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• I'm searching for a messaging platform (like XMPP) that allows tight integration with a web applicat

  - by loxs

  Hi, At the company I work for, we are building a cluster of web applications for collaboration. Things like accounting, billing, CRM etc. We are using a RESTfull technique: For database we use CouchDB Different applications communicate with one another and with the database via http. Besides, we have a single sign on solution, so that when you login in one application, you are automatically logged to the other. For all apps we use Python (Pylons). Now we need to add instant messaging to the stack. We need to support both web and desktop clients. But just being able to chat is not enough. We need to be able to achieve all of the following (and more similar things). When somebody gets assigned to a task, they must receive a message. I guess this is possible with some system daemon. There must be an option to automatically group people in groups by lots of different properties. For example, there must be groups divided both by geographical location, by company division, by job type (all the programers from different cities and different company divisions must form a group), so that one can send mass messages to a group of choice. Rooms should be automatically created and destroyed. For example when several people visit the same invoice, a room for them must be automatically created (and they must auto-join). And when all leave the invoice, the room must be destroyed. Authentication and authorization from our applications. I can implement this using custom solutions like hookbox http://hookbox.org/docs/intro.html but then I'll have lots of problems in supporting desktop clients. I have no former experience with instant messaging. I've been reading about this lately. I've been looking mostly at things like ejabberd. But it has been a hard time and I can't find whether what I want is possible at all. So I'd be happy if people with experience in this field could help me with some advice, articles, tales of what is possible etc.

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• UITableView: Mixing static and dynamic cells

  - by AlexR

  I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. I designed the static cells in Interface Builder and gave them identifiers related to their section and row: "section0static0", "section0static1", "section1static0" and "section1static1". I named the dynamic cell "section2dynamic". My delegate methods, in which I am trying to return the correct cell identifier (static or dynamic) are as follows: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch (section) { case 0: return 2; break; case 1: return 2; break; case 2: return 0; break; default: break; } return 0; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @""; if (indexPath.section <= 1) CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%istatic%i",indexPath.section,indexPath.row]; else CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return cell; } Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it?

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• Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

  - by magz2010

  Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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• Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

  - by Mason

  I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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• I'm having trouble traversing a newly appended DOM element with jQuery

  - by culov

  I have a form that I want to be used to add entries. Once an entry is added, the original form should be reset to prepare it for the next entry, and the saved form should be duplicated prior to resetting and appended onto a div for 'storedEntries.' This much is working (for the most part), but Im having trouble accessing the newly created form... I need to change the value attribute of the submit button from 'add' to 'edit' so properly communicate what clicking that button should do. heres my form: <div class="newTruck"> <form id="addNewTruck" class='updateschedule' action="javascript:sub(sTime.value, eTime.value, lat.value, lng.value, street.value);"> <b style="color:green;">Opening at: </b> <input id="sTime" name="sTime" title="Opening time" value="Click to set opening time" class="datetimepicker"/> <b style="color:red;">Closing at: </b> <input id="eTime" name= "eTime" title="Closing time" value="Click to set closing time" class="datetimepicker"/> <label for='street'>Address</label> <input type='text' name='street' id='street' class='text' autocomplete='off'/> <input id='submit' class='submit' style="cursor: pointer; cursor: hand;" type="submit" value='Add new stop'/> <div id='suggests' class='auto_complete' style='display:none'></div> <input type='hidden' name='lat' id='lat'/> <input type='hidden' name='lng' id='lng'/> ive tried using a hundred different selectors with jquery to no avail... heres my script as it stands: function cloneAndClear(){ var id = name+now; $j("#addNewTruck").clone(true).attr("id",id).appendTo(".scheduledTrucks"); $j('#'+id).filter('#submit').attr('value', 'Edit'); $j("#addNewTruck")[0].reset(); createPickers(); } the element is properly cloned and inserted into the div, but i cant find a way to access this element... the third line in the script never works. Another problem i am having is that the 'values' in the cloned form revert back to the value in the source of the html rather than what the user inputs. advice on how to solve either of these issues is greatly appreciated!

