Search Results

Search found 7634 results on 306 pages for 'preg replace'.

Page 246/306 | < Previous Page | 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253  | Next Page >

  • Sms via a nokia phone over a serial port

    - by abigblackman
    Hi, I'm trying to send a sms via a Nokia phone over serial which is easy enough via putty. The commands from the nokia documentation works fine. However, trying to send the same commands from a c# application fails miserably. I've run Sysinternals PortMon and can see the commands come through OK, the only difference I can see is in the way it connects but I am having trouble finding the commands that would iron out those differences. The code I'm running looks a little bit like this using (SerialPort port = new SerialPort(comPort, 9600, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One)) { port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); port.ErrorReceived += new SerialErrorReceivedEventHandler(port_ErrorReceived); //port.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; port.DtrEnable = true; port.RtsEnable = true; port.ReadTimeout = 1; port.Handshake = Handshake.XOnXOff; try { port.Open(); port.WriteLine("AT"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGF=1"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGS=\"" + number + "\""); port.WriteLine(message); port.Write(new byte[] { (byte)26 }, 0, 1); } finally { if (port.IsOpen) { port.Close(); } } The differences I'm seeing in the trace from the serial port are At the start 0.00001844 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_SET_HANDFLOW USBSER001 SUCCESS Shake:1 Replace:43 XonLimit:4096 XoffLimit:4096 And at the very end 0.00061153 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: RXABORT RXCLEAR 0.00004442 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: TXABORT TXCLEAR Has anyone got any tips on how to iron out these issues? I also notice that the phone is not responding back to the application with any acknowledgement when I issue a command so I suspect the problem is with the connection, not those messages at the end.

    Read the article

  • Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

    - by Chris Taylor
    I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

    Read the article

  • converting numbers into alphabets.

    - by Nina
    Hi! i want to convert number into alphabets using javascript e.g. 01=n, 02=i 03=n,04=a and when someone enters the numbers:01020304 in the form he will get like this: nina. or whatever he enters it get replace with equivalent alphabets including spaces. i will be really thankful if you can provide full code including html form code as i am beginner. Thank you all for quick response. I have found this code in one site it converts alphabets into numbers, but code for converting numbers into alphabets isn't working. here is a code for converting alphabets into numbers: var i,j; var getc; var len; var num,alpha; num=new Array("01","02","03","04","05","06","07","08","09","10","11","12","13","14","15","16","17", "18","19","20","21","22","23","24","25","26","00","##","$$"); alpha=new Array("a","b","c","d","e","f","g","h","i","j","k","l","m","n","o","p","q","r","s","t","u"," v","w","x","y","z"," ",".",","); function encode() { len=document.f1.ta1.value.length; document.f1.ta2.value=""; for(i=0;i

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc Ajax.BeginForm clone.

    - by denis_n
    Hello, I'm using asp.net mvc ajax. The partial view is using Ajax.BeginForm (just an example): <div id="divPlaceholder"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm(new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "divPlaceholder" })) { %> ... asp.net mvc controls and validation messages <input type="submit" value="Save" /> <% } %> </div> After update, if validation fails, the html is: <div id="divPlaceholder"> <div id="divPlaceholder"> ...form </div> </div> I don't like that the returned html is inserted, instead it should replace original div. Probably on POST I should not render <div> around form in partial view or render the div without id. What else can I do in this situation? I was thinking that maybe I should write a helper, something like Ajax.DivBeginForm, which will render form inside div on GET and hide the div on POST. Can somebody provide a good advice how to write such helper (Ajax.DivBeginForm)? I'd like it to work with using keyword: <% using (Ajax.DivBeginForm(new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "myId" })) { ... }%>

    Read the article

  • Free solution for automatic updates with .NET/C#?

    - by a2h
    Yes, from searching I can see this has been asked time and time again. Here's a backstory. I'm an individual hobbyist developer with zero budget. A program I've been developing has been in need of constant bugfixes, and me and users are getting tired of having to manually update. Me, because my current solution of Manually FTP to my website Update a file "newest.txt" with the newest version Update index.html with a link to the newest version Hope for people to see the "there's an update" message Have them manually download the update sucks, and whenever I screw up an update, I get pitchforks. Users, because, well, "Are you ever going to implement auto-update?" "Will there ever be an auto-update feature?" Over the past few hours I have looked into: http://windowsclient.net/articles/appupdater.aspx - I can't comprehend the documentation http://www.codeproject.com/KB/vb/Auto_Update_Revisited.aspx - Doesn't appear to support anything other than working with files that aren't in use http://wyday.com/wyupdate/ - wyBuild isn't free, and the file specification is simply too complex. Maybe if I was under a company paying me I could spend the time, but then I may as well pay for wyBuild. http://www.kineticjump.com/update/default.aspx - Ditto. ClickOnce - Workarounds for implementing launching on startup are massive, horrendous and not worth it for such a simple feature. Publishing is a pain; manual FTP and replace of all files is required for servers without FrontPage Extensions. I'm pretty much ready to throw in the towel right now and strangle myself. And then I think about Sparkle...

