Search Results

Search found 7529 results on 302 pages for 'replace'.

Page 247/302 | < Previous Page | 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254  | Next Page >

• Which frameworks (and associated languages) support class replacement?

  - by Alix

  Hi, I'm writing my master thesis, which deals with AOP in .NET, among other things, and I mention the lack of support for replacing classes at load time as an important factor in the fact that there are currently no .NET AOP frameworks that perform true dynamic weaving -- not without imposing the requirement that woven classes must extend ContextBoundObject or MarshalByRefObject or expose all their semantics on an interface. You can however do this with the JVM thanks to ClassFileTransformer: You extend ClassFileTransformer. You subscribe to the class load event. On class load, you rewrite the class and replace it. All this is very well, but my project director has asked me, quite in the last minute, to give him a list of frameworks (and associated languages) that do / do not support class replacement. I really have no time to look for this now: I wouldn't feel comfortable just doing a superficial research and potentially putting erroneous information in my thesis. So I ask you, oh almighty programming community, can you help out? Of course, I'm not asking you to research this yourselves. Simply, if you know for sure that a particular framework supports / doesn't support this, leave it as an answer. If you're not sure please don't forget to point it out. Thanks so much!

  Read the article

• Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

  - by Jesse

  So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

  - by Budda

  I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

  Read the article

• XML Decryption Bug (referencing issue)

  - by OrangePekoe

  Hi, Needing some explanation of what exactly the decryption is doing, in addition to some help on solving the problem. Currently, when a portion of XML is encrypted, and then decrypted, the DOM appears to work correctly. We can see the element is encrypted and then see it return back once it is decrypted. Our problem lies when a user tries to change data in that same element after decryption has occurred. When a user changes some settings, data in the XML should change. However, if the user attempts to change an XML element that has been decrypted the changes are not reflected in the DOM. We have a reference pointer to the XML element that is used to bind the element to an object. If you encrypt the node and then decrypt it, the reference pointer now points to a valid orphaned XML element that is no longer part of the DOM. After decryption, there will be 2 copies of the XML element. One in the DOM as expected (though will not reflect new changes), and one orphaned element in memory that is still referenced by our pointer. The orphaned element is valid (reflects new changes). We can see that this orphaned element is owned by the DOM, but when we try to return its parent, it returns null. The question is: Where did this orphaned xml element come from? And how can we get it to correctly append (replace old data) to the DOM? The code resembles: public static void Decrypt(XmlDocument Doc, SymmetricAlgorithm Alg) { if (Doc == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Doc"); if (Alg == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Alg"); XmlElement encryptedElement = Doc.GetElementsByTagName("EncryptedData")[0] as XmlElement; if (encryptedElement == null) { throw new XmlException("The EncryptedData element was not found."); } EncryptedData edElement = new EncryptedData(); edElement.LoadXml(encryptedElement); EncryptedXml exml = new EncryptedXml(); byte[] rgbOutput = exml.DecryptData(edElement, Alg); exml.ReplaceData(encryptedElement, rgbOutput); }

  Read the article

• Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

  - by Aki Iskandar

  Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

  Read the article

• Putting together CSV Cells in Excel with a macro

  - by Eric Kinch

  So, I have a macro to export data into CSV format and it's working great (Code at the bottom). The problem is the data I am putting into it. When I put the data in question in it comes out Firstname,Lastname,username,password,description I'd like to change it so I get Firstname Lastname,Firstname,Lastname,username,password,description What I'd like to do is manipulate my existing macro so to accomplish this. I'm not so good at VBS so any input or a shove in the right direction would be fantastic. Thanks! Sub Make_CSV() Dim sFile As String Dim sPath As String Dim sLine As String Dim r As Integer Dim c As Integer r = 1 'Starting row of data sPath = "C:\CSVout\" sFile = "MyText_" & Format(Now, "YYYYMMDD_HHMMSS") & ".CSV" Close #1 Open sPath & sFile For Output As #1 Do Until IsEmpty(Range("A" & r)) 'You can also Do Until r = 17 (get the first 16 cells) sLine = "" c = 1 Do Until IsEmpty(Cells(1, c)) 'Number of Columns - You could use a FOR / NEXT loop instead sLine = sLine & """" & Replace(Cells(r, c), ";", ":") & """" & "," c = c + 1 Loop Print #1, Left(sLine, Len(sLine) - 1) 'Remove the trailing comma r = r + 1 Loop Close #1 End Sub

  Read the article

• How to speed-up python nested loop?