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• async_write/async_read problems while trying to implement question-answer logic

  - by Max

  Good day. I'm trying to implement a question - answer logic using boost::asio. On the Client I have: void Send_Message() { .... boost::asio::async_write(server_socket, boost::asio::buffer(&Message, sizeof(Message)), boost::bind(&Client::Handle_Write_Message, this, boost::asio::placeholders::error)); .... } void Handle_Write_Message(const boost::system::error_code& error) { .... std::cout << "Message was sent.\n"; .... boost::asio::async_read(server_socket_,boost::asio::buffer(&Message, sizeof(Message)), boost::bind(&Client::Handle_Read_Message, this, boost::asio::placeholders::error)); .... } void Handle_Read_Message(const boost::system::error_code& error) { .... std::cout << "I have a new message.\n"; .... } And on the Server i have the "same - logic" code: void Read_Message() { .... boost::asio::async_read(client_socket, boost::asio::buffer(&Message, sizeof(Message)), boost::bind(&Server::Handle_Read_Message, this, boost::asio::placeholders::error)); .... } void Handle_Read_Message(const boost::system::error_code& error) { .... std::cout << "I have a new message.\n"; .... boost::asio::async_write(client_socket_,boost::asio::buffer(&Message, sizeof(Message)), boost::bind(&Server::Handle_Write_Message, this, boost::asio::placeholders::error)); .... } void Handle_Write_Message(const boost::system::error_code& error) { .... std::cout << "Message was sent back.\n"; .... } Message it's just a structure. And the output on the Client is: Message was sent. Output on the Server is: I have a new message. And that's all. After this both programs are still working but nothing happens. I tried to implement code like: if (!error) { .... } else { // close sockets and etc. } But there are no errors in reading or writing. Both programs are just running normally, but doesn't interact with each other. This code is quite obvious but i can't understand why it's not working. Thanks in advance for any advice.

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• Configuring a html page from an original demo page

  - by Wold

  I forked into rainyday.js through github, an awesome javascript program made by maroslaw at this link: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js. Basically I tried taking his demo page and my own photo city.jpg and changed the applicable fields so that I could run it on my own site, but only the picture loads and the script itself doesn't start to run. I'm pretty new to html and javascript so I'm probably omitting something very simple, but here is the script for the demo code: <script src="rainyday.js"></script> <script> function getURLParameter(name) { return decodeURIComponent((new RegExp('[?|&]' + name + '=' + '([^&;]+?)(&|#|;|$)').exec(location.search)||[,''])[1].replace(/\+/g, '%20'))||null; } function demo() { var image = document.getElementById('background'); image.onload = function () { var engine = null; var preset = getURLParameter('preset') || '1'; if (preset === '1') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.rain([ [1, 2, 8000] ]); engine.rain([ [3, 3, 0.88], [5, 5, 0.9], [6, 2, 1] ], 100); } else if (preset === '2') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.VARIABLE_GRAVITY_ANGLE = Math.PI / 8; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 50); } else if (preset === '3') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.trail = engine.TRAIL_SMUDGE; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 100); } }; image.crossOrigin = 'anonymous'; if (getURLParameter('imgur')) { image.src = 'http://i.imgur.com/' + getURLParameter('imgur') + '.jpg'; } else if (getURLParameter('img')) { image.src = getURLParameter('img') + '.jpg'; } var youtube = getURLParameter('youtube'); if (youtube) { var div = document.getElementById('sound'); var player = document.createElement('iframe'); player.frameborder = '0'; player.height = '1'; player.width = '1'; player.src = 'https://youtube.com/embed/' + youtube + '?autoplay=1&controls=0&showinfo=0&autohide=1&loop=1'; div.appendChild(player); } } </script> This is where I am naming my background and specifying the photo from within the directory. <body onload="demo();"> <div id="sound" style="z-index: -1;"></div> <div id="parent"> <img id='background' alt="background" src="city.jpg" /> </div> </body> The actual code for the whole entire rainyday.js script can be found here: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js/blob/master/rainyday.js Thanks in advance for any help and advice!

