?

    - by citronas
    In the university we were given the following code sample and we were being told, that there is a memory leak when running this code. The sample should demonstrate that this is a situation where the garbage collector can't work. As far as my object oriented programming goes, the only codeline able to create a memory leak would be items=Arrays.copyOf(items,2 * size+1); The documentation says, that the elements are copied. Does that mean the reference is copied (and therefore another entry on the heap is created) or the object itself is being copied? As far as I know, Object and therefore Object[] are implemented as a reference type. So assigning a new value to 'items' would allow the garbage collector to find that the old 'item' is no longer referenced and can therefore be collected. In my eyes, this the codesample does not produce a memory leak. Could somebody prove me wrong? =) import java.util.Arrays; public class Foo { private Object[] items; private int size=0; private static final int ISIZE=10; public Foo() { items= new Object[ISIZE]; } public void push(final Object o){ checkSize(); items[size++]=o; } public Object pop(){ if (size==0) throw new ///... return items[--size]; } private void checkSize(){ if (items.length==size){ items=Arrays.copyOf(items,2 * size+1); } } }

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  • javascript error of unterminated string

    - by OM The Eternity
    I want pass a parameter of javascript functiona which is a string. This javascript function is a hintbox on mousehover.. and the string i am using is like this: Hemmed Finish: Every side/edge (1/2" to 2") of the banner are folded and glued (special vinyl solution) or heat pressed. This is the most common and best finish option. Stitched Finish: Every side/edge (1" to 2") of the banner are folded in the back and stitched/sewed with white thread. This is not a common option as thread can be seen on the banner. Now in the hintbox on mousehover the above given text has to be display as it is displayed above along with the paragraph break.. But when i pass the above as parameter in that function along with appending some backslashes to recognise some punctuation, iots till gives me javascript error of unterminated string... I am doing this: onMouseover="showhint('Hemmed Finish\: Every side/edge \(1/2\'\' to 2\'\'\) of the banner are folded and glued \(special vinyl solution\) or heat pressed. This is the most common and best finish option.Stitched Finish\: Every side/edge \(1\'\' to 2\'\'\) of the banner are folded in the back and stitched/sewed with white thread. This is not a common option as thread can be seen on the banner', this, event, '250px')" pls could u help me in rectifying the issue...

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  • How to marshal an object and its content (also objects)

    - by Waldo Spek
    I have a question for which I suspect the answer is a bit complex. At this moment I am programming a DLL (class library) in C#. This DLL uses a 3rd party library and therefore deals with 3rd party objects of which I do not have the source code. Now I am planning to create another DLL, which is going to be used in a later stadium in my application. This second DLL should use the 3rd party objects (with corresponding object states) created by the first DLL. Luckily the 3rd party objects extend the MarshalByRefObject class. I can marshal the objects using System.Runtime.Remoting.Marshal(...). I then serialize the objects using a BinaryFormatter and store the objects as a byte[] array. All goes well. I can deserialize and unmarshal in a the opposite way and end up with my original 3rd party objects...so it appears... Nevertheless, when calling methods on my 3rd party deserialized objects I get object internal exceptions. Normally these methods return other 3rd party objects, but (obviously - I guess) now these objects are missing because they weren't serialized. Now my global question: how would I go about marshalling/serializing all the objects which my 3rd party objects reference...and cascade down the "reference tree" to obtain a full and complete serialized object? Right now my guess is to preprocess: obtain all the objects and build my own custom object and serialize it. But I'm hoping there is some other way...

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  • NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

    - by Rich
    I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

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  • Java program will read from database, but not write to it

    - by ck1221
    I have a Java program that successfully connects to a mysql database that is hosted on godaddy's server. I can read from that db with out issue, however, when I try to write to it with INSERT or UPDATE for example, the query does not execute. I am using the 'admin' account that I set up through godaddy, I realize this is not the root account. I have checked and verified that the connection is not read only, and have logged out of phpmyadmin while the query ran. I'm not sure what else I can try or if anyone has experienced this issue. Maybe a setting to the connection I have failed to set? Or maybe its not possible since the db is hosted on godaddy's servers? Any help is great! Thanks. Here is some relevant code: Connection to db: Connection con; public DBconnection(String url, String user, String pass) { try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); con = DriverManager.getConnection (url,user,pass); if(!con.isClosed()) System.out.println("connecton open"); } catch (InstantiationException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IllegalAccessException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (ClassNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} } Send Query: public ResultSet executeQuery(String query) { ResultSet rs = null; try { Statement stmt = (Statement) con.createStatement(); rs = stmt.executeQuery(query); //while(rs.next()) //System.out.println(rs.getString("ticket_num")); } catch (SQLException e) {} return rs; } Insert Query (works in phpmyadmin): conn.executeQuery("INSERT INTO tickets VALUES(55555,'12/01/2012','me','reports','test','','','0','Nope')");

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  • JavaScript Keycode 46 is DEL Function key or (.) period sign?

