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  • Assigning static final int in a JUnit (4.8.1) test suite

    - by Dr. Monkey
    I have a JUnit test class in which I have several static final ints that can be redefined at the top of the tester code to allow some variation in the test values. I have logic in my @BeforeClass method to ensure that the developer has entered values that won't break my tests. I would like to improve variation further by allowing these ints to be set to (sensible) random values in the @BeforeClass method if the developer sets a boolean useRandomValues = true;. I could simply remove the final keyword to allow the random values to overwrite the initialisation values, but I have final there to ensure that these values are not inadvertently changed, as some tests rely on the consistency of these values. Can I use a constructor in a JUnit test class? Eclipse starts putting red underlines everywhere if I try to make my @BeforeClass into a constructor for the test class, and making a separate constructor doesn't seem to allow assignment to these variables (even if I leave them unassigned at their declaration); Is there another way to ensure that any attempt to change these variables after the @BeforeClass method will result in a compile-time error? Can I make something final after it has been initialised?

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  • Project Euler: Programmatic Optimization for Problem 7?

    - by bmucklow
    So I would call myself a fairly novice programmer as I focused mostly on hardware in my schooling and not a lot of Computer Science courses. So I solved Problem 7 of Project Euler: By listing the first six prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, and 13, we can see that the 6th prime is 13. What is the 10001st prime number? I managed to solve this without problem in Java, but when I ran my solution it took 8 and change seconds to run. I was wondering how this could be optimized from a programming standpoint, not a mathematical standpoint. Is the array looping and while statements the main things eating up processing time? And how could this be optimized? Again not looking for a fancy mathematical equation..there are plenty of those in the solution thread. SPOILER My solution is listed below. public class PrimeNumberList { private ArrayList<BigInteger> primesList = new ArrayList<BigInteger>(); public void fillList(int numberOfPrimes) { primesList.add(new BigInteger("2")); primesList.add(new BigInteger("3")); while (primesList.size() < numberOfPrimes){ getNextPrime(); } } private void getNextPrime() { BigInteger lastPrime = primesList.get(primesList.size()-1); BigInteger currentTestNumber = lastPrime; BigInteger modulusResult; boolean prime = false; while(!prime){ prime = true; currentTestNumber = currentTestNumber.add(new BigInteger("2")); for (BigInteger bi : primesList){ modulusResult = currentTestNumber.mod(bi); if (modulusResult.equals(BigInteger.ZERO)){ prime = false; break; } } if(prime){ primesList.add(currentTestNumber); } } } public BigInteger get(int primeTerm) { return primesList.get(primeTerm - 1); } }

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  • Automatic Adjusting Range Table

    - by Bradford
    I have a table with a start date range, an end date range, and a few other additional columns. On input of a new record, I want to automatically adjust any overlapping date ranges (shrinking them to allow for the new input). I also want to ensure that no overlapping records can accidentally be inserted into this table. I'm using Oracle and Java for my application code. How should I enforce the prevention of overlapping date ranges and also allow for automatically adjusting overlapping ranges? Should I create an AFTER INSERT trigger, with a dbms_lock to serialize access, to prevent the overlapping data. Then in Java, apply the logic to auto adjust everything? Or should that part be in PL/SQL in stored procedure call? This is something that we need for a couple other tables so it'd be nice to abstract. If anyone has something like this already written, please share :) I did find this reference: http://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:474221407101 Here's an example of how each of the 4 overlapping cases should be handled for adjustment on insert: = Example 1 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 50, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 50, 'A') **(51, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 2 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (40, 80, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 39, 'Z') **(40, 80, 'A') **(81, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 3 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (50, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 49, 'Z') **(50, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 4 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') The algorithm is as follows: given range = g; input range = i; output range set = o if i.start <= g.start if i.end >= g.end o_1 = i else o_1 = i o_2 = (o.end + 1, g.end) else if i.end >= g.end o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i else o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i o_3 = (i.end + 1, i.end)

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  • Time to start returning IQueryable<T> instead of IList<T> to my Web UI / Web API Layer?