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• Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

  - by mtraut

  EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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• Why is this statement treated as a string instead of its result?

  - by reve_etrange

  I am trying to perform some composition-based filtering on a large collection of strings (protein sequences). I wrote a group of three subroutines in order to take care of it, but I'm running into trouble in two ways - one minor, one major. The minor trouble is that when I use List::MoreUtils 'pairwise' I get warnings about using $a and $b only once and them being uninitialized. But I believe I'm calling this method properly (based on CPAN's entry for it and some examples from the web). The major trouble is an error "Can't use string ("17/32") as HASH ref while "strict refs" in use..." It seems like this can only happen if the foreach loop in &comp is giving the hash values as a string instead of evaluating the division operation. I'm sure I've made a rookie mistake, but can't find the answer on the web. The first time I even looked at perl code was last Wednesday... use List::Util; use List::MoreUtils; my @alphabet = ( 'A', 'R', 'N', 'D', 'C', 'Q', 'E', 'G', 'H', 'I', 'L', 'K', 'M', 'F', 'P', 'S', 'T', 'W', 'Y', 'V' ); my $gapchr = '-'; # Takes a sequence and returns letter = occurrence count pairs as hash. sub getcounts { my %counts = (); foreach my $chr (@alphabet) { $counts{$chr} = ( $[0] =~ tr/$chr/$chr/ ); } $counts{'gap'} = ( $[0] =~ tr/$gapchr/$gapchr/ ); return %counts; } # Takes a sequence and returns letter = fractional composition pairs as a hash. sub comp { my %comp = getcounts( $[0] ); foreach my $chr (@alphabet) { $comp{$chr} = $comp{$chr} / ( length( $[0] ) - $comp{'gap'} ); } return %comp; } # Takes two sequences and returns a measure of the composition difference between them, as a scalar. # Originally all on one line but it was unreadable. sub dcomp { my @dcomp = pairwise { $a - $b } @{ values( %{ comp( $[0] ) } ) }, @{ values( %{ comp( $[1] ) } ) }; @dcomp = apply { $_ ** 2 } @dcomp; my $dcomp = sqrt( sum( 0, @dcomp ) ) / 20; return $dcomp; } Much appreciation for any answers or advice!

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• Keeping floated divs inline

  - by Elliott

  I'm having trouble getting my layout working correctly, I have a main div and a sidebar div these are both float: left if the screen size is resized or if its viewed on screen smaller that what I have designed on (1920x1080) then the sidebar div drops below the main content. I tried placing a wrapper around each div, but this has no effect. <div id="header"> [Header] </div> <div id="content"> [Content] </div> <div id="sideBar"> [SideBar] </div> <div id="footer"> [Footer] </div> body { width: 100%; color: #000000; background-color: #000000; margin: 0; padding: 0; } #header { width: 100%; height: 110px; background-color: #336699; color: #FFFFFF; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } #content { float: left; margin-left: 50px; width: 70%; height: 700px; margin-top: 40px; padding: 30px; background-color: #FFFFFF; margin-bottom: 40px; } #sideBar { float: left; margin-left: 50px; width: 15%; height: 400px; margin-top: 40px; padding: 30px; background-color: #FFFFFF; } #footer { width: 100%; height: 80px; background-color: #174555; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; color: #ffffff; clear: both; } Basicly both div's should resize until a certain size is reached, then scrolling should be enabled. I'm pretty sure I have done something simple wrong but i'm not much of a design person. Example can be shown here : Link Thanks for any advice :)

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• calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

  - by Cole

  Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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• How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

  - by RPM1984

  Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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• JPanels, JFrames, and Windows, Oh my!