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to filter certain things in pages served by IIS?

    - by Ruslan
    Hello, This is my first time posting here so please keep that in mind... I'll try to be short and get right to defining the problem. We have an ASP.NET 2 application (eCommerce package) running on IIS (Windows Server 2003). The main site's page(s) are using plain HTTP (no SSL), but the whole checkout process and the shopping cart page is using SSL (HTTPS). Now, the problem is that the site's header is located in a template file, and inside it it has a plain HTML 'img' tag calling an image with the "http://" portion hard-coded into it... This header appears on absolutely every page (including the https pages), and due to its insecure image tag, a warning box pops up in IE on every stage of the checkout process... Now, the problem: The live application cannot be touched in any way (no changes can be made to the template (so simply changing "http://" to "//" is not an option), IIS cannot be restarted, and the website/app pool cannot be restarted). Is there any way in the world (maybe plugin for IIS or a setting somewhere) that I can filter the pages right before they are served to replace the '<img src="http://example.com/image.jpg">' with '<img src="//example.com/image.jpg">' in the final HTML? Possibly via a regular expression or something? Thanks to everybody in advance.

    Read the article

  • Problem with UPDATE statement in stored-procedure in Oracle Database

    - by MKP
    Hello, I have stored-procedure in Oracle database like this: create or replace PROCEDURE EDYTUJ_PRACOWNIKA (PR_IMIE IN VARCHAR2, PR_NAZWISKO IN VARCHAR2, PR_PENSJA IN FLOAT, PR_PRZELOZONY IN NUMBER, PR_ODDZIAL IN NUMBER, PRAC_ID IN NUMBER) AS tmpPensja FLOAT := 0; tmpPrzel NUMBER := 0; BEGIN select przelozony into tmpPrzel from pracownik where id = PRAC_ID; IF(tmpPrzel IS NOT NULL) THEN select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = tmpPrzel; IF(tmpPensja < 1150) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 1000 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja - 150 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; (4) END IF; END IF; IF(PR_PRZELOZONY > 0) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = PR_PRZELOZONY, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE id = PRAC_ID; (2) select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = PR_PRZELOZONY; IF(tmpPensja > 4850) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 5000 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja + 150 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; (1) END IF; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = NULL, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE ID = PRAC_ID; (3) END IF; END; where przelozony and pensja are columns in pracownik table. And I have problem that when running procedure with parameters that provide that line marked with "(1)" (there is the same problem with line marked with "(4)") should be executed that update statement don't have any effect. What's more statements in lines marked with "(2)" and "(3)" works fine. I have no ideas how to fix it. Thank you in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Have I found a security problem in an API or do I just not understand SSL?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on building a set of Python bindings around an XML-based API provided by a vendor. The vendor requires that all transactions be conducted over SSL. Using a Linux box, I created a key file and a CSR for my application. Using their self-service web portal, I then generate a certificate using that CSR. Both the key file and the certificate are used when making the SSL request to the API. I'm now working on designing exception classes to make error messages more verbose (and, hopefully, more useful to developers using my bindings). Part of my testing has included altering the key file: transpose a couple characters here, replace 4 or 5 with random characters there, etc. To my surprise, altering the key file had no effect! As long as I didn't change the total length of it, the API didn't complain about a bad key file. The only way I was able to throw an error was by swapping in a completely different key from another application. At that point, the API complained about the Common Name not matching. Is this normal behavior or has the vendor not properly implemented SSL?

    Read the article

  • R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

    - by Mike Dewar
    Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

    Read the article

  • memcache is not storing data accross requests

    - by morpheous
    I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

    Read the article

  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

    Read the article

  • Returning objects from another thread?

    - by Mark
    Trying to follow the hints laid out here, but she doesn't mention how to handle it when your collection needs to return a value, like so: private delegate TValue DequeueHandler(); public virtual TValue Dequeue() { if (dispatcher.CheckAccess()) { --count; var pair = dict.First(); var queue = pair.Value; var val = queue.Dequeue(); if (queue.Count == 0) dict.Remove(pair.Key); OnCollectionChanged(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Remove, val)); return val; } else { dispatcher.BeginInvoke(new DequeueHandler(Dequeue)); } } This obviously won't work, because dispatcher.BeginInvoke doesn't return anything. What am I supposed to do? Or maybe I could replace dequeue with two functions, Peek and Pop, where Peek doesn't really need to be on the UI thread because it doesn't modify anything, right? As a side question, these methods don't need to be "locked" either, do they? If they're all forced to run in the UI thread, then there shouldn't be any concurrency issues, right?