    - by JohnnyO
    I've got a multi-layer application that starts with the repository pattern for all data access and it returns IQueryable to the Services layer. The Services layer, which includes all of the business logic, returns IList to the Controllers (note: I'm using ASP.NET MVC for the UI layer). The benefit of returning IQueryable in the data access layer is that it allows my repositories to be extremely simple and the database queries to be deferred. However, I'm triggering the database queries in my services layer so that my unit tests is more reliable and I don't give flexibility to the Controllers to reshape my queries. However, I've recently encountered several situations where deferring the execution of queries down to the Controllers would have been significantly more performant because the Controllers had to do some projections on the data that was UI specific. Additionally, with the emergence of things like oData, I was starting to wonder if end points (e.g. web UI or web apis) should be working directly with IQueryable. What are your thoughts? Is it time to start returning IQueryable from the services layer to the UI layer? Or stick with IList? This thread here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/718624/to-return-iqueryablet-or-not-return-iqueryablet seems to vouch for returning IList to the UI layers, but I was wondering if things are changing because of new emerging technologies and techniques.

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  • A generic error in GDI+ with ToolStrip in ManagerRenderMode

    - by volody
    I have a vb.net form with ToolStrip menu RenderMode - ManagerRenderMode LayoutStyle - HorizontalStackWithOverflow My development environment is .net 4.0, VS2010, windows 7 x64; but occasionally I am getting next error A generic error occurred in GDI+. Stacktrace: at System.Drawing.Graphics.CheckErrorStatus(Int32 status) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Int32 x, Int32 y, Int32 width, Int32 height) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Rectangle rect) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.FillWithDoubleGradient(Color beginColor, Color middleColor, Color endColor, Graphics g, Rectangle bounds, Int32 firstGradientWidth, Int32 secondGradientWidth, LinearGradientMode mode, Boolean flipHorizontal) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.RenderToolStripBackgroundInternal(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.OnRenderToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripRenderer.DrawToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam)

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  • Why does IIS respond to a secure(SSL) page request with a 302 to its non-secure version?

    - by ISawrub
    I have SSL installed at the root of a server. I have a page whose code behind code is supposed to redirect after certain validation to a secure page. Here's the redirect code: switch (PageBase2.GetParameterValue("Environment")) //Retrieves App Setting named Environment from web.config { case "Server": strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; case "Local": strURL = @"http://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; default: strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; } Response.Redirect(strURL, false); But the page that's been served by IIS is non-secure. I looked at the firebug console and it appears that the client does make a get request to https://server/checkout/payment.aspx but IIS responds with a 302 to http://server/checkout/payment.aspx Any clues, as to what could be causing it. I've even tried forcing SSL for the page, but it doesn't work I get 403.4 error. (SSL is required to view this resource.) And if i remove the redirection logic and code the payment page to redirect to its SSL version when the connection is not secure using Request.IsSecureConnection, i end up with an endless redirect loop, simply because IIS still won't serve the secure version without a 302. Any ideas?

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  • Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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  • What Is The Proper Location For One-Offs In VCS Repos?

    - by Joe Clark
    I have recently started using Mercurial as our VCS. Over the years, I have used RCS, CVS, and - for the last 5 years - SVN. Back 13 years ago, when I primarily used CVS and RCS, large projects went into CVS and one-offs were edited in place on the specific server and stored in RCS. This worked well as the one-offs were usually specific to the server and the servers were backed up nightly. Jump forward a decade and a lot of the one-off scripts became less centralized - they might be needed on any server at some random time. This was also OK, because now I was a begrudging SVN user. Everything (except for docs) got dumped into one repo. Jump to 2010. Now I am using Mercurial and am putting large projects in their own repo again. But what to do with the one-offs? The options as I see them: A repo for each script. It seems a bit cluttered to create a repo for every one page script that might get ran once a year. RCS Not an option. There are many possible servers that might need a specific script. Continuing to use SVN just for one-offs. No. There no advantage I see over the next option. Create a repo in Mercurial named "one-offs". This seems the most workable. The last option seems the best to me - however; is there a best practice regarding this? You also might be wondering if these scripts are truly one-offs if they will be reused. Some of them may be reused 6 months or a year from now - some, never. However, nearly all of them involve several man-hours of work due to either complex logic or extensive error checking. Simply discarding them is not efficient.