  - by Jonathan

  Simply stated, I am trying to make a game I am working on full-screen. I have the following code I am trying to use: GraphicsEnvironment ge = GraphicsEnvironment.getLocalGraphicsEnvironment(); GraphicsDevice gs = ge.getDefaultScreenDevice(); if(!gs.isFullScreenSupported()) { System.out.println("full-screen not supported"); } Frame frame = new Frame(gs.getDefaultConfiguration()); Window win = new Window(frame); try { // Enter full-screen mode gs.setFullScreenWindow(win); win.validate(); } Problem with this is that I am working within a class that extends JPanel, and while I have a variable of type Frame, I have none of type Window within the class. My understanding of JPanel is that it is a Window of sorts, but I cannot pass 'this' into gs.setFullScreenWindow(Window win)... How should I go about doing this? Is there any easy way of calling that, or a similar method, using a JPanel? Is there a way I can get something of type Window from my JPanel? - EDIT: The following method changes the state of JFrame and is called every 10ms: public void paintScreen() { Graphics g; try{ g = this.getGraphics(); //get Panel's graphic context if(g == null) { frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setExtendedState(frame.getExtendedState()|JFrame.MAXIMIZED_BOTH); frame.add(this); frame.pack(); frame.setResizable(false); frame.setTitle("Game Window"); frame.setVisible(true); } if((g != null) && (dbImage != null)) { g.drawImage(dbImage, 0, 0, null); } Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().sync(); //sync the display on some systems g.dispose(); } catch (Exception e) { if(blockError) { blockError = false; } else { System.out.println("Graphics context error: " + e); } } } I anticipate that there may be a few redundancies or unnecessary calls after the if(g==null) statement (all the frame.somethingOrOther()s), any cleanup advice would be appreciated... Also, the block error is what it seems. I am ignoring an error. The error only occurs once, and this works fine when setup to ignore the first instance of the error... For anyone interested I can post additional info there if anyone wants to see if that block can be removed, but i'm not concerned... I might look into it later.

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• Unit testing class in a web service in .net

  - by Dan Bailiff

  After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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• NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

  - by Brent Traut

  I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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• How to reconcile my support of open-source software and need to feed and house myself?

  - by Guzba

  I have a bit of a dilemma and wanted to get some other developers' opinions on it and maybe some guidance. So I have created a 2D game for Android from the ground up, learning and re factoring as I went along. I did it for the experience, and have been proud of the results. I released it for free as ad supported with AdMob not really expecting much out of it, but curious to see what would happen. Its been a few of months now since release, and it has become very popular (250k downloads!). Additionally, the ad revenue is great and is driving me to make more good games and even allowing me to work less so that I can focus on my own works. When I originally began working on the game, I was pretty new to concurrency and completely new to Android (had Java experience though). The standard advice I got for starting an Android game was to look at the sample games from Google (Snake, Lunar Lander, ...) so I did. In my opinion, these Android sample games from Google are decent to see in general what your code should look like, but not actually all that great to follow. This is because some of their features don't work (saving game state), the concurrency is both unexplained and cumbersome (there is no real separation between the game thread and the UI thread since they sync lock each other out all the time and the UI thread runs game thread code). This made it difficult for me as a newbie to concurrency to understand how it was organized and what was really running what code. Here is my dilemma: After spending this past few months slowly improving my code, I feel that it could be very beneficial to developers who are in the same position that I was in when I started. (Since it is not a complex game, but clearly coded in my opinion.) I want to open up the source so that others can learn from it but don't want to lose my ad revenue stream, which, if I did open the source, I fear I would when people released versions with the ad stripped, or minor tweaks that would fragment my audience, etc. I am a CS undergrad major in college and this money is giving me the freedom to work less at summer job, thus giving me the time and will to work on more of my own projects and improving my own skills while still paying the bills. So what do I do? Open the source at personal sacrifice for the greater good, or keep it closed and be a sort of hypocritical supporter of open source?

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• JQuery Cascade dropdown problem?