    - by Omar
    Im writing some logic in JavaScript using jquery, where i must check the input content against a REGEX pattern ex: "^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$" //Alpha-numeric and _ The logic is almost done, i just have a little problem filtering the function key DEL, my logic goes like this: var FunctionsKey = new Array(8, 9, 13, 16, 35, 36, 37, 39, 46); function keypressValidation(key) { if (config.regexExp != null) { if ($.inArray(key, FunctionsKey) != -1) { return true; } else { var keyChar = String.fromCharCode(key); return RegexCheck(keyChar); } } return true; } If the KeyCode is one of those in the array, i let it pass, if not i get the char and compare it against the REGEX. The problem is: in some Browsers the DEL and '.' (period sign) have the same key Code 46. So is there a better logic to filter the function keys or must i write a condition for that case, maybe removing the 46 from the array and try to convert it to char and if is (.) let it go to the Regex function if not let it pass? The other question will be are there more shared Key Codes in some browsers? EDIT: My suggested solution wont work because it doesn't matter which key the user pressed (DEL or period) i always get (.) as CHAR at least on OPERA and FF =(.

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  • using asp.net membership provider in a dll

    - by Keith Barrows
    I've used Membership Providers in web apps over the last several years. I now have a new "request" for an internal project at work. They would like a service (not a web service) to do a quick authenticate against. Basically, exposing the ValidateUser(UserName, Password) method... I am building this in a DLL that will sit with our internal web site. What is the best approach to make this work? The DLL will not reference the web app and the web app will reference the DLL. How do I make the DLL aware of the Membership Provider? TIA PS: If this has been answered elsewhere please direct me to that... EDIT: I found an article on using ASP.NET Membership with WinForms and/or WPF applications. Unfortunately, these depend on an app.config file. A DLL appears to not use the app.config once published. If I am wrong, please set me straight! The article is here: http://aspalliance.com/1595_Client_Application_Services__Part_1.all

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  • Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

    - by MrKishi
    Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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  • Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

    - by dan.codes
    I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

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  • Change Sequence to Choice

    - by Gordon
    In my Schema File I defined a Group with a Sequence of possible Elements. <group name="argumentGroup"> <sequence> <element name="foo" type="double" /> <element name="bar" type="string" /> <element name="baz" type="integer" /> </sequence> </group> I then reference this Group like this: <element name="arguments"> <complexType> <group ref="my:argumentGroup"/> </complexType> </element> Is it possible to reference the Group at some other point but restrict it so it's a Choice instead of a Sequence. The position where I want to reuse it would only allow one of the Elements within. <element name="argument" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1"> <complexType> <group name="my:argumentGroup"> <! -- Somehow change argumentGroup sequence to choice here --> </group> <complexType> </element>

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  • Why do we need Audit Columns in Database Tables?

    - by Software Enthusiastic
    Hi I have seen many database designs having following audit columns on all the tables... Created By Create DateTime Updated By Upldated DateTime From one perspective I see tables from the following view... Entity Tables: Good candidate for Audit columns) Reference Tables: Audit columns may or may not required. In some case last update information is not at all required because record is never going to be modified.) Reference Data Tables Like Country Names, Entity State etc... Audit columns may not required because these information is created only during system installation time, and never going to be changed. I have seen many designers blindly put all audit columns to all tables, is this practice good, if yes what could be the reason... I just want to know because to me it seems illogical. It is difficult for me to figure out why do they design their db this way? I am not saying they are wrong or right, just want to know the WHY? You can also suggest me, if there is an alternative auditing patter or solution available... Thanks and Regards

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  • Exception when click DataGridview tab c#, .Net 4.0

    - by Nguyen Nam
    My winform app have two tab and multi thread, one is main tab and other is log tab. I only use log tab to show logs in a datagridview control. Exception is random occurred when click to log tab (Not click to row or colunm), i have try but can not find anyway to fix it. This is the error log: Message : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source : System.Windows.Forms TargetSite : System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewElementStates GetRowState(Int32) StackTrace : at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowCollection.GetRowState(Int32 rowIndex) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.ComputeHeightOfFittingTrailingScrollingRows(Int32 totalVisibleFrozenHeight) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.GetOutOfBoundCorrectedHitTestInfo(HitTestInfo& hti, Int32& mouseX, Int32& mouseY, Int32& xOffset, Int32& yOffset) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.OnMouseMove(MouseEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseMove(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) Message : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source : System.Windows.Forms TargetSite : Void ClearInternal(Boolean) StackTrace : at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowCollection.ClearInternal(Boolean recreateNewRow) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.OnClearingColumns() at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnCollection.Clear() at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.Windows.Forms.TabControl.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.Dispose(Boolean disposing) Update status code: private void updateMessage(int index, string message) { try { this.dgForums.Rows[index].Cells["ColStatus"].Value = message; System.Windows.Forms.Application.DoEvents(); } catch { } }

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  • what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

    - by samsur
    I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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  • What wrapper class in C++ should I use for automated resource management?

