Search Results

Search found 7738 results on 310 pages for 'calling convention'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 25/310 | < Previous Page | 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32  | Next Page >

  • Calling Class from another File ASP.NET VB.NET

    - by davemackey
    Lets say I have a class like this in class1.vb: Public Class my_class Public Sub my_sub() Dim myvar as String myvar = 10 Session("myvar") = myvar End Sub End Class Then I have a ASP.NET page with a code-behind file, default.aspx and default.aspx.vb and I want to call my_class. I'm doing the following, but it doesn't work: Imports my_app.my_class Partial Public Class _default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender as Object, ByVal e as System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load my_class() End Sub End Class I get a "Reference to a non-shared member requires an object reference"

    Read the article

  • Calling and leaving gnuplot prompt and png export

    - by ldigas
    a) I have a data file with, well ... data, and a .gnu file with gnuplot commands. If I call gnuplot like this: gnuplot -p commands_file.gnu I'll get the graph on screen and when I close it, gnuplot will be in it's own prompt (gnuplot_). How can I make it just show the graph, and put me back on cmd prompt after I close it ? b) How to "export" that graph to png or something insertable in Word ? I know there are a dozen tutorials for this on the 'net, but I'm having trouble just finding a simple example.

    Read the article

  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

    Read the article

  • Calling C function from DTrace scripts

    - by dmeister
    DTrace is impressive, powerful tracing system originally from Solaris, but it is ported to FreeBSD and Mac OSX. DTrace uses a high-level language called D not unlike AWK or C. Here is an example: io:::start /pid == $1/ { printf("file %s offset %d size %d block %llu\n", args[2]->fi_pathname, args[2]->fi_offset, args[0]->b_bcount, args[0]->b_blkno); } Using the command line sudo dtrace -q -s <name>.d <pid> all IOs originated from that process are logged. My question is if and how it is possible to call custom C functions from a DTrace script to do advanced operations with that tracing data during the tracing itself.

    Read the article

  • Attribute class not calling constructor

    - by Coppermill
    I have created an Attribute, call MyAttribute, which is performing some security and for some reason the Constructor is not being fired, any reason why? public class Driver { // Entry point of the program public static void Main(string[] Args) { Console.WriteLine(SayHello1("Hello to Me 1")); Console.WriteLine(SayHello2("Hello to Me 2")); Console.ReadLine(); } [MyAttribute("hello")] public static string SayHello1(string str) { return str; } [MyAttribute("Wrong Key, should fail")] public static string SayHello2(string str) { return str; } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method)] public class MyAttribute : Attribute { public MyAttribute(string VRegKey) { if (VRegKey == "hello") { Console.WriteLine("Aha! You're Registered"); } else { throw new Exception("Oho! You're not Registered"); }; } }

    Read the article

  • Reducing Code Repetition: Calling functions with slightly different signatures

    - by Brian
    Suppose I have two functions which look like this: public static void myFunction1(int a, int b, int c, string d) { //dostuff someoneelsesfunction(c,d); //dostuff2 } public static void myFunction2(int a, int b, int c, Stream d) { //dostuff someoneelsesfunction(c,d); //dostuff2 } What would be a good way to avoid repeated dostuff? Ideas I've thought of, but don't like: I could make d an object and cast at runtype based on type, but this strikes me as not being ideal; it removes a type check which was previously happening at compile time. I could also write a private helper class that takes an object and write both signatures as public functions. I could replace dostuff and dostuff2 with delegates or function calls or something.

    Read the article

  • Calling unmanaged code from within C#

    - by Charles Gargent
    I am trying to use a dll in my c# program but I just cant seem to get it to work. I have made a test app shown below. The return value is 0, however it does not actually do what it is supposed to do. Whereas the following command does work: rundll32 cmproxy.dll,SetProxy /source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename roxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /Profile "C:\Documents and ettings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp" Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Net; using WUApiLib; namespace nac { class Program { [DllImport("cmproxy.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] static extern int SetProxy(string cmdLine); static void Main(string[] args) { string cmdLine = @"/source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename proxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /Profile ""C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp"""; Console.WriteLine(SetProxy(cmdLine)); } } } Here is the contents of the dumpbin /exports command File Type: DLL Section contains the following exports for cmproxy.dll 00000000 characteristics 3E7FEF8C time date stamp Tue Mar 25 05:56:28 2003 0.00 version 1 ordinal base 1 number of functions 1 number of names ordinal hint RVA name 1 0 00001B68 SetProxy Summary 1000 .data 1000 .reloc 1000 .rsrc 2000 .text When this works it sets the proxy server for a VPN connection.