  - by omoto

  Hi All! I'm using JQuery based Cascade plugin probably it's working, but I found a lot of problems with it Maybe somebody already faced with this plugin and maybe could help. So, I using this plugin for location filtration Here comes my CS code: public JsonResult getChildren(string val) { if (val.IsNotNull()) { int lId = val.ToInt(); Cookie.Location = val.ToInt(); var forJSON = from h in Location.SubLocationsLoaded(val.ToInt()) select new { When = val, Id = h.Id, Name = h.Name, LocationName = h.LocationType.Name }; return this.Json(forJSON.ToArray()); } else return null; } Here comes my JS code: <script type="text/javascript"> function commonMatch(selectedValue) { $("#selectedLocation").val(selectedValue); return this.When == selectedValue; }; function commonTemplate(item) { return "<option value='" + item.Id + "'>" + item.Name + "</option>"; }; $(document).ready(function() { $("#chained_child").cascade("#Countries", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Län------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_child").cascade("#chained_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Kommun------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_sub_child").cascade("#chained_sub_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Stad------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); }); I added one condition to jquery.cascade.ext.js if (opt.getParentValue(parent) != "empty") $.ajax(_ajax); To prevent Ajax request without selected value, but I faced with problem, when I reset selection in first box 3d box and bellow does not refresh: And second issue: I would like to know where is best place to inject my own function that will do something, with one requirement - I need to know that all boxes finished work. If somebody worked within let me know maybe we could together find solution. Thanks in advice...

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• CSS Ease-in-out to full screen

  - by Aditya Singh

  I have a black background div of a size which contains an image. <div id="Banner"> <img onclick="expand();" src="hola.jpg"> </div> #Banner { position:relative; height:50px; width:50px; margin:0 auto; background-color:#000000; -webkit-transition: all 0.5s ease-in-out 0.5s; -moz-transition: all 0.5s ease-in-out 0.5s; -o-transition: all 0.5s ease-in-out 0.5s; transition: all 0.5s ease-in-out 0.5s; } <script type="text/javascript"> function expand(){ document.getElementById('Banner').style['height'] = '250'; document.getElementById('Banner').style['width'] = '250'; } </script> So when the user clicks on the image, the div transitions to 250, 250. My problem is that, i want it to to transition to full screen. The following javascript function does expand to fullscreen but the transition effect doesn't come. I need to do it from a javascript code without jquery. function expand(){ document.getElementById('Banner').style['position'] = 'absolute'; document.getElementById('Banner').style['height'] = '100%'; document.getElementById('Banner').style['width'] = '100%'; document.getElementById('Banner').style['top'] = '0'; document.getElementById('Banner').style['left'] = '0'; } Please advice. Update : Solution Roger below has provided with an alternative solution. This takes care if the document has already been scrolled and is another place. Will expand the div to full browser screen. sz=getSize(); //function returns screen width and height in pixels currentWidth=200; currentHeight=200; scalex=sz.W/currentWidth; scaley=sz.H/currentHeight; transx=0-((expandingDiv.offsetLeft+(currentWidth/2))-(sz.W/2))+document.body.scrollLeft; transy=0-((expandingDiv.offsetTop+(cuttentHeight/2))-(sz.H/2))+document.body.scrollTop; transx = transx.toString(); transy = transy.toString(); document.getElementById("Banner").style['-webkit-transform'] = 'translate('+transx+'px,'+transy+'px) scale('+scalex+','+scaley+')';

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• Getting up to speed on modern architecture