  - by erich

  I'm performing a nested loop in python that is included below. This serves as a basic way of searching through existing financial time series and looking for periods in the time series that match certain characteristics. In this case there are two separate, equally sized, arrays representing the 'close' (i.e. the price of an asset) and the 'volume' (i.e. the amount of the asset that was exchanged over the period). For each period in time I would like to look forward at all future intervals with lengths between 1 and INTERVAL_LENGTH and see if any of those intervals have characteristics that match my search (in this case the ratio of the close values is greater than 1.0001 and less than 1.5 and the summed volume is greater than 100). My understanding is that one of the major reasons for the speedup when using NumPy is that the interpreter doesn't need to type-check the operands each time it evaluates something so long as you're operating on the array as a whole (e.g. numpy_array * 2), but obviously the code below is not taking advantage of that. Is there a way to replace the internal loop with some kind of window function which could result in a speedup, or any other way using numpy/scipy to speed this up substantially in native python? Alternatively, is there a better way to do this in general (e.g. will it be much faster to write this loop in C++ and use weave)? ARRAY_LENGTH = 500000 INTERVAL_LENGTH = 15 close = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) volume = np.array( xrange(ARRAY_LENGTH) ) close, volume = close.astype('float64'), volume.astype('float64') results = [] for i in xrange(len(close) - INTERVAL_LENGTH): for j in xrange(i+1, i+INTERVAL_LENGTH): ret = close[j] / close[i] vol = sum( volume[i+1:j+1] ) if ret > 1.0001 and ret < 1.5 and vol > 100: results.append( [i, j, ret, vol] ) print results

  Read the article

• Add an item to the Finder/Save dialog sidebar

  - by Clinton Blackmore

  I'm working on a script where a user logs into a guest account on OS and is prompted for their network credentials in order to mount their network home folder (while they benefit from working on a local user folder). As the guest folder is deleted when users log out, I want to discourage them from saving anything there. I would like to replace the items on the Finder and Open/Save sidebar lists (such as "Desktop", username, "Documents", etc) with ones that would save into their network home folder. It is possible to do this using AppleScript or Cocoa APIs, or do I need to modify a plist and restart the Finder? [Ack. Looking into ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.sidebars.plist, it isn't at all clear how I'd populate it.] Similar Questions: AppleScript: adding mounted folder to Finder Sidebar? suggests using fstab; this code will most likely run as a user and really, automounting at that point would be too late. How do you programmatically put folder icons on the Finder sidebar, given that you have to use a custom icon for the folder? Says there is no Cocoa API, but that you can use a carbon-style LSSharedFileList API that is only documented in a single header file. Does anyone know of some example code to add an item to the Finder sidebar?

  Read the article

• regex match css class name from single string containing multiple classes

  - by effectica

  I have a long string that contains multiple css classes. With regex I would like to match every class name as I then need to replace these class names like so: <span>CLASSNAME</span> I have tried for hours to come up with a solution and I think I am close however for certain class names I am not able to exclude closing curly brackets from the match. Here is a sample string I have been carrying out testing on: #main .items-Outer p{ font-family:Verdana; color: #000000; font-size: 50px; font-weight: bold; }#footer .footer-inner p.intro{ font-family:Arial; color: #444444; font-size: 30; font-weight: normal; }.genericTxt{ font-family:Courier; color: #444444; font-size: 30; font-weight: normal; } And here is the the regex I came up with so far: ((^(?:.+?)(?:[^{]*))|((?:\})(?:.+?)(?:[^{]*))) Please look at the screenshot I am attaching as it will show more clearly the matches I get. My problem is that I would obviously like to exclude curly brackets from any match.

