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• How to get the most out of a 3 month intern?

  - by firoso

  We've got a software engineering intern coming in who's fairly competent and shows promise. There's one catch: we have him for 3 months full time and can't count on anything past that. He still has a year of school left, which is why we can't say for sure that we have him past 3 months. We have a specific project we're putting him on. How can we maximize his productivity while still giving him a positive learning experience? He wants to learn about development cycles and real-world software engineering. Anything that you think would be critical that you wish you had learned earlier? Nearly six months later: He's preformed admirably and even I have learned a lot from him. Thank you all for the input. Now I want to provide feedback to YOU! He has benefited most from sitting down and writing code. However, he has had a nasty history of bad software engineering practices which I'm trying to replace with good habits (properly finishing a method before moving on, not hacking code together, proper error channeling, etc). He has also really gained a lot by feeling involved in design decisions, even if most of the time they're related to my own design plans.

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• Showing latex commands in text string using mathjax

  - by robezy

  I have a text string, for ex. 'A vehicle travels from A to B, distance {$d} km at constant speed. While returning back to A on same path it {$variation} its speed by {$v} km/hr. The total time of journey is {$t} hours. Find the original speed of vehicle.' The variables in the curly brackets are to be replaced by appropriate latex equation. I'm using php's preg_replace to replace the variables with latex commands. Unfortunately, my latex commands are coming as it is. It is not processed by mathjax. For ex, above text becomes A vehicle travels from A to B, distance 1 km at constant speed. While returning back to A on same path it increased its speed by (\frac{3}{2}) km/hr. The total time of journey is 1 hours. Find the original speed of vehicle. The frac is show as it is. What is wrong here? Please ask me if you need any more info. Thanks

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• radio input replacement using jquery

  - by altvali

  It may seem a bit odd to ask this since there are several solutions out there but the fact is that all of them look pretty and none of what i've seem save the input value for form submission the right way. I'm looking for something that will replace all radio inputs with divs that get special classes when they are hovered or clicked, and an input type hidden for every group of radio inputs with the same name, hidden input that will be updated with the value corresponding to the div the user clicks on. Long sentence, i know. Here's what i've come up with: $('input:radio').each(function(){ if (this.style.display!='none') { var inputName = $(this).attr('name'); var inputValue = $(this).attr('value'); var isChecked = $(this).attr('checked'); if (!$('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').length) // if the hidden input wasn't already created $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div><input type="hidden" name="'+inputName+'" value="'+inputValue+'" />'); else{ $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div>'); if (isChecked) $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); } //this bind doesn't work $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).click(function(){ if($('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').val()!=inputValue){ $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); $('div[id*='+inputName+'].inputRadioButton').removeClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); } if (!$("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).hasClass('inputRadioButtonSelected')) $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).addClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); }); } }); Please tell me how to fix it. Thank you. Edit I've found the reason. It should normally work but some of my radio inputs generated by an e-commerce software had brackets in them (e.g. id[12] ) and jQuery was parsing that. The fix is adding var inputButton = document.getElementById(inputName+"X"+inputValue); before the bind and replacing $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue) with $(inputButton).

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• Advance: Parsing XML into another XML page using only javascript or jquery; Can't use PhP, Java or MySQL