  - by Matt Thrower

  Hi, I don't have any formal qualifications in computer science, rather I taught myself classic ASP back in the days of the dotcom boom and managed to get myself a job and my career developed from there. I was a confident and, I think, pretty good programmer in ASP 3 but as others have observed one of the problems with classic ASP was that it did a very good job of hiding the nitty-gritty of http so you could become quite competent as a programmer on the basis of relatively poor understanding of the technology you were working with. When I changed on to .NET at first I treated it like classic ASP, developing stand-alone applications as individual websites simply because I didn't know any better at the time. I moved jobs at this point and spent the next several years working on a single site whose architecture relied heavily on custom objects: in other words I gained a lot of experience working with .NET as a middle-tier development tool using a quite old-fashioned approach to OO design along the lines of the classic "car" class example that's so often used to teach OO. Breaking down programs into blocks of functionality and basing your classes and methods around that. Although we worked under an Agile approach to manage the work the whole setup was classic client/server stuff. That suited me and I gradually got to grips with .NET and started using it far more in the manner that it should be, and I began to see the power inherent in the technology and precisely why it was so much better than good old ASP 3. In my latest job I have found myself suddenly dropped in at the deep end with two quite young, skilled and very cutting-edge programmers. They've built a site architecture which is modelling along a lot of stuff which is new to me and which, in truth I'm having a lot of trouble understanding. The application is built on a cloud computing model with multi-tenancy and the architecture is all loosely coupled using a lot of interfaces, factories and the like. They use nHibernate a lot too. Shortly after I joined, both these guys left and I'm now supposedly the senior developer on a system whose technology and architecture I don't really understand and I have no-one to ask questions of. Except you, the internet. Frankly I feel like I've been pitched in at the deep end and I'm sinking. I'm not sure if this is because I lack the educational background to understand this stuff, if I'm simply not mathematically minded enough for modern computing (my maths was never great - my approach to design is often to simply debug until it works, then refactor until it looks neat), or whether I've simply been presented with too much of too radical a nature at once. But the only way to find out which it is is to try and learn it. So can anyone suggest some good places to start? Good books, tutorials or blogs? I've found a lot of internet material simply presupposes a level of understanding that I just don't have. Your advice is much appreciated. Help a middle-aged, stuck in the mud developer get enthusastic again! Please!

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• [C++] Multiple inheritance from template class

  - by Tom P.

  Hello, I'm having issues with multiple inheritance from different instantiations of the same template class. Specifically, I'm trying to do this: template <class T> class Base { public: Base() : obj(NULL) { } virtual ~Base() { if( obj != NULL ) delete obj; } template <class T> T* createBase() { obj = new T(); return obj; } protected: T* obj; }; class Something { // ... }; class SomethingElse { // ... }; class Derived : public Base<Something>, public Base<SomethingElse> { }; int main() { Derived* d = new Derived(); Something* smth1 = d->createBase<Something>(); SomethingElse* smth2 = d->createBase<SomethingElse>(); delete d; return 0; } When I try to compile the above code, I get the following errors: 1>[...](41) : error C2440: '=' : cannot convert from 'SomethingElse *' to 'Something *' 1> Types pointed to are unrelated; conversion requires reinterpret_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast 1> [...](71) : see reference to function template instantiation 'T *Base<Something>::createBase<SomethingElse>(void)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> T=SomethingElse 1> ] 1>[...](43) : error C2440: 'return' : cannot convert from 'Something *' to 'SomethingElse *' 1> Types pointed to are unrelated; conversion requires reinterpret_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast The issue seems to be ambiguity due to member obj being inherited from both Base< Something and Base< SomethingElse , and I can work around it by disambiguating my calls to createBase: Something* smth1 = d->Base<Something>::createBase<Something>(); SomethingElse* smth2 = d->Base<SomethingElse>::createBase<SomethingElse>(); However, this solution is dreadfully impractical, syntactically speaking, and I'd prefer something more elegant. Moreover, I'm puzzled by the first error message. It seems to imply that there is an instantiation createBase< SomethingElse in Base< Something , but how is that even possible? Any information or advice regarding this issue would be much appreciated.

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• Repeat Customers Each Year (Retention)