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  • Using datetime float representation as primary key

    - by devanalyst
    From my experience I have learn that using an surrogate INT data type column as primary key esp. an IDENTITY key column offers better performance than using GUID or char/varchar data type column as primary key. I try to use IDENTITY key as primary key wherever possible. But recently I came across a schema where the tables were horizontally partitioned and were managed via a Partitioned view. So the tables could not have an IDENTITY column since that would make the Partitioned View non updatable. One work around for this was to create a dummy 'keygenerator' table with an identity column to generate IDs for primary key. But this would mean having a 'keygenerator' table for each of the Partitioned View. My next thought was to use float as a primary key. The reason is the following key algorithm that I devised DECLARE @KEY FLOAT SET @KEY = CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 SET @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY Heres how it works. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE()) gives float representation of current datetime since internally all datetime are represented by SQL as a float value. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 converts the float representation into complete decimal value i.e. all digits are pushed to right side of ".". @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY adds the Employee ID which is an integer to this decimal value. The logic is that the Employee ID is guaranteed to be unique across sessions since an employee cannot connect to an application more than once at the same time. And for the same employee each time a key will be generated the current datetime will be unique. In all an unique key across all employee sessions and across time. So for Emp Ids 11 and 12, I have key values like 12.40046693321566357, 11.40046693542361111 But my concern whether float data type as primary key offer benefits compared to choosing GUID or char/varchar as primary keys. Also important thing is because of partitioning the float column is going to be part of a composite key.

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  • Conditional Drag and Drop Operations in Flex/AS3 Tree

    - by user163757
    Good day everyone. I am currently working with a hierarchical tree structure in AS3/Flex, and want to enable drag and drop capabilities under certain conditions: Only parent/top level nodes can be moved Parent/top level nodes must remain at this level; they can not be moved to child nodes of other parent nodes Using the dragEnter event of the tree, I am able to handle condition 1 easily. private function onDragEnter(event:DragEvent):void { // only parent nodes (map layers) are moveable event.preventDefault(); if(toc.selectedItem.hasOwnProperty("layer")) DragManager.acceptDragDrop(event.target as UIComponent); else DragManager.showFeedback(DragManager.NONE); } Handling the second condition is proving to be a bit more difficult. I am pretty sure the dragOver event is the place for logic. I have been experimenting with calculateDropIndex, but that always gives me the index of the parent node, which doesn't help check if the potential drop location is acceptable or not. Below is some pseudo code of what I am looking to accomplish. private function onDragOver(e:DragEvent):void { // if potential drop location has parents // dont allow drop // else // allow drop } Can anyone provide advice how to implement this?

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  • The woes of (sometimes) storing "date only" in datetimes

    - by Heinzi
    We have two fields from and to (of type datetime), where the user can store the begin time and the end time of a business trip, e.g.: From: 2010-04-14 09:00 To: 2010-04-16 16:30 So, the duration of the trip is 2 days and 7.5 hours. Often, the exact times are not known in advance, so the user enters the dates without a time: From: 2010-04-14 To: 2010-04-16 Internally, this is stored as 2010-04-14 00:00 and 2010-04-16 00:00, since that's what most modern class libraries (e.g. .net) and databases (e.g. SQL Server) do when you store a "date only" in a datetime structure. Usually, this makes perfect sense. However, when entering 2010-04-16 as the to date, the user clearly did not mean 2010-04-16 00:00. Instead, the user meant 2010-04-16 24:00, i.e., calculating the duration of the trip should output 3 days, not 2 days. I can think of a few (more or less ugly) workarounds for this problem (add "23:59" in the UI layer of the to field if the user did not enter a time component; add a special "dates are full days" Boolean field; store "2010-04-17 00:00" in the DB but display "2010-04-16 24:00" to the user if the time component is "00:00"; ...), all having advantages and disadvantages. Since I assume that this is a fairly common problem, I was wondering: Is there a "standard" best-practice way of solving it? If there isn't, have you experienced a similar requirement, how did you solve it and what were the pros/cons of that solution?