  - by UrBestFriend

  Current site: http://cardwall.tk/ Example of intended outcome: http://www.shockwave.com/downloadWall.jsp I have an embeded flash object that uses XML/RSS (Picasa) to feed itself pictures. Now I created my own XML/RSS feed so that I can add additional XML tags and values. Now here's my big problem: enabling search. Since I'm not relying on Picasa's API anymore to return custom RSS/XML for the user's search, how can I create xml from another xml based on the user's search queries using only JavaScript and Jquery? Here is the current code: <script type="text/javascript"> var flashvars = { feed : "http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml", backgroundColor : "#FFFFFF", metadataFont : "Arial", wmode : "opaque", iFrameScrolling: "no", numRows : "3", }; var params = { allowFullScreen: "true", allowscriptaccess : "always", wmode: "opaque" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://apps.cooliris.com/embed/cooliris.swf", "gamewall", "810", "410", "9.0.0", "", flashvars, params); $(document).ready(function() { $("#cooliris input").keydown(function(e) { if(e.keyCode == 13) { $("#cooliris a#searchCooliris").click(); return false; } }); doCoolIrisSearch = function() { cooliris.embed.setFeedContents( '** JAVA STRING OF PARSED RSS/XML based on http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml and USER'S SEARCH INPUT** ' ) }); <form id="searchForm" name="searchForm" class="shockwave"> <input type="text" name="coolIrisSearch" id="coolIrisSearch" value="Search..." class="field text short" onfocus="this.value='';" /> <a id="searchCooliris" href="#" onclick="doCoolIrisSearch();return false;" class="clearLink">Search Cooliris</a> </form> <div id="gamewall"></div> So basically, I want to replace cooliris.embed.setFeedContents's value with a Javastring based on the parsed RSS/XML and user search input. Any code or ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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• jQuery dynamic css loading weired behavior

  - by jimpsr

  The app I am working on requires dynamic loading of css and js, right now the solution is as follows: myapp.loadCss = function(css){ $("head").append("<link>"); cssDom = $("head").children(":last"); cssDom.attr({rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: css }); } myapp.loadJs = funciton(js){ ... //$.ajax call is used in synchronized mode to make sure the js is fully loaded } } When some widgets need to be load, the usual call with be myapp.loadCss('/widgets/widget1/css/example.css'); myapp.loadJs('/wiggets/widget1/js/example.js'); The weired thing is that once a while (1 out of 10 or 20), the newly created dom elements from example.js will not be able to get its css from example.css, it seems however my loadCss method does not load the css in a synchronized mode? I have tried to replace my loadCss with the the following code: myapp.loadCss(css){ $('<link href="' + css + '" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />').appendTo($('head')); } It seems to be OK then (I refreshed the webpage a hundred times for verification :-( ) But unfortunately this method failed in IE(IE7, not tested in IE6, 8) Is there any better solution for this?

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• How to remove a specific category on a selected mail in Outlook 2003 with Macro?

  - by szekelya

  Hi, I am trying to transform my Outlook2003 into the closest thing to gmail. I started to use categories, which are pretty similar to labels in gmail. I can assign categories automatically with rules, and I can add categories manually. I have also created "search folders", that show all mails with a given category, if they are not in the Deleted Items or Sent Items folders. This part is almost like the Label views in gmail. Two things are missing basically, which should be done with macros (VBA to be precise) which I'm totally inexperienced with. So hence my questions: -Can someone show me a macro to remove the category "Inbox"? That would act exactly like the Archive button in gmail. In fact I want to assign this macro to a toolbar button and call it Archive. I have a rule that adds the Inbox category to all incoming mail. As I said, I have a search folder displaying all mails categorized as Inbox, and I also have an All Mail search folder, that displays all messages regardless whether they have the Inbox category. Exactly like gmail, just the easy archiving is missing. -Can someone show me a macro that would delete the selected mail/mails and also would remove the Inbox category before deletion? I would replace the default delete button with this macro. (Somewhat less important, as in my search folders I can filter messages that are physically placed in the Deleted Items folder, but it would be more elegant not to have mails categorized as Inbox in the trash. Many thanks in advance, szekelya

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• Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

  - by Carl Manaster

  I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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• Problem with UPDATE statement in stored-procedure in Oracle Database