  - by spazzie

  I've been working on this and I don't think I'm doing it right. |D Our database doesn't keep track of how many customers we retain so we looked for an alternate method. It's outlined in this article. It suggests you have this table to fill in: Year Number of Customers Number of customers Retained in 2009 Percent (%) Retained in 2009 Number of customers Retained in 2010 Percent (%) Retained in 2010 .... 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 Total The table would go out to 2012 in the headers. I'm just saving space. It tells you to find the total number of customers you had in your starting year. To do this, I used this query since our starting year is 2008: select YEAR(OrderDate) as 'Year', COUNT(distinct(billemail)) as Customers from dbo.tblOrder where OrderDate >= '2008-01-01' and OrderDate <= '2008-12-31' group by YEAR(OrderDate) At the moment we just differentiate our customers by email address. Then you have to search for the same names of customers who purchased again in later years (ours are 2009, 10, 11, and 12). I came up with this. It should find people who purchased in both 2008 and 2009. SELECT YEAR(OrderDate) as 'Year',COUNT(distinct(billemail)) as Customers FROM dbo.tblOrder o with (nolock) WHERE o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o1.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o1 with (nolock) WHERE o1.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2009-1-1') AND o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o2.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o2 with (nolock) WHERE o2.OrderDate BETWEEN '2009-1-1' AND '2010-1-1') --AND o.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2013-1-1' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '%@halloweencostumes.com' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '' GROUP BY YEAR(OrderDate) So I'm just finding the customers who purchased in both those years. And then I'm doing an independent query to find those who purchased in 2008 and 2010, then 08 and 11, and then 08 and 12. This one finds 2008 and 2010 purchasers: SELECT YEAR(OrderDate) as 'Year',COUNT(distinct(billemail)) as Customers FROM dbo.tblOrder o with (nolock) WHERE o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o1.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o1 with (nolock) WHERE o1.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2009-1-1') AND o.BillEmail IN (SELECT DISTINCT o2.BillEmail FROM dbo.tblOrder o2 with (nolock) WHERE o2.OrderDate BETWEEN '2010-1-1' AND '2011-1-1') --AND o.OrderDate BETWEEN '2008-1-1' AND '2013-1-1' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '%@halloweencostumes.com' AND o.BillEmail NOT LIKE '' GROUP BY YEAR(OrderDate) So you see I have a different query for each year comparison. They're all unrelated. So in the end I'm just finding people who bought in 2008 and 2009, and then a potentially different group that bought in 2008 and 2010, and so on. For this to be accurate, do I have to use the same grouping of 2008 buyers each time? So they bought in 2009 and 2010 and 2011, and 2012? This is where I'm worried and not sure how to proceed or even find such data. Any advice would be appreciated! Thanks!

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• Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

  - by Troy

  I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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• C# AES returns wrong Test Vectors

  - by ralu

  I need to implement some crypto protocol on C# and want to say that this is my first project in C#. After spending some time to get used on C# I found out that I am unable to get compliant AES vectors. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { public static void Main() { try { //test vectors from "ecb_vk.txt" byte[] key = { 0x80, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] data = { 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] encTest = { 0x0e, 0xdd, 0x33, 0xd3, 0xc6, 0x21, 0xe5, 0x46, 0x45, 0x5b, 0xd8, 0xba, 0x14, 0x18, 0xbe, 0xc8 }; AesManaged aesAlg = new AesManaged(); aesAlg.BlockSize = 128; aesAlg.Key = key; aesAlg.Mode = CipherMode.ECB; ICryptoTransform encryptor = aesAlg.CreateEncryptor(); MemoryStream msEncrypt = new MemoryStream(); CryptoStream csEncrypt = new CryptoStream(msEncrypt, encryptor, CryptoStreamMode.Write); StreamWriter swEncrypt = new StreamWriter(csEncrypt); swEncrypt.Write(data); swEncrypt.Close(); csEncrypt.Close(); msEncrypt.Close(); aesAlg.Clear(); byte[] encr; encr = msEncrypt.ToArray(); string datastr = BitConverter.ToString(data); string encrstr = BitConverter.ToString(encr); string encTestStr = BitConverter.ToString(encTest); Console.WriteLine("data: {0}", datastr); Console.WriteLine("encr: {0}", encrstr); Console.WriteLine("should: {0}", encTestStr); Console.ReadKey(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } } } } Output is wrong: data: 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 encr: A0-3C-C2-22-A4-32-F7-C9-BA-36-AE-73-66-BD-BB-A3 should: 0E-DD-33-D3-C6-21-E5-46-45-5B-D8-BA-14-18-BE-C8 I am sure that there is correct AES implementation in C#, so I need some advice from C# wizard to help whit this. Thanks

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• Getting the responseText from XMLHttpRequest-Object

