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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Free solution for automatic updates with .NET/C#?

    - by a2h
    Yes, from searching I can see this has been asked time and time again. Here's a backstory. I'm an individual hobbyist developer with zero budget. A program I've been developing has been in need of constant bugfixes, and me and users are getting tired of having to manually update. Me, because my current solution of Manually FTP to my website Update a file "newest.txt" with the newest version Update index.html with a link to the newest version Hope for people to see the "there's an update" message Have them manually download the update sucks, and whenever I screw up an update, I get pitchforks. Users, because, well, "Are you ever going to implement auto-update?" "Will there ever be an auto-update feature?" Over the past few hours I have looked into: http://windowsclient.net/articles/appupdater.aspx - I can't comprehend the documentation http://www.codeproject.com/KB/vb/Auto_Update_Revisited.aspx - Doesn't appear to support anything other than working with files that aren't in use http://wyday.com/wyupdate/ - wyBuild isn't free, and the file specification is simply too complex. Maybe if I was under a company paying me I could spend the time, but then I may as well pay for wyBuild. http://www.kineticjump.com/update/default.aspx - Ditto. ClickOnce - Workarounds for implementing launching on startup are massive, horrendous and not worth it for such a simple feature. Publishing is a pain; manual FTP and replace of all files is required for servers without FrontPage Extensions. I'm pretty much ready to throw in the towel right now and strangle myself. And then I think about Sparkle...

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  • Showing latex commands in text string using mathjax

    - by robezy
    I have a text string, for ex. 'A vehicle travels from A to B, distance {$d} km at constant speed. While returning back to A on same path it {$variation} its speed by {$v} km/hr. The total time of journey is {$t} hours. Find the original speed of vehicle.' The variables in the curly brackets are to be replaced by appropriate latex equation. I'm using php's preg_replace to replace the variables with latex commands. Unfortunately, my latex commands are coming as it is. It is not processed by mathjax. For ex, above text becomes A vehicle travels from A to B, distance 1 km at constant speed. While returning back to A on same path it increased its speed by (\frac{3}{2}) km/hr. The total time of journey is 1 hours. Find the original speed of vehicle. The frac is show as it is. What is wrong here? Please ask me if you need any more info. Thanks

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  • How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

    - by robert
    Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

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  • Word wrap in multiline textbox after 35 characters

    - by Kanavi
    <asp:TextBox CssClass="txt" ID="TextBox1" runat="server" onkeyup="CountChars(this);" Rows="20" Columns="35" TextMode="MultiLine" Wrap="true"> </asp:TextBox> I need to implement word-wrapping in a multi-line textbox. I cannot allow users to write more then 35 chars a line. I am using the following code, which breaks at precisely the specified character on every line, cutting words in half. Can we fix this so that if there's not enough space left for a word on the current line, we move the whole word to the next line? function CountChars(ID) { var IntermediateText = ''; var FinalText = ''; var SubText = ''; var text = document.getElementById(ID.id).value; var lines = text.split("\n"); for (var i = 0; i < lines.length; i++) { IntermediateText = lines[i]; if (IntermediateText.length <= 50) { if (lines.length - 1 == i) FinalText += IntermediateText; else FinalText += IntermediateText + "\n"; } else { while (IntermediateText.length > 50) { SubText = IntermediateText.substring(0, 50); FinalText += SubText + "\n"; IntermediateText = IntermediateText.replace(SubText, ''); } if (IntermediateText != '') { if (lines.length - 1 == i) FinalText += IntermediateText; else FinalText += IntermediateText + "\n"; } } } document.getElementById(ID.id).value = FinalText; $('#' + ID.id).scrollTop($('#' + ID.id)[0].scrollHeight); } Edit - 1 I have to show total max 35 characters in line without specific word break and need to keep margin of two characters from the right. Again, the restriction should be for 35 characters but need space for total 37 (Just for the Visibility issue.)