  - by MKP

  Hello, I have stored-procedure in Oracle database like this: create or replace PROCEDURE EDYTUJ_PRACOWNIKA (PR_IMIE IN VARCHAR2, PR_NAZWISKO IN VARCHAR2, PR_PENSJA IN FLOAT, PR_PRZELOZONY IN NUMBER, PR_ODDZIAL IN NUMBER, PRAC_ID IN NUMBER) AS tmpPensja FLOAT := 0; tmpPrzel NUMBER := 0; BEGIN select przelozony into tmpPrzel from pracownik where id = PRAC_ID; IF(tmpPrzel IS NOT NULL) THEN select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = tmpPrzel; IF(tmpPensja < 1150) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 1000 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja - 150 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; (4) END IF; END IF; IF(PR_PRZELOZONY > 0) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = PR_PRZELOZONY, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE id = PRAC_ID; (2) select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = PR_PRZELOZONY; IF(tmpPensja > 4850) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 5000 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja + 150 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; (1) END IF; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = NULL, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE ID = PRAC_ID; (3) END IF; END; where przelozony and pensja are columns in pracownik table. And I have problem that when running procedure with parameters that provide that line marked with "(1)" (there is the same problem with line marked with "(4)") should be executed that update statement don't have any effect. What's more statements in lines marked with "(2)" and "(3)" works fine. I have no ideas how to fix it. Thank you in advance for your help.

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• Old dll.config problem !

  - by user313421

  Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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• How to run setInterval() on multiple canvases simultaneously?

  - by Alex

  I have a page which has several <canvas> elements. I am passing the canvas ID and an array of data to a function which then grabs the canvas info and passes the data onto a draw() function which in turn processes the given data and draws the results onto the canvas. So far, so good. Example data arrays; $(function() { setup($("#canvas-1"), [[110,110,100], [180,180,50], [220,280,80]]); setup($("#canvas-2"), [[110,110,100], [180,180,50], [220,280,80]]); }); setup function; function setup(canvas, data) { ctx = canvas[0].getContext('2d'); var i = data.length; var dimensions = { w : canvas.innerWidth(), h : canvas.innerHeight() }; draw(dimensions, data, i); } This works perfectly. draw() runs and each canvas is populated. However - I need to animate the canvas. As soon as I replace line 8 of the above example; draw(dimensions, data, i); with setInterval( function() { draw(dimensions, data, i); }, 33 ); It stops working and only draws the last canvas (with the others remaining blank). I'm new to both javascript and canvas so sorry if this is an obvious one, still feeling my way around. Guidance in the right direction much appreciated! Thanks.

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• Generate syntax tree for simple math operations

  - by M28

  I am trying to generate a syntax tree, for a given string with simple math operators (+, -, *, /, and parenthesis). Given the string "1 + 2 * 3": It should return an array like this: ["+", [1, ["*", [2,3] ] ] ] I made a function to transform "1 + 2 * 3" in [1,"+",2,"*",3]. The problem is: I have no idea to give priority to certain operations. My code is: function isNumber(ch){ switch (ch) { case '0': case '1': case '2': case '3': case '4': case '5': case '6': case '7': case '8': case '9': case '.': return true; break; default: return false; break; } } function generateSyntaxTree(text){ if (typeof text != 'string') return []; var code = text.replace(new RegExp("[ \t\r\n\v\f]", "gm"), ""); var codeArray = []; var syntaxTree = []; // Put it in its on scope (function(){ var lastPos = 0; var wasNum = false; for (var i = 0; i < code.length; i++) { var cChar = code[i]; if (isNumber(cChar)) { if (!wasNum) { if (i != 0) { codeArray.push(code.slice(lastPos, i)); } lastPos = i; wasNum = true; } } else { if (wasNum) { var n = Number(code.slice(lastPos, i)); if (isNaN(n)) { throw new Error("Invalid Number"); return []; } else { codeArray.push(n); } wasNum = false; lastPos = i; } } } if (wasNum) { var n = Number(code.slice(lastPos, code.length)); if (isNaN(n)) { throw new Error("Invalid Number"); return []; } else { codeArray.push(n); } } })(); // At this moment, codeArray = [1,"+",2,"*",3] return syntaxTree; } alert('Returned: ' + generateSyntaxTree("1 + 2 * 3"));

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• DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

  - by Thomas

  I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

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• problems with async jquery and loops

  - by Seth Vargo

  I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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• performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

  - by oldbeamer

  Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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• jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

  - by meosoft

  Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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• jQuery click event on image only fires once