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  • No Commons Logging in Android?

    - by Joe Boese
    Hello all, I have a pretty big library I developed specifically for use in my Android Application. However business logic itself has no dependency on Android. To preserve that, I used Commons Logging throughout this library and it's respective JUnit tests (which I run in Eclipse). However now that I am starting to integrate it into an Activity which I launch on Android, I am unable to get my logging to work. In Eclipse/JUnit, I had simply pulled in log4j's jar file as well as a log4j.properties file. This doesn't seem to work when deploying to a device. After struggling with attempting to get that to work for several hours, I gave up and tried replacing all my commons logging stuff with android.util.Log. Now I can log on the device.. but all JUnit tests are broken. When any JUnit tries to log using android.util.Log, it throws a RuntimeException 'Stub!'. I would prefer to revert to my commons logging approach.. if anyone can help with that.. otherwise.. what can I do to get my JUnit test cases running using 'android.util.Log'? Many thanks in advance.. I've spent more than a few hours on this and I'd like to move on to writing real code again! Joe

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  • .NET WF4: Should it be in the middle of everything?

    - by stimpy77
    I am aware that WF4 (Windows Workflow 4.0, part of .NET 4.0) is a significant rework and redesign of WF3, where much of what made WF3 a poor technology choice has been cleaned up in WF4. For example, as far as I can tell, WF4 (Windows Workflow 4.0) activities are more or less testable with [TestMethod] and mocking. This among other things, like improved performance, has grabbed my attention about the technology again, whereas I had previously pooh-poohed WF3. I'm working on a new architecture for essentially an n-tier collaborative application (not enterprise-class, just a smallish project with potential to grow significantly) where I'm already trying to discipline myself to use IoC and, to some extent, TDD, and I'm wondering, in general terms, whether it is wiser to just hand-code workflow logic or if I should delve into learning and integrating WF4 so that WF becomes literally the controller of the entire application, i.e. the practical C in "MVC" (not ASP.NET MVC but rather the pattern). So should workflow activities in WF4 be the primary controller for a highly expandable/growable web-based collaborative application? Or am I asking entirely the wrong question? This is a vague question, I'm sure, so abstract answers are as welcome as specific ones.

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  • iPhone app: How to implement in-app purchased game levels

    - by Wonderflonium
    So, I understand that it's possible to set up in-app purchases for iPhone apps to purchase non-consumables like game levels. I understand the logic behind the purchase part, but what I don't understand is, how can I deliver the new game level. For example: I build an app that contains the first level and they purchase additional levels. Is it better to build all the other levels into the app and whenever they purchase the app, it unlocks it with a plist entry or something? That doesn't seem very update-able to me. Every time I come up with a new level, I'd have to update the app. So, what I don't understand then, is what is how do I package up a level and download it as a separate entity that can accessed by the game? Would the level just be some XML with images in a ZIP folder or something? How does the level get added to the game? What are best practices for this type of thing? I Googled and have found NOTHING about this. I'm a little bit confused by the concept and any help would be appreciated. I'm not looking for someone to write the game for me, I just need pointed in the right direction so I can develop it on my own.

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  • SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action.