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • radio input replacement using jquery

    - by altvali
    It may seem a bit odd to ask this since there are several solutions out there but the fact is that all of them look pretty and none of what i've seem save the input value for form submission the right way. I'm looking for something that will replace all radio inputs with divs that get special classes when they are hovered or clicked, and an input type hidden for every group of radio inputs with the same name, hidden input that will be updated with the value corresponding to the div the user clicks on. Long sentence, i know. Here's what i've come up with: $('input:radio').each(function(){ if (this.style.display!='none') { var inputName = $(this).attr('name'); var inputValue = $(this).attr('value'); var isChecked = $(this).attr('checked'); if (!$('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').length) // if the hidden input wasn't already created $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div><input type="hidden" name="'+inputName+'" value="'+inputValue+'" />'); else{ $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div>'); if (isChecked) $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); } //this bind doesn't work $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).click(function(){ if($('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').val()!=inputValue){ $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); $('div[id*='+inputName+'].inputRadioButton').removeClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); } if (!$("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).hasClass('inputRadioButtonSelected')) $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).addClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); }); } }); Please tell me how to fix it. Thank you. Edit I've found the reason. It should normally work but some of my radio inputs generated by an e-commerce software had brackets in them (e.g. id[12] ) and jQuery was parsing that. The fix is adding var inputButton = document.getElementById(inputName+"X"+inputValue); before the bind and replacing $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue) with $(inputButton).

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  • Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

    - by Carl Manaster
    I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Problem with UPDATE statement in stored-procedure in Oracle Database

    - by MKP
    Hello, I have stored-procedure in Oracle database like this: create or replace PROCEDURE EDYTUJ_PRACOWNIKA (PR_IMIE IN VARCHAR2, PR_NAZWISKO IN VARCHAR2, PR_PENSJA IN FLOAT, PR_PRZELOZONY IN NUMBER, PR_ODDZIAL IN NUMBER, PRAC_ID IN NUMBER) AS tmpPensja FLOAT := 0; tmpPrzel NUMBER := 0; BEGIN select przelozony into tmpPrzel from pracownik where id = PRAC_ID; IF(tmpPrzel IS NOT NULL) THEN select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = tmpPrzel; IF(tmpPensja < 1150) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 1000 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja - 150 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; (4) END IF; END IF; IF(PR_PRZELOZONY > 0) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = PR_PRZELOZONY, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE id = PRAC_ID; (2) select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = PR_PRZELOZONY; IF(tmpPensja > 4850) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 5000 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja + 150 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; (1) END IF; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = NULL, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE ID = PRAC_ID; (3) END IF; END; where przelozony and pensja are columns in pracownik table. And I have problem that when running procedure with parameters that provide that line marked with "(1)" (there is the same problem with line marked with "(4)") should be executed that update statement don't have any effect. What's more statements in lines marked with "(2)" and "(3)" works fine. I have no ideas how to fix it. Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

    - by Thomas
    I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

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  • Advance: Parsing XML into another XML page using only javascript or jquery; Can't use PhP, Java or MySQL

    - by UrBestFriend
    Current site: http://cardwall.tk/ Example of intended outcome: http://www.shockwave.com/downloadWall.jsp I have an embeded flash object that uses XML/RSS (Picasa) to feed itself pictures. Now I created my own XML/RSS feed so that I can add additional XML tags and values. Now here's my big problem: enabling search. Since I'm not relying on Picasa's API anymore to return custom RSS/XML for the user's search, how can I create xml from another xml based on the user's search queries using only JavaScript and Jquery? Here is the current code: <script type="text/javascript"> var flashvars = { feed : "http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml", backgroundColor : "#FFFFFF", metadataFont : "Arial", wmode : "opaque", iFrameScrolling: "no", numRows : "3", }; var params = { allowFullScreen: "true", allowscriptaccess : "always", wmode: "opaque" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://apps.cooliris.com/embed/cooliris.swf", "gamewall", "810", "410", "9.0.0", "", flashvars, params); $(document).ready(function() { $("#cooliris input").keydown(function(e) { if(e.keyCode == 13) { $("#cooliris a#searchCooliris").click(); return false; } }); doCoolIrisSearch = function() { cooliris.embed.setFeedContents( '** JAVA STRING OF PARSED RSS/XML based on http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml and USER'S SEARCH INPUT** ' ) }); <form id="searchForm" name="searchForm" class="shockwave"> <input type="text" name="coolIrisSearch" id="coolIrisSearch" value="Search..." class="field text short" onfocus="this.value='';" /> <a id="searchCooliris" href="#" onclick="doCoolIrisSearch();return false;" class="clearLink">Search Cooliris</a> </form> <div id="gamewall"></div> So basically, I want to replace cooliris.embed.setFeedContents's value with a Javastring based on the parsed RSS/XML and user search input. Any code or ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Possible to write an Extension Method for ASP.NET's Html.ActionLink() method?