  - by stephenreece@

  I created a view of thumbnails. When the user clicks, I want the real image to pop-up in a dialog. That works the first time, but once the jQuery 'click' fires on an thumbnail it never fires again unless I reload the entire page. I've tried rebinding the click events on the dialog close that that does not help. Here is my code: function LoadGalleryView() { $('img.gallery').each(function(){ BindImage($(this)); }); } function BindImage(image) { var src= image.attr('src'); var id= image.attr('id'); var popurl = src.replace("thumbs/", ""); image.hover(function(){ image.attr('style', 'height: 100%; width: 100%;'); }, function(){ image.removeAttr('style'); }); $('#'+id).live('click', function() { PopUpImage(popurl); }); } function CheckImage(img,html) { if ( img.complete ) { $('#galleryProgress').html(''); var imgwidth = img.width+35; var imgheight = img.height+65; $('<div id="viewImage" title="View"></div>').html(html).dialog( { bgiframe: true, autoOpen: true, modal: true, width: imgwidth, height: imgheight, position: 'center', closeOnEscape: true }); } else { $('#galleryProgress').html('<img src="images/ajax-loader.gif" /><br /><br />'); setTimeout(function(){CheckImage(img,html);},10); } } function PopUpImage(url) { var html = '<img src="'+url+'" />'; var img = new Image(); img.src = url; if ( ! img.complete ) { setTimeout(function(){CheckImage(img,html);},10); } } PopUpImage() only executes the first time an image is clicked and I cannot figure out how to rebind.

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• What does it mean to double license?

  - by Adrian Panasiuk

  What does it mean to double license code? I can't just put both licenses in the source files. That would mean that I mandate users to follow the rules of both of them, but the licenses will probably be contradictory (otherwise there'd be no reason to double license). I guess this is something like in cryptographic chaining, cipher = crypt_2(crypt_1(clear)) (generally) means, that cipher is neither the output of crypt_2 on clear nor the output of crypt_1 on clear. It's the output of the composition. Likewise, in double-licensing, in reality my code has one license, it's just that this new license says please follow all of the rules of license1, or all of the rules of license2, and you are hereby granted the right to redistribute this application under this "double" license, license1 or license2, or any license under which license1 or license2 allow you to redistribute this software, in which case you shall replace the relevant licensing information in this application with that of the new license. (Does this mean that before someone may use the app under license1, he has to perform the operation of redistributing to self? How would he document the fact that he did that operation?) Am I correct. What LICENSE file and what text to put in the source files would I need if I wanted to double license on, for the sake of example, Apachev2 and GPLv3 ?

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• Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

  - by OUHSD Webmaster

  Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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• How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

  - by todd412

  Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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• Writing csv file in asp.net

  - by Keith

  Hello, I'm trying to export data to a csv file, as there are chinese characters in the data i had to use unicode.. but after adding the preamble for unicode, the commas are not recognized as delimiters and all data are now written to the first column. I'm not sure what is wrong. Below is my code which i wrote in a .ashx file. DataView priceQuery = (DataView)context.Session["priceQuery"]; String fundName = priceQuery.Table.Rows[0][0].ToString().Trim().Replace(' ', '_'); context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.ClearContent(); context.Response.ClearHeaders(); context.Response.ContentType = "text/csv"; context.Response.ContentEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.Unicode; context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + fundName + ".csv"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode.GetPreamble()); String output = fundName + "\n"; output += "Price, Date" + "\n"; foreach (DataRow row in priceQuery.Table.Rows) { string price = row[2].ToString(); string date = ((DateTime)row[1]).ToString("dd-MMM-yy"); output += price + "," + date + "\n"; } context.Response.Write(output);

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• jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

  - by Angie Dubis

  I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

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• Regular expression to match HTML table row ( <tr> ) NOT containing a specific value

  - by user1821136

  I'm using Notepad++ to clean up a long and messy HTML table. I'm trying to use regular expressions even if I'm a total noob. :) I need to remove all the table rows that doesn't contain a specific value (may I call that substring?). After having all the file contents unwrapped, I've been able to use the following regular expression to select, one by one, every table row with all its contents: <tr>.+?</tr> How can I improve the regular expression in order to select and replace only table rows containing, somewhere inside a part of them, that defined substring? I don't know if this does matter but the structure of every table row is the following (I've put there every HTML tag, the dots stand for standard content/values) <tr> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> <td> <a sfref="..." href="...">!! SUBSTRING I HAVE TO MATCH HERE !!</a> </td> <td> <img /> </td> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> <td> ... </td> </tr> Thanks in advance for your help!