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been using my website (ASP.NET MVC) in visual studio but now I want to host it on my server. I published from visual studio onto the network share to be used. The server is running Windows Home Server, IIS 6 and SQL Server 2008 R2 (express). In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, I've attached the database and made sure that the user IUSR_SERVER is owner of the db. I also made sure that the user Network Service has access. The Web Site is configured in IIS to run anonymously as IUSR_SERVER. I have granted write and read access to IUSR_SERVER as well as Network Service and made sure that nothing is read only. The web.config has this connectionstring: <connectionStrings> <remove name="ApplicationServices" /> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=.\SQLExpress;Integrated Security=True;Initial Catalog=MyDatebase" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> However, I cannot browse my web site. I only get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. User does not have permission to perform this action. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4846887 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 Feels like I've tried everything. Would be very grateful for your aid in this.

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  • vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

    - by intuited
    I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

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  • iPhone programming - problem with CoreFoundation forking, PLEASE for the love of god help! lol

    - by Tom
    Hello all, I've been working on an iPhone for several months. It's a 2d shooting game akin to the old Smash TV type games. I'm doing everything alone and it has come out well so far, but now I am getting unpredictable crashes which seem to be related to CoreFoundation forking and not exec()ing, as the message THE_PROCESS_HAS_FORKED_AND_YOU_CANNOT_USE_THIS_COREFOUNDATION_FUNCTIONA LITY_YOU_MUST_EXEC__ always shows up somewhere in the debugger. Usually it shows up around a CFRunLoopRunSpecific and is related to either a timer firing or _InitializeTouchTapCount. I cannot figure out exactly what is causing the fork to occur. My main game loop is running on a timer, first updating all the logic and then drawing everything with openGL. There is nothing highly complex or unusual. I understand you cannot make CF calls on the childside of a fork, or access shared memory and things like that. I am not explicitly trying to fork anything. My question is: can anyone tell me what type of activity might cause CoreFoundation to randomly fork like this? I'd really like to finish this game and I don't know how to solve this problem. Thanks for any help.

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  • custom C++ boost::lambda expression help

    - by aaa
    hello. A little bit of background: I have some strange multiple nested loops which I converted to flat work queue (basically collapse single index loops to single multi-index loop). right now each loop is hand coded. I am trying to generalized approach to work with any bounds using lambda expressions: For example: // RANGE(i,I,N) is basically a macro to generate `int i = I; i < N; ++i ` // for (RANGE(lb, N)) { // for (RANGE(jb, N)) { // for (RANGE(kb, max(lb, jb), N)) { // for (RANGE(ib, jb, kb+1)) { // is equivalent to something like (overload , to produce range) flat<1, 3, 2, 4>((_2, _3+1), (max(_4,_3), N), N, N) the internals of flat are something like: template<size_t I1, size_t I2, ..., class L1_, class L2, ..._> boost::array<int,4> flat(L1_ L1, L2_ L2, ...){ //boost::array<int,4> current; class variable bool advance; L2_ l2 = L2.bind(current); // bind current value to lambda { L1_ l1 = L1.bind(current); //bind current value to innermost lambda l1.next(); advance = !(l1 < l1.upper()); // some internal logic if (advance) { l2.next(); current[0] = l1.lower(); } } //..., } my question is, can you give me some ideas how to write lambda (derived from boost) which can be bound to index array reference to return upper, lower bounds according to lambda expression? thank you much

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  • Parameterized Queries /Without/ using queries.