    - by Pretzel
    Right now, I'm trying to work around an IE6/7 bug which requires the wrapping of the </a closing tag with this IE specific comment to make some drop-down menu work: <!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> Unfortunately, I cannot inject this directly into my View page code like this: <%= Html.ActionLink("LinkName<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->","Action","Controller") %> As Html.ActionLink will do the safe thing and filter out the comment to prevent a Javascript injection attack. Ok, cool. I'm fine with that. Good design decision. What I'd like to do is write an Extension Method to this, but the process is eluding me as I haven't done this before. I thought this would work, but Intellisense doesn't seem to be picking up this Extension method that I've written. public static class MyLinkExtensions { public static string ActionLinkIE(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName) { return LinkExtensions.ActionLink(htmlHelper, linkText, actionName, controllerName). Replace(@"</a>", @"<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->"); } } Any suggestions?

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  • nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • How to run setInterval() on multiple canvases simultaneously?

    - by Alex
    I have a page which has several <canvas> elements. I am passing the canvas ID and an array of data to a function which then grabs the canvas info and passes the data onto a draw() function which in turn processes the given data and draws the results onto the canvas. So far, so good. Example data arrays; $(function() { setup($("#canvas-1"), [[110,110,100], [180,180,50], [220,280,80]]); setup($("#canvas-2"), [[110,110,100], [180,180,50], [220,280,80]]); }); setup function; function setup(canvas, data) { ctx = canvas[0].getContext('2d'); var i = data.length; var dimensions = { w : canvas.innerWidth(), h : canvas.innerHeight() }; draw(dimensions, data, i); } This works perfectly. draw() runs and each canvas is populated. However - I need to animate the canvas. As soon as I replace line 8 of the above example; draw(dimensions, data, i); with setInterval( function() { draw(dimensions, data, i); }, 33 ); It stops working and only draws the last canvas (with the others remaining blank). I'm new to both javascript and canvas so sorry if this is an obvious one, still feeling my way around. Guidance in the right direction much appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Syntax Error? When parsing XML value

    - by Ace Munim
    I don't know if I'm having a syntax error but the compiler is giving me TypeError: 'undefined' is not an object (evaluating 'xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("icon")[i].childNodes') Its me giving me this problem when im parsing the XML from my server, my actual javascript code is like this var xmlDoc = Obj.responseXML; var count = 0; if(xmlDoc){ while(count <= xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("item").length){ document.getElementById("flow").innerHTML += "<div class='item'><img class='content' src='" + xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("icon")[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue.replace(/\s+$/g,' ') +"' /></div>"; count++; } }else{ alert("Unable to parse!"); } and my XML goes like this. <feed> <item> <title>Given Title</title> <icon> http://i178.photobucket.com/albums/w255/ace003_album/Logo-ETC-RGB-e1353503652739.jpg </icon> </item> <item>...</item> <item>...</item> <item>...</item> <item>...</item> <item>...</item> <item>...</item> </feed> i just want to parse the image link and to show it.

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  • How to remove a specific category on a selected mail in Outlook 2003 with Macro?

    - by szekelya
    Hi, I am trying to transform my Outlook2003 into the closest thing to gmail. I started to use categories, which are pretty similar to labels in gmail. I can assign categories automatically with rules, and I can add categories manually. I have also created "search folders", that show all mails with a given category, if they are not in the Deleted Items or Sent Items folders. This part is almost like the Label views in gmail. Two things are missing basically, which should be done with macros (VBA to be precise) which I'm totally inexperienced with. So hence my questions: -Can someone show me a macro to remove the category "Inbox"? That would act exactly like the Archive button in gmail. In fact I want to assign this macro to a toolbar button and call it Archive. I have a rule that adds the Inbox category to all incoming mail. As I said, I have a search folder displaying all mails categorized as Inbox, and I also have an All Mail search folder, that displays all messages regardless whether they have the Inbox category. Exactly like gmail, just the easy archiving is missing. -Can someone show me a macro that would delete the selected mail/mails and also would remove the Inbox category before deletion? I would replace the default delete button with this macro. (Somewhat less important, as in my search folders I can filter messages that are physically placed in the Deleted Items folder, but it would be more elegant not to have mails categorized as Inbox in the trash. Many thanks in advance, szekelya