  Read the article

• Initializing Disqus comments in hidden element causes issue in FF 14.0.1

  - by Bazze

  This issue appears only in Firefox 14.0.1 (well I couldn't reproduce it in any other browser). If you put the code for Disqus comments inside an element that is hidden and wait until everything is fully loaded and then display the element using JavaScript, the comment box nor comments will show up. However if you resize the window, it'll show up immediately. It's working fine in latest version of Google Chrome and Safari though. What's causing this and how to fix it? Sample code to reproduce: <div id="test" style="display:none;"> <div id="disqus_thread"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* * * CONFIGURATION VARIABLES: EDIT BEFORE PASTING INTO YOUR WEBPAGE * * */ var disqus_shortname = 'onlinefunctions'; // required: replace example with your forum shortname /* * * DON'T EDIT BELOW THIS LINE * * */ (function() { var dsq = document.createElement('script'); dsq.type = 'text/javascript'; dsq.async = true; dsq.src = 'http://' + disqus_shortname + '.disqus.com/embed.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(dsq); })(); </script> <noscript>Please enable JavaScript to view the <a href="http://disqus.com/?ref_noscript">comments powered by Disqus.</a></noscript> <a href="http://disqus.com" class="dsq-brlink">comments powered by <span class="logo-disqus">Disqus</span></a> </div> <a href="#" onclick="document.getElementById('test').style.display = 'block'">show</a> I could post a link to a live example but I'm not sure about the policy of posting links here on Stack Overflow.

  Read the article

• "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

  - by JackLocke

  Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

  Read the article

• How do I override a python import?

  - by Evan Plaice

  So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

  Read the article

• FragmentActivity doesn't see activity in onActivityCreate(), after screen orientation changed

  - by hai bison

  I'm using Android support library v13. There is a strange thing I couldn't understand. When creating new activity, I load fragment as: Main activity layout: ... <FrameLayout android:id="@+id/fragment_1" ... /> In onCreate() of main activity: mFragment = (FragmentActivity) getSupportFragmentManager().findFragmentById(R.id.fragment_1); // if screen orientation changed, no need to create new instance of fragment if (mFragment == null) { mFragment = ...; // create new instance of fragment FragmentTransaction ft = getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction(); ft.replace(R.id.fragment_1, mFragment); // because this is called ONCE, we can use this method ft.commitAllowingStateLoss(); } Now, everything works perfectly in emulators 1.5, 1.6 and 2.2. I have a phone 2.2.2. But there is an exception: if the app is running, and screen orientation changed. Inside onActivityCreated(), getActivity() sometimes returns null. This only happens in emulators 1.5/ 1.6/ 2.2. My phone 2.2.2 works very well, I test hundreds of times but never catch that bug. Even other emulators 3.x, 4.x work well too. Unfortunately I don't have phone 1.5/ 1.6/ 2.2. So did you have experience with this? Is that a bug of the support library, or emulators? Could you please help me? Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET - Accessing copied content

  - by James Kolpack

  I have a class library project which contains some content files configured with the "Copy if newer" copy build action. This results in the files being copied to a folder under ...\bin\ for every project in the solution. In this same solution, I've got a ASP.NET web project (which is MVC, by the way). In the library I have a static constructor load the files into data structures accessible by the web project. Previously I've been including the content as an embedded resource. I now need to be able to replace them without recompiling. I want to access the data in three different contexts: Unit testing the library assembly Debugging the web application Hosting the site in IIS For unit testing, Environment.CurrentDirectory points to a path containing the copied content. When debugging however, it points to C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE. I've also looked at Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location which points to C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c44f9da4\9238ccc\assembly\dl3\eb4c23b4\9bd39460_f7d4ca01\. What I need is to the physical location of the webroot \bin folder, but since I'm in a static constructor in the library project, I don't have access to a Request.PhysicalApplicationPath. Is there some other environment variable or structure where I can always find my "Copy if newer" files?