    - by Vilx-
    I'm a C++ amateur. I'm writing some Win32 API code and there are handles and weirdly compositely allocated objects aplenty. So I was wondering - is there some wrapper class that would make resource management easier? For example, when I want to load some data I open a file with CreateFile() and get a HANDLE. When I'm done with it, I should call CloseHandle() on it. But for any reasonably complex loading function there will be dozens of possible exit points, not to mention exceptions. So it would be great if I could wrap the handle in some kind of wrapper class which would automatically call CloseHandle() once execution left the scope. Even better - it could do some reference counting so I can pass it around in and out of other functions, and it would release the resource only when the last reference left scope. The concept is simple - but is there something like that in the standard library? I'm using Visual Studio 2008, by the way, and I don't want to attach a 3rd party framework like Boost or something.

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  • c# template member functions

    - by user3730583
    How can I define a template member function in C# For instance I will fill any collection which supports an Add(...) member function, please check out the sample code below public class CInternalCollection { public static void ExternalCollectionTryOne<T<int>>(ref T<int> ext_col, int para_selection = 0) { foreach (int int_value in m_int_col) { if (int_value > para_selection) ext_col.Add(int_value); } } public static void ExternalCollectionTryTwo<T>(ref T ext_col, int para_selection = 0) { foreach (int int_value in m_int_col) { if (int_value > para_selection) ext_col.Add(int_value); } } static int[] m_int_col = { 0, -1, -3, 5, 7, -8 }; } The ExternalCollectionTryOne<...(...) would be the preferred kind, because the int type can be explicit defined, but results in an error: Type parameter declaration must be an identifier not a type The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The ExternalCollectionTryTwo<...(...) results in an error: 'T' does not contain a definition for 'Add' and no extension method 'Add' accepting a first argument of type 'T' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)... I hope the problem is clear – any suggestions? ----------------------------- edit -------------------------- The answers with the interface ICollection<.. without a template member works fine and thanks all for this hint, but I still cannot define successfully a member template(generic) function So a more simpler example ... how can I define this public class CAddCollectionValues { public static void AddInt<T>(ref T number, int selection) { T new_T = new T(); //this line is just an easy demonstration to get a compile error with type T foreach (int i_value in m_int_col) { if (i_value > selection) number += i_value; //again the type T cannot be used } } static int[] m_int_col = { 0, -1, -3, 5, 7, -8 }; }

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  • EF 4.0 Guid or Int as A primary Key

    - by bigb
    I am Implementing custom ASPNetMembership using EF 4.0 Is there any reason why i should use Guid as a primary key in User tables? As far as i know Int as a PK on SQL Server more performanced than strings. And Int is easier to iterate. Also, for security purpose if i need to pass this it id somewhere in url i may encrypt it somehow and pass it like a strings with no probs. But if i want to use auto generated Guid on SQL Server side using EF 4.0 i need to do this trick http://leedumond.com/blog/using-a-guid-as-an-entitykey-in-entity-framework-4/ I can't see any cases why i should use Guid as PK, may be only one if system going to have millions ans millions users, but also, theoretically, Guid could be duplicated sometime isn't so? Anyway Int32 size is 2,147.483.647 it is pretty much even for very-very big system, but if this number is still not enough I may go with Int64, in that cases I may have 9,223.372.036.854.775.807 rows. Pretty much huh? From another hand, M$ using Guids as PK in their ASPNetMembership implementation. [aspnetdb].[aspnet_Users] - PK UserId Type uniqueidentifier, should be some reasons/explanation why the did it?! May be some one has any ideas/experience about that?

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  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

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  • [jQuery] What would be the best way to perform a basic CRUD using AJAX

    - by rasouza
    I'm having trouble to make a simple CRUD in my site. I have a table of registries <table> <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a **href="<?php echo $this->baseUrl(); ?>/history/delete/id/<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>"** class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> which I would like to perform a simple delete in these rows using AJAX (preferenciably with jQuery). The question is: do I have to create a function in JS and add onmouseclick event in the HTML? is there a more consistent way for doing this, like adding $('.delete').click() directly in the js file? If so, how do I pass the row ID for the ajax function? What I really want is to know how to pass the row ID to $.ajax() jQuery function through a clean! way

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