  - by Sammy46

  I wrote a cgi-script with c++ to return the query-string back to the requesting ajax object. I also write the query-string in a file in order to see if the cgi script works correctly. But when I ask in the html document for the response Text to be shown in a messagebox i get a blank message. here is my code: js: <script type = "text/javascript"> var XMLHttp; if(navigator.appName == "Microsoft Internet Explorer") { XMLHttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } else { XMLHttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } function getresponse () { XMLHttp.open ("GET", "http://localhost/cgi-bin/AJAXTest?" + "fname=" + document.getElementById('fname').value + "&sname=" + document.getElementById('sname').value,true); XMLHttp.send(null); } XMLHttp.onreadystatechange=function(){ if(XMLHttp.readyState == 4) { document.getElementById('response_area').innerHTML += XMLHttp.readyState; var x= XMLHttp.responseText alert(x) } } </script> First Names(s)<input onkeydown = "javascript: getresponse ()" id="fname" name="name"> <br> Surname<input onkeydown = "javascript: getresponse();" id="sname"> <div id = "response_area"> </div> C++: int main() { QFile log("log.txt"); if(!log.open(QIODevice::WriteOnly | QIODevice::Text)) { return 1; } QTextStream outLog(&log); QString QUERY_STRING= getenv("QUERY_STRING"); //if(QUERY_STRING!=NULL) //{ cout<<"Content-type: text/plain\n\n" <<"The Query String is: " << QUERY_STRING.toStdString()<< "\n"; outLog<<"Content-type: text/plain\n\n" <<"The Query String is: " <<QUERY_STRING<<endl; //} return 0; } I'm happy about every advice what to do! EDIT: the output to my logfile works just fine: Content-type: text/plain The Query String is: fname=hello&sname=world I just noticed that if i open it with IE8 i get the query-string. But only on the first "keydown" after that IE does nothing.

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• Problem with Command Pattern under Visual Studio 2008 (C++)

  - by D.Giunchi

  Dear All, I've a problem with this pattern under c++ on VS 2008. The same code has been tested in gcc (linux, mac and mingw for widnows) and it works. I copy/paste the code here: class MyCommand { public: virtual void execute() = 0; virtual ~MyCommand () {}; }; class MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyOperationDerived : public MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyUndoStackCommand : public MyCommand { public: typedef void(MyOperation::*Action)(); MyUndoStackCommand(MyOperation *rec, Action action); /*virtual*/ void execute(); /*virtual*/ ~MyUndoStackCommand(); private: MyOperation *myReceiver; Action myAction ; }; in cpp: #include "MyUndoStackCommand.h" #include "MyOperation.h" MyUndoStackCommand::~MyUndoStackCommand() { } MyUndoStackCommand::MyUndoStackCommand(myOperation *rec, Action action): myReceiver(rec), myAction(action) { } void MyUndoStackCommand::execute() { ((myReceiver)->*(myAction))(); } use in main.cpp: MyReceiver receiver; MyUndoStackCommand usc(&receiver, &MyOperation::DoIt); usc.execute(); when I debug under visual studio only if I set inside MyUndoStackCommand, directly myAction = &MyOperation::DoIt , it works, otherwise not. Any advice? thank you very much, dan Edit: The following code compiles with g++ - changes by Neil Butterworth flagged as //NB. class MyCommand { public: virtual void execute() = 0; virtual ~MyCommand () {}; }; class MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyOperationDerived : public MyOperation { public: virtual void DoIt() {}; //I also write it not inline }; class MyUndoStackCommand : public MyCommand { public: typedef void(MyOperation::*Action)(); MyUndoStackCommand(MyOperation *rec, Action action); /*virtual*/ void execute(); /*virtual*/ ~MyUndoStackCommand(); private: MyOperation *myReceiver; Action myAction ; }; MyUndoStackCommand::~MyUndoStackCommand() { } MyUndoStackCommand::MyUndoStackCommand(MyOperation *rec, //NB Action action) : myReceiver(rec), myAction(action) { } void MyUndoStackCommand::execute() { ((myReceiver)->*(myAction))(); } int main() { MyOperation receiver; //NB MyUndoStackCommand usc(&receiver, &MyOperation::DoIt); usc.execute(); }

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