  Read the article

• linq delegate function checking from objects

  - by Philip

  I am trying to find the list of objects which can be replaced. Class Letter{ int ID; string Name; string AdvCode; int isDeleted; } Class Replacers{ int ID; string MainAdvCode; string ReplacesAdvCode; } example data: Replacers 0 455 400 1 955 400 2 955 455 such that if a Letter has and Advcode of 455 and another has a code of 400 the 400 gets marked for deletion. And then if another Letter has a 955 then the 455 gets marked for deletion and the 400 (which is already marked) is marked for deletion. The problem is with my current code the 400 and 455 is marking itself for deletion?!?!? Public class Main{ List<Letter> Letters; List<Replacers> replaces; //select the ones to replace the replacements aka the little guys //check if the replacements replacer exists if yes mark deleted var filterMethodReplacements = new Func<Letter, bool>(IsAdvInReplacements);//Working var filterMethodReplacers = new Func<Letter, bool>(IsAdvInReplacers);//NOT WORKING???? var resReplacements=letters.Where(filterMethodReplacements);//working foreach (Letter letter in resReplacements) { //select the Replacers aka the ones that contain the little guys var resReplacers = letters.Where(filterMethodReplacers); if (resReplacers != null) letter.isDeleted = 1; } } } private bool IsAdvInReplacements(Letter letter) { return (from a in Replacables where a.ReplaceAdvCode == letter.AdvCode select a).Any(); } private bool IsAdvInReplacers(Letter letter) { //?????????????????????????????? return (from a in Replacables where a.MainAdvCode == letter.AdvCode select a).Any(); } }

  Read the article

• PHP - Find a string in file then show it's line number

  - by xZero

  I have an application which needs to open the file, then find string in it, and print a line number where is string found. For example, file example.txt contains few hashes: APLF2J51 1a79a4d60de6718e8e5b326e338ae533 EEQJE2YX 66b375b08fc869632935c9e6a9c7f8da O87IGF8R c458fb5edb84c54f4dc42804622aa0c5 APLF2J51 B7TSW1ZE 1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018 EEQJE2YX affb23b07576b88d1e9fea50719fb3b7 So, I want to PHP search for "1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018" and print out its line number, in this case 4. Please note that there are will not be multiple hashes in file. I found a few codes over Internet, but none seem to work. I tried this one: <?PHP $string = "1e9eea56686511e9052e6578b56ae018"; $data = file_get_contents("example.txt"); $data = explode("\n", $data); for ($line = 0; $line < count($data); $line++) { if (strpos($data[$line], $string) >= 0) { die("String $string found at line number: $line"); } } ?> It just says that string is found at line 0.... Which is not correct.... Final application is much more complex than that... After it founds line number, it should replace string which something else, and save changes to file, then goes further processing.... Thanks in advance :)

  Read the article

• Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

  - by Scarface

  First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

  Read the article

• Problem in Application_Error in Global.asax

  - by mmtemporary

  my problem is User.Identity.Name or Request.Url.AbsoluteUri in exception handling is empty when exception email to me. this is Application_Code: void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { Server.Transfer("~/errors/default.aspx"); } and this is default.aspx code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Server.GetLastError() == null) return; Exception ex = Server.GetLastError().GetBaseException(); if (ex == null) return; string message = string.Format("User: ", User.Identity.Name); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("AbsoluteUri: ", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("Form: ", Request.Form.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; message += string.Format("QueryString: ", Request.QueryString.ToString()); message += Environment.NewLine; HttpBrowserCapabilities browser = Request.Browser; string s = "Browser Capabilities:\n" + "Type = " + browser.Type + "\n" + "Name = " + browser.Browser + "\n" + "Version = " + browser.Version + "\n" + "Platform = " + browser.Platform + "\n" + "Is Crawler = " + browser.Crawler + "\n" + "Supports Cookies = " + browser.Cookies + "\n" + "Supports JavaScript = " + browser.EcmaScriptVersion.ToString() + "\n" + "\n"; message += s; message += Environment.NewLine; message += ex.ToString(); Exception lastException = (Exception)Application["LastException"]; if (lastException == null || lastException.Message != ex.Message) { Application.Lock(); Application["LastException"] = ex; Application.UnLock(); SiteHelper.SendEmail(SiteHelper.AdministratorEMail, "Error!!!", message, false); } Server.ClearError(); } but i receive email like this (this is header without full exception content): User: AbsoluteUri: Form: QueryString: Browser Capabilities: Type = IE8 Name = IE Version = 8.0 Platform = WinXP Is Crawler = False Supports Cookies = True Supports JavaScript = 1.2 why username and request url is emty? this problem is exist when i replace transfer with redirect or i don't use both. tanx