    - by Aren B
    I've got a bit of a poor situation here. I'm stuck working with commerce server, which doesn't do a whole lot of sanitization/parameterization. I'm trying to build up my queries to prevent SQL Injection, however some things like the searches / where clause on the search object need to be built up, and there's no parameterized interface. Basically, I cannot parameterize, however I was hoping to be able to use the same engine to BUILD my query text if possible. Is there a way to do this, aside from writing my own parameterizing engine which will probably still not be as good as parameterized queries? Update: Example The where clause has to be built up as a sql query where clause essentially: CatalogSearch search = /// Create Search object from commerce server search.WhereClause = string.Format("[cy_list_price] > {0} AND [Hide] is not NULL AND [DateOfIntroduction] BETWEEN '{1}' AND '{2}'", 12.99m, DateTime.Now.AddDays(-2), DateTime.Now); *Above Example is how you refine the search, however we've done some testing, this string is NOT SANITIZED. This is where my problem lies, because any of those inputs in the .Format could be user input, and while i can clean up my input from text-boxes easily, I'm going to miss edge cases, it's just the nature of things. I do not have the option here to use a parameterized query because Commerce Server has some insane backwards logic in how it handles the extensible set of fields (schema) & the free-text search words are pre-compiled somewhere. This means I cannot go directly to the sql tables What i'd /love/ to see is something along the lines of: SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("[cy_list_price] > @MinPrice AND [DateOfIntroduction] BETWEEN @StartDate AND @EndDate"); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@MinPrice", 12.99m); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@StartDate", DateTime.Now.AddDays(-2)); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@EndDate", DateTime.Now); CatalogSearch search = /// constructor search.WhereClause = cmd.ToSqlString();

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  • singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

    - by Joshua
    Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

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  • asp.net mvc - How to create fake test objects quickly and efficiently

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm currently testing the controller in my mvc app and I'm creating a fake repository for testing. However I seem to be writing more code and spending more time for the fakes than I do on the actual repositories. Is this right? The code I have is as follows: Controller public partial class SomeController : Controller { IRepository repository; public SomeController(IRepository rep) { repository = rep; } public virtaul ActionResult Index() { // Some logic var model = repository.GetSomething(); return View(model); } } IRepository public interface IRepository { Something GetSomething(); } Fake Repository public class FakeRepository : IRepository { private List<Something> somethingList; public FakeRepository(List<Something> somethings) { somthingList = somthings; } public Something GetSomething() { return somethingList; } } Fake Data class FakeSomethingData { public static List<Something> CreateSomethingData() { var somethings = new List<Something>(); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { somethings.Add(new Something { value1 = String.Format("value{0}", i), value2 = String.Format("value{0}", i), value3 = String.Format("value{0}", i) }); } return somethings; } } Actual Test [TestClass] public class SomethingControllerTest { SomethingController CreateSomethingController() { var testData = FakeSomethingData.CreateSomethingData(); var repository = new FakeSomethingRepository(testData); SomethingController controller = new SomethingController(repository); return controller; } [TestMethod] public void SomeTest() { // Arrange var controller = CreateSomethingController(); // Act // Some test here // Arrange } } All this seems to be a lot of extra code, especially as I have more than one repository. Is there a more efficient way of doing this? Maybe using mocks? Thanks

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  • Limit foreign key choices in select in an inline form in admin

    - by mightyhal
    Edited :-) Hopefully a bit clearer now. The logic is of the model is: A Building has many Rooms A Room may be inside another Room (a closet, for instance--ForeignKey on 'self') A Room can only in inside of another Room in the same building (this is the tricky part) Here's the code I have: #spaces/models.py from django.db import models class Building(models.Model): name=models.CharField(max_length=32) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Room(models.Model): number=models.CharField(max_length=8) building=models.ForeignKey(Building) inside_room=models.ForeignKey('self',blank=True,null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.number and: #spaces/admin.py from ex.spaces.models import Building, Room from django.contrib import admin class RoomAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): pass class RoomInline(admin.TabularInline): model = Room extra = 2 class BuildingAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines=[RoomInline] admin.site.register(Building, BuildingAdmin) admin.site.register(Room) The inline will display only rooms in the current building (which is what I want). The problem, though, is that for the inside_room drop down, it displays all of the rooms in the Rooms table (including those in other buildings). In the inline of rooms, I need to limit the inside_room choices to only rooms which are in the current building being displayed by the main form. I can't figure out a way to do it with either a limit_choices_to in the model, nor can I figure out how exactly to override the admin's inline formset properly (I feel like I should be somehow create a custom inline form, pass the building_id of the main form to the custom inline, then limit the queryset for the field's choices based on that--but I just can't wrap my head around how to do it). Maybe this is too complex for the admin site, but it seems like something that would be generally useful... Thanks again for your help!