    Read the article

  • Invalid argument when calling linux splice()

    - by benny wallace
    Hi I wanted to try out the splice syscall. I have this function - it should copy content of one file to another: static void test_splice( int in, int out ) { int i = 0, rcvd = 0; int filedes[2]; off_t off = 0; if ( pipe( filedes ) < 0 ) { perror( "Kicha pipe" ); exit( EXIT_FAILURE ); } for ( i = 0; i < NUMLOOPS; ++i ) { if ( ( rcvd = splice( in, NULL, filedes[1], NULL, BUFSIZE, SPLICE_F_MORE | SPLICE_F_MOVE ) ) < 0 ) { perror( "splice" ); exit( EXIT_FAILURE ); } if ( splice( filedes[0], NULL, out, NULL, rcvd, SPLICE_F_MORE | SPLICE_F_MOVE ) < 0 ) { perror( "splice" ); exit( EXIT_FAILURE ); } } } The second call to splice in first iteration returns EINVAL ( invalid argument from perror ) everytime - what could be the reason?

    Read the article

  • In C: sending func pointers, calling the func with it, playing with EIP, jum_buf and longjmp

    - by Yonatan
    Hello Internet ! I need to make sure i understand some basic stuff first: 1. how do i pass function A as a parameter to function B? 2. how do i call function A from inside B ? now for the big whammy: I'm trying to do something along the lines of this: jmp_buf buf; buf.__jmpbuf[JB_PC] = functionA; longjmp(buf,10); meaning that i want to use longjmp in order to go to a function. how should i do it ? thank you very much internet people ! Yonatan

    Read the article

  • Function returning dictionary, not seen by calling function

    - by twiga
    Hi There, I have an interesting problem, which is a function that returns a Dictionary<String,HashSet<String>>. The function converts some primitive structs to a Dictionary Class. The function is called as follows: Dictionary<String, HashSet<String>> Myset = new Dictionary<String,HashSet<String>>(); Myset = CacheConverter.MakeDictionary(_myList); Upon execution of the two lines above, Myset is non-existent to the debugger. Adding a watch results in: "The name 'Myset' does not exist in the current context" public Dictionary<String, HashSet<String>> MakeDictionary(LightWeightFetchListCollection _FetchList) { Dictionary<String, HashSet<String>> _temp = new Dictionary<String, HashSet<String>>(); // populate the Dictionary // return return _temp; } The Dictionary _temp is correctly populated by the called function and _temp contains all the expected values. The problem seems to be with the dictionary not being returned at all. Examples I could find on the web of functions returning primitive Dictionary<string,string> work as expected.

    Read the article

  • 'SSL not supported' when calling https web service in Ruby

    - by shaleo
    I am trying to run the following code to call a webservice from ruby but get an error 'SSL not supported'. I have httpclient 2.1.5.2 installed. require 'soap/wsdlDriver' def validate_certificate(is_ok, ctx) cert = ctx.current_cert unless (cert.subject.to_s == cert.issuer.to_s) #check the server certificate only is_ok &&= File.open(file_name).read == ctx.current_cert.to_pem end is_ok end def test_webservice wsdl = "https://.../service.wsdl" driver = SOAP::WSDLDriverFactory.new(wsdl).create_rpc_driver driver.options['protocol.http.ssl_config.verify_callback'] = method(:validate_certificate) driver.method(params) end

    Read the article

  • Calling Python from Ruby

    - by Yktula
    Would it be possible to integrate Python and Ruby with some degree of transparency? I've looked at http://www.goto.info.waseda.ac.jp/~fukusima/ruby/python/doc/ , but it seems rather outdated. Perhaps this is not an appropriate approach, but would it be possible to generate a Ruby interface for Python's C API?

    Read the article

  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

    Read the article

  • Difference between piping a file to sh and calling a shell file

    - by Peter Coulton
    This is what was trying to do: $ wget -qO- www.example.com/script.sh | sh which quietly downloads the script and prints it to stdout which is then piped to sh. This unfortunately doesn't quite work, failing to wait for user input a various points, aswell as a few syntax errors. This is what actually works: $ wget -qOscript www.example.com/script.sh && chmod +x ./script && ./script But what's the difference? I'm thinking maybe piping the file doesn't execute the file, but rather executes each line individually, but I'm new to this kind of thing so I don't know.