  Read the article

• Modify onclick function with jQuery

  - by Chris Barr

  I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

  Read the article

• Advise guidance on how to form this jQuery script for show/hide fade element

  - by Rick

  Hey guys.. I basically have several links on the left side of the screen and on the right is a preview window. Below the preview window is another box for the affiliate link code. So what I am trying to do is create an affiliate page where you choose the banner size on the left by clicking on the link and on the right you see it dynamically change to the banner size and the code changes accordingly as well. So far I have the following code and it works but it seems very very cumbersome and bloated. Can you see if I can trim this down? jQuery(".banner-style li").click(function() { jQuery(".banner-style li").removeClass("selected"); jQuery(this).addClass("selected"); var $banner = jQuery(this).attr("class"); $banner = $banner.replace(" selected",""); jQuery(".preview img").fadeOut('fast',function() { jQuery(".preview img").attr("src", "http://localhost/site/banners/"+$banner+".jpg") .fadeIn('slow'); }); jQuery(".code p").removeClass('hide').hide(); jQuery(".code p."+$banner).show(); }); Also to note the funny thing is in FF, when you click for the first to on any link, the original image on the right fades out and in real quick and then it loads the "clicked" image. This does not happen in other browsers...

  Read the article

• How to change the attribute value of svg file

  - by rafiq7s

  Hello, In samplexml.svg there is a node <image width="744" height="1052" xlink:href="image1.png"/> I need to replace "image1.png" with another value like "image2.png". Please guide me with sample code how to to that. I could get the attribute value "image1.png". Here is the code: > <?php $xdoc = new DomDocument; > $xdoc->Load('samplexml.svg'); $tagName > = $xdoc->getElementsByTagName('image')->item(0); > $attribNode = > $tagName->getAttributeNode('xlink:href'); > > echo "Attribute Name : > ".$attribNode->name; echo "<br > />Attribute Value : > ".$attribNode->value; ?> Here is samplexml.svg: > <svg> <g> <title>Test title</title> > <image x="0" y="0" width="744" > height="1052" > xlink:href="image1.png"/> </g> </svg> Please help me, how to change this attribute value. Regards, rafiq7s

  Read the article

• Is there a FAST way to export and install an app on my phone, while signing it with my own keystore?

  - by Alexei Andreev

  So, I've downloaded my own application from the market and installed it on my phone. Now, I am trying to install a temporary new version from Eclipse, but here is the message I get: Re-installation failed due to different application signatures. You must perform a full uninstall of the application. WARNING: This will remove the application data! Please execute 'adb uninstall com.applicationName' in a shell. Launch canceled! Now, I really really don't want to uninstall the application, because I will lose all my data. One solution I found is to Export my application, creating new .apk, and then install it via HTC Sync (probably a different program based on what phone you have). The problem is this takes a long time to do, since I need to enter the password for the keystore each time and then wait for HTC Sync. It's a pain in the ass! So the question is: Is there a way to make Eclipse automatically use my keystore to sign the application (quickly and automatically)? Or perhaps to replace debug keystore with my own? Or perhaps just tell it to remember the password, so I don't have to enter it every time...? Or some other way to solve this problem?

  Read the article

• DotNetOpeId - Using OpenIdButton for Google Apps

  - by JediPotPie

  I am an ASP.NET newbie and I am trying to design an OpenID/SSO system for an internal web application. The web application is pretty simple and the authentication is currently being managed by a database with usernames and passwords. I want to replace the existing accounts stored in the database with Google Apps accounts. I have downloaded the latest DotNetOpenAuth-3.4.3.10103 package and got the OpenIdRelyingPartyWebForms sample up and running on IIS. I have built my own login page using just a OpenIdButton object that points to a development Google domain. The button seems to work fine in FireFox, at least it is forwarding me to the Google Apps login, but nothing happens when I load the same page in IE. When I click the Google button, nothing happens, zip. The same is true for the Yahoo button in the login.aspx page given in the sample. Here is the .aspx code I am using... <rp:OpenIdButton runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.google.com/accounts/google_transparent.gif" Text="Login with Google!" ID="googleLoginButton" Identifier="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/site-xrds?hd=dev.connexcloud.com" />

  Read the article

• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

  Read the article

• callbacks via objective-c selectors

  - by codemonkey

  I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254  | Next Page >