    Read the article

  • Boost binding a function taking a reference

    - by Jamie Cook
    Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

    Read the article

  • How to upload files and store them in a server local path when MS SQL SERVER allows remote connectio

    - by user193655
    I am developing a win32 windows application with Delphi and MS SQL Server. it works fine in LAN but I am trying to add the support for SQL Server remote connections (= working with a DB that can be accessed with an external IP, as described in this article: http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;EN-US;914277). Basically I have a Table in DB where I keep the DocumentID, the document description and the Document path (like \FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip). Of course \FILESERVER is a local (LAN) path for the server but not for the client (as I am now trying to add the support for remote connections). So I need a way to access \FILESERVER even if of course I cannot see it in LAN. I found the following T-SQL code snippet that is perfect for the "download trick": SELECT BulkColumn as MyFile FROM OPENROWSET(BULK '\FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip' , SINGLE_BLOB) AS X With the code above I can download a file on the client. But how to upload it? I need an "Uppload trick" to be able to insert new files, but also to delete or replace existing files. Can anyone suggest? If a trick is not available could you suggest an alternative? Like an extended stored procedure or calling some .net assembly from the server.

    Read the article

  • Using ZLib unit to compress files vs using ZipForge

    - by user193655
    There are many questions on zipping in Delphi, anyway this is not a duplicate. I am using ZipForge for zip/unzip capability in my application. Currently I use 2 features of ZipForge: 1) zip and unzip (!) 2) password protect the archives Now I am removing the password from all the archives so I need only to zip and unzip files. I zip them just for minimizing bandwith when uploading/downloading files from the server. So my idea is to process all files once for unzipping them (with password) and rezipping them without password. I have nothing against ZipForge, anyway it is an extra component, every time I upgrade to a newest Delphi version I have to wait for the new IDE support and moreover the more components the more problems during the installation. So since what I do is very simple I'd like to replace ZipForge with 2 simple functinos using the ZLib unit. I found (and tested) the functions here on Torry's. What do you think of using Zlib unit? Do you see any potential problem that I would not have with ZipForge? Can you comment on speed?

    Read the article

  • Formvalidator from the iframe.

    - by basit74
    Hello I have a following formvalidatior function in my document. function formValidator(formid) { var form = cic.$(formid); if(!form) return (''); var errors = []; var len = form.elements.length; for(var elementIdx = 0; elementIdx < len; elementIdx++) { var element = form.elements[elementIdx]; if(!element && !element.getAttribute('validationtype')) return (''); switch (element.getAttribute('validationtype')) { case 'text' : if(cic.getValue(element).strip() == "") errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; case 'email' : if(!cic.isEmail(cic.getValue(element))) errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; case 'numeric' : if(isNaN(cic.getValue(element).replace(',', '.'))) errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; case 'confirm' : if(cic.getValue(cic.$(element.getAttribute('sourcefield'))) !== cic.getValue(element)) errors.push(element.getAttribute('validationmsg')); break; } } return (errors.length > 0) ? '<li>' + errors.uniq().join("<li>") : ''; } It works fine, now I have an Iframe in my document, and that I frame contains the form to validate. What will be the best practice to change this function in such a way that it can validate document forms and iframe from simeltaniously. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

    Read the article

  • HTMLInputElement in IE7

    - by Vladislav Qulin
    I'm writing an extension for crossbrowser input&textarea selection getter and setter. So that's the way i write my code: HTMLInputElement.prototype.getSelectionRange = get_selection_range; HTMLInputElement.prototype.setSelection = set_selection_range; HTMLTextAreaElement.prototype.getSelectionRange = get_selection_range; HTMLTextAreaElement.prototype.setSelection = set_selection_range; get_selection_range and set_selection_range are those extended functions. So i just wanted to replace someInputElement.selectionStart = a; // and whole lot of code due to browser someInputElement.selectionEnd = b; // compatibility with just someInputElement.setSelection(a, b); someInputElement.setSelection({ start: a, end: b }); someOtherElement.setSelection(someInputElement.getSelection()); But then i met couple of difficulties in IE7. First of all, IE7 doesnt know what is HTMLInputElement. I don't want to extend whole Object. Well, that would be the last thing i'll do, but i want to evade it. Functions get_selection_range and set_selection_range are alright, don't ask what's within, you've seen it couple of times already. So the question is: is there any legit substitution for HTMLInputElement in JS for IE7?