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• Set .aspx page title to that of an Eval

  - by user1860529

  I am trying to use an <%# Eval("name") %> to be the title of my page. I can't seem to figure out any solutions online. I have tried the other StackOverflow question but that did now work either. The page is a bio.aspx and on the site it is displayed as bio.aspx?id=123 so the page title needs to vary depending on the ID. I figured I could just use the Eval("name") but no luck yet. I currently am using JavaScript: window.onload = function() { document.title = '<%# Eval("name") %> | Title Line'; } This works, but it still leaves the title tags empty, and it's kind of spammy. Here is the codebehind: using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; public partial class DoctorBio : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Page.Title = "Your Page Title"; HtmlMeta metaDescription = new HtmlMeta(); metaDescription.Name = "description"; metaDescription.Content = "brief description"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaDescription); HtmlMeta metaKeywords = new HtmlMeta(); metaKeywords.Name = "keywords"; metaKeywords.Content = "keywords, keywords"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaKeywords); } protected void SetPageTitle(object title) { this.Title = title.ToString(); } protected string ReplaceLineBreaks(object text) { string newText = text as string; if (newText == null) { return string.Empty; } return newText.Replace("\r\n", "<br />"); } }

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• Word wrap in multiline textbox after 35 characters

  - by Kanavi

  <asp:TextBox CssClass="txt" ID="TextBox1" runat="server" onkeyup="CountChars(this);" Rows="20" Columns="35" TextMode="MultiLine" Wrap="true"> </asp:TextBox> I need to implement word-wrapping in a multi-line textbox. I cannot allow users to write more then 35 chars a line. I am using the following code, which breaks at precisely the specified character on every line, cutting words in half. Can we fix this so that if there's not enough space left for a word on the current line, we move the whole word to the next line? function CountChars(ID) { var IntermediateText = ''; var FinalText = ''; var SubText = ''; var text = document.getElementById(ID.id).value; var lines = text.split("\n"); for (var i = 0; i < lines.length; i++) { IntermediateText = lines[i]; if (IntermediateText.length <= 50) { if (lines.length - 1 == i) FinalText += IntermediateText; else FinalText += IntermediateText + "\n"; } else { while (IntermediateText.length > 50) { SubText = IntermediateText.substring(0, 50); FinalText += SubText + "\n"; IntermediateText = IntermediateText.replace(SubText, ''); } if (IntermediateText != '') { if (lines.length - 1 == i) FinalText += IntermediateText; else FinalText += IntermediateText + "\n"; } } } document.getElementById(ID.id).value = FinalText; $('#' + ID.id).scrollTop($('#' + ID.id)[0].scrollHeight); } Edit - 1 I have to show total max 35 characters in line without specific word break and need to keep margin of two characters from the right. Again, the restriction should be for 35 characters but need space for total 37 (Just for the Visibility issue.)

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• Wrapper Classes for Backward compatibility in Java

  - by Casebash

  There is an interesting article here on maintaing backwards compatibility for Java. In the wrapper class section, I can't actually understand what the wrapper class accomplishes. In the following code from MyApp, WrapNewClass.checkAvailable() could be replaced by Class.forName("NewClass"). static { try { WrapNewClass.checkAvailable(); mNewClassAvailable = true; } catch (Throwable ex) { mNewClassAvailable = false; } } Consider when NewClass is unavailable. In the code where we use the wrapper (see below), all we have done is replace a class that doesn't exist, with one that exists, but which can't be compiled as it uses a class that doesn't exist. public void diddle() { if (mNewClassAvailable) { WrapNewClass.setGlobalDiv(4); WrapNewClass wnc = new WrapNewClass(40); System.out.println("newer API is available - " + wnc.doStuff(10)); }else { System.out.println("newer API not available"); } } Can anyone explain why this makes a difference? I assume it has something to do with how Java compiles code - which I don't know much about.

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