    Read the article

  • Calling UIGetScreenImage() on manually-spawned thread prints "_NSAutoreleaseNoPool():" message to lo

    - by jtrim
    This is the body of the selector that is specified in NSThread +detachNewThreadSelector:(SEL)aSelector toTarget:(id)aTarget withObject:(id)anArgument NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; while (doIt) { if (doItForSure) { NSLog(@"checking"); doItForSure = NO; (void)gettimeofday(&start, NULL); /* do some stuff */ // the next line prints "_NSAutoreleaseNoPool():" message to the log CGImageRef screenImage = UIGetScreenImage(); /* do some other stuff */ (void)gettimeofday(&end, NULL); elapsed = ((double)(end.tv_sec) + (double)(end.tv_usec) / 1000000) - ((double)(start.tv_sec) + (double)(start.tv_usec) / 1000000); NSLog(@"Time elapsed: %e", elapsed); [pool drain]; } } [pool release]; Even with the autorelease pool present, I get this printed to the log when I call UIGetScreenImage(): 2010-05-03 11:39:04.588 ProjectName[763:5903] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x15a2e0 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Has anyone else seen this with UIGetScreenImage() on a separate thread?

    Read the article

  • Django - calling full_clean() inside of clean() equivalent?

    - by orokusaki
    For transaction purposes, I need all field validations to run before clean() is done. Is this possible? My thinking is this: @transaction.commit_on_success def clean(self): # Some fun stuff here. self.full_clean() # I know this isn't correct, but it illustrates my point. but obviously that's not correct, because it would be recursive. Is there a way to make sure that everything that full_clean() does is done inside clean()?

    Read the article

  • C++ Unlocking a std::mutex before calling std::unique_lock wait

    - by Sant Kadog
    I have a multithreaded application (using std::thread) with a manager (class Tree) that executes some piece of code on different subtrees (embedded struct SubTree) in parallel. The basic idea is that each instance of SubTree has a deque that store objects. If the deque is empty, the thread waits until a new element is inserted in the deque or the termination criteria is reached. One subtree can generate objects and push them in the deque of another subtree. For convenience, all my std::mutex, std::locks and std::variable_condition are stored in a struct called "locks". The class Tree creates some threads that run the following method (first attempt) : void Tree::launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::lock_guard<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem is that "deque_lock" is still locked while the thread is waiting. Hence no object can be added in the deque of the current thread by a concurrent one. So I turned the lock_guard into a unique_lock and managed the lock/unlock manually : void launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::unique_lock<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { deque_lock.unlock() ; // unlock the access to the deque to enable the other threads to add objects // DATA RACE : nothing must happen to the unprotected deque here !!!!!! // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem now, is that there is a data race, and I would like to make sure that the "wait" instruction is performed directly after the "deque_lock.unlock()" one. Would anyone know a way to create such a critical instruction sequence with the standard library ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Calling javascript without any action

    - by ayush
    i have the following lines of html code - <div class="twitters" id="cbd"> <p><a href="javascript:;" onClick="tweeet('<?php echo $c; ?>')">My Tweets!</a></p> </div> Now what i need to do is call the tweet() javascript function without any link being clicked or any button being clicked . i.e this function is called on its own whenever the page is loaded.

    Read the article

  • Calling Sub from EventHandler

    - by madlan
    I'm using the below to update controls from another thread (works great) How would I call a Sub (Named UpdateList)? The UpdateList updates a listview with a list of databases on a selected SQL instance, requires no arguments. Private Sub CompleteEventHandler(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Common.ServerMessageEventArgs) SetControlPropertyValue(Label8, "text", e.ToString) UpdateList() MessageBox.Show("Restore Complete") End Sub Delegate Sub SetControlValueCallback(ByVal oControl As Control, ByVal propName As String, ByVal propValue As Object) Private Sub SetControlPropertyValue(ByVal oControl As Control, ByVal propName As String, ByVal propValue As Object) If (oControl.InvokeRequired) Then Dim d As New SetControlValueCallback(AddressOf SetControlPropertyValue) oControl.Invoke(d, New Object() {oControl, propName, propValue}) Else Dim t As Type = oControl.[GetType]() Dim props As PropertyInfo() = t.GetProperties() For Each p As PropertyInfo In props If p.Name.ToUpper() = propName.ToUpper() Then p.SetValue(oControl, propValue, Nothing) End If Next End If End Sub Based On: http://www.shabdar.org/cross-thread-operation-not-valid.html

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32  | Next Page >