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  • Dice Emulation - ImageView

    - by Michelle Harris
    I am trying to emulate dice using ImageView. When I click the button, nothing seems to happen. I have hard coded this example to replace the image with imageView4 for debugging purposes (I was making sure the random wasn't fail). Can anyone point out what I am doing wrong? I am new to Java, Eclipse and Android so I'm sure I've probably made more than one mistake. Java: import java.util.Random; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.ImageView; import android.widget.Spinner; import android.widget.Toast; public class Yahtzee4Activity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Spinner s = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.spinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.score_types, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); s.setAdapter(adapter); } public void onMyButtonClick(View view) { ImageView imageView1 = new ImageView(this); Random rand = new Random(); int rndInt = 4; //rand.nextInt(6) + 1; // n = the number of images, that start at index 1 String imgName = "die" + rndInt; int id = getResources().getIdentifier(imgName, "drawable", getPackageName()); imageView1.setImageResource(id); } } XML for the button: <Button android:id="@+id/button_roll" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/roll" android:onClick="onMyButtonClick" />

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • What does it mean to double license?

    - by Adrian Panasiuk
    What does it mean to double license code? I can't just put both licenses in the source files. That would mean that I mandate users to follow the rules of both of them, but the licenses will probably be contradictory (otherwise there'd be no reason to double license). I guess this is something like in cryptographic chaining, cipher = crypt_2(crypt_1(clear)) (generally) means, that cipher is neither the output of crypt_2 on clear nor the output of crypt_1 on clear. It's the output of the composition. Likewise, in double-licensing, in reality my code has one license, it's just that this new license says please follow all of the rules of license1, or all of the rules of license2, and you are hereby granted the right to redistribute this application under this "double" license, license1 or license2, or any license under which license1 or license2 allow you to redistribute this software, in which case you shall replace the relevant licensing information in this application with that of the new license. (Does this mean that before someone may use the app under license1, he has to perform the operation of redistributing to self? How would he document the fact that he did that operation?) Am I correct. What LICENSE file and what text to put in the source files would I need if I wanted to double license on, for the sake of example, Apachev2 and GPLv3 ?

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  • performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

    - by oldbeamer
    Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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  • Is there any way to filter certain things in pages served by IIS?

    - by Ruslan
    Hello, This is my first time posting here so please keep that in mind... I'll try to be short and get right to defining the problem. We have an ASP.NET 2 application (eCommerce package) running on IIS (Windows Server 2003). The main site's page(s) are using plain HTTP (no SSL), but the whole checkout process and the shopping cart page is using SSL (HTTPS). Now, the problem is that the site's header is located in a template file, and inside it it has a plain HTML 'img' tag calling an image with the "http://" portion hard-coded into it... This header appears on absolutely every page (including the https pages), and due to its insecure image tag, a warning box pops up in IE on every stage of the checkout process... Now, the problem: The live application cannot be touched in any way (no changes can be made to the template (so simply changing "http://" to "//" is not an option), IIS cannot be restarted, and the website/app pool cannot be restarted). Is there any way in the world (maybe plugin for IIS or a setting somewhere) that I can filter the pages right before they are served to replace the '<img src="http://example.com/image.jpg">' with '<img src="//example.com/image.jpg">' in the final HTML? Possibly via a regular expression or something? Thanks to everybody in advance.

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  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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  • Replacement for Hamachi for SVN access

    - by Piers
    My company has been using Hamachi to access our SVN repository for a number of years. We are a small yet widely distributed development team with each programmer in a different country working from home. The server is hosted by a non-techie in our central office. Hamachi is useful here since it has a GUI and supports remote management. This system worked well for a while, but recently I have moved to a country with poor internet speeds. Hamachi will no longer connect 99% of the time - instead I get a "Probing..." message that doesn't resolve. It's certain to be a latency issue, as the same laptop will connect without problems when I cross the border and connect using a different ISP with better speeds. So I really need to replace Hamachi with some other VPN/protocol that handles latency better. The techie managing the repository is not comfortable installing and configuring Apache or IIS, so it looks like HTTP is out. I tried to convince my boss to go for a web hosting company, but he doesn't trust a 3rd party with our source. Any other recommended options / experiences out there for accessing our SVN repos that would be as simple as Hamachi for setup; but be more tolerant of network latency issues?

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