    Read the article

  • Sometimes can rename, remove a folder; sometimes cannot

    - by Vy Clarks
    In my website project. I need to rename or remove some folder by code. Sometimes I can do all of that, but sometimes I cannot with error: Access to the path is denied Try to find to solution on Google. May be, there are two reason: The permisstion of that Folder Some subFolder or some file in that Folder that's being held open. Try to check: Right click on Folder- Properties-- Security: if this is the right way to check the permission, the Folder allowes every action (read, write....) There are no file, no subfolder of that Folder is opened. Why? I still dont understant why sometimes I can rename folder but sometimes I cannot. Help!! I need your opinions!!! UPDATE: take a look at my code above: I want to rename the a folder with the new name inputed in a Textbox txtFilenFolderName: protected void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string[] values = EditValue; string oldpath = values[0];// = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" string oldName = values[2]; //= New Folder string newName = txtFilenFolderName.Text; //= New Folder1 string newPath = string.Empty; if (oldName != newName) { newPath = oldpath.Replace(oldName, newName); Directory.Move(oldpath, newPath); } else lblmessage2.Text = "New name must not be the same as the old "; } } Try to debug: oldpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" oldName = New Folder newName= New Folder1 newpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder1" Everything seems right, but I when I click on buton Edit --- rename--- Update--- an error occur: Access to the path is denied D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder Help!

    Read the article

  • How to Send Headers Through PHP Proxy?

    - by blabus
    Okay, so I have an issue with an AJAX request. I currently have this URL: http://www.google.com/images?hl=en&safe=off&gbv=2&tbs=isch%3A1&sa=1&q=cars+imagesize%3A500x500&aq=f&aqi=&aql=&oq=&gs_rfai=&start=0 I then pass it to my proxy script by modifying the string to this: proxy.php?url=http://www.google.com/images?hl=en&safe=off&gbv=2&tbs=isch%3A1&sa=1&q=cars+imagesize%3A500x500&aq=f&aqi=&aql=&oq=&gs_rfai=&start=0 I need to use the PHP proxy script to grab that page's HTML so that I can then parse through it with javascript. However, the problem is that the headers in that URL are also being sent to the proxy script, and as a result, I get a 'malformed or illegal request' error. I'm pretty sure the two different sets of headers are the problem, because if I just replace the original URL string with 'http://wwww.google.com', the proxy returns the HTML of the page correctly. So basically, I don't know how to fix this. I'm a complete PHP noob, and I tried escaping the original URL before I appended it to the 'proxy.php?url=', but that doesn't fix anything. Any ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

    - by Angie Dubis
    I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

    Read the article

  • Files under Program Files have a split personality

    - by regularfry
    I have a Ruby application I'm installing (along with a packaged ruby interpreter) under Program Files on Windows 7 with an NSIS-built installer. In order to debug it, I edited one of the files to add some debugging statements. After that, I uninstalled the package and ran a new version of the installer which includes a new copy of the edited file, without debugging statements. Now, I can't get the new copy to load into ruby. If I run type <filename> in cmd.exe, or open the file in Notepad.exe or Firefox, I see the new version. If I run ruby -e "puts File.read('<filename>')", or open the file in emacs, I see the old version. If, in Windows Explorer, I copy the file to a new filename, everything can see the new contents at that filename. If I delete the original file and rename the copy to replace the original, the split personality returns. This situation survives a reboot, so it's not a simple matter of a file being accidentally held open. What on earth is going on here? Is there some aspect of the install process that might be checkpointing the file in a way I can revert, or at least switch off while I'm debugging the installer?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

    - by brad
    I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

    Read the article

  • ODP.NET Procedure Compilation

    - by Bobcat1506
    When I try to execute a create procedure using ODP.NET I get back ORA-24344: success with compilation error. However, when I run the same statement in SQL Developer it compiles successfully. Does anyone know what I need to change to get my procedure to compile? Is it a character set issue? I am using Oracle 10g Express, .NET 3.5 SP 1, and ODP.NET 2.111.7.20 (version from Oracle.DataAccess.dll) [TestMethod] public void OdpNet_CreateProcedure() { ConnectionStringSettings settings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ODP.NET"]; using (var con = new OracleConnection(settings.ConnectionString)) { con.InfoMessage += new OracleInfoMessageEventHandler(con_InfoMessage); con.Open(); var cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = con; cmd.CommandText = @" CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET ( P_CURSOR OUT SYS_REFCURSOR ) IS BEGIN OPEN P_CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM TABLE1; END;"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error cmd.CommandText = @"ALTER PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET COMPILE"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error } } void con_InfoMessage(object sender, OracleInfoMessageEventArgs eventArgs) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(eventArgs.Message); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253  | Next Page >