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  • How to manage a One-To-One and a One-To-Many of same type as unidirectional mapping?

    - by user1652438
    I'm trying to implement a model for private messages between two or more users. That means I've got two Entities: User PrivateMessage The User model shouldn't be edited, so I'm trying to set up an unidirectional relationship: @Entity (name = "User") @Table (name = "user") public class User implements Serializable { @Id String username; String password; // something like this ... } The PrivateMessage Model addresses multiple receivers and has exactly one sender. So I need something like this: @Entity (name = "PrivateMessage") @Table (name = "privateMessage") @XmlRootElement @XmlType (propOrder = {"id", "sender", "receivers", "title", "text", "date", "read"}) public class PrivateMessage implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9126766942868177246L; @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @NotNull private String title; @NotNull private String text; @NotNull @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date date; @NotNull private boolean read; @NotNull @ElementCollection(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, targetClass = User.class) private Set<User> receivers; @NotNull @OneToOne private User sender; // and so on } The according 'privateMessage' table won't be generated and just the relationship between the PM and the many receivers is satisfied. I'm confused about this. Everytime I try to set a 'mappedBy' attribute, my IDE marks it as an error. It seems to be a problem that the User-entity isn't aware of the private message which maps it. What am I doing wrong here? I've solved some situation similar to this one, but none of those solutions will work here. Thanks in advance!

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  • Lucene stop words not removed during searching

    - by iamrohitbanga
    I have created a Lucene index with the following analyzer. public class DocSpecAnalyzer extends Analyzer { private static CharArraySet stopSet;// = new HashSet<String>(Arrays.asList());//STOP_WORDS_SET; static { stopSet = new CharArraySet(FDConstants.stopwords, true); // uncommenting this displays all the stop words // for (String s: FDConstants.stopwords) { // System.out.println(s); // } } /** * Specifies whether deprecated acronyms should be replaced with HOST type. * See {@linkplain https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/LUCENE-1068} */ private final boolean enableStopPositionIncrements; private final Version matchVersion; public DocSpecAnalyzer(Version matchVersion) { this.matchVersion = matchVersion; enableStopPositionIncrements = StopFilter.getEnablePositionIncrementsVersionDefault(matchVersion); } public TokenStream tokenStream(String fieldName, Reader reader) { StandardTokenizer tokenStream = new StandardTokenizer(matchVersion, reader); tokenStream.setMaxTokenLength(DEFAULT_MAX_TOKEN_LENGTH); TokenStream result = new StandardFilter(tokenStream); result = new LowerCaseFilter(result); result = new StopFilter(enableStopPositionIncrements, result, stopSet); result = new PorterStemFilter(result); return result; } /** Default maximum allowed token length */ public static final int DEFAULT_MAX_TOKEN_LENGTH = 255; } Now when I search for documents for a query containing stop words, i get hits for stop words also. As I post this problem, I found the bug. It is because of http://lucene.apache.org/java/2_9_2/api/contrib-misc/org/apache/lucene/queryParser/analyzing/AnalyzingQueryParser.html not handling stop words. Is there a substitute? Update: forgot to mention that I need to do a fuzzy search. that is why i am using an AnalyzingQueryParser.

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  • Where can I find clear examples of MVC?

    - by Tom
    I've read a couple of things about MVCs but I still don't understand when they should be used and when they shouldn't be used. I am looking for clear examples that say things like "if you're developing this then you should use MVC, like this" and "if you're developing this, you shouldn't use MVC." Most of the examples I've seen rely on complex frameworks which have already implemented everything and you have to learn the framework and use it a lot to understand what's really happening. To many programmers, phrasings such as "UI business logic" sound like marketing terms — for example, the words "Instead the View binds directly to a Presentation Model" are used in this post. I am aware of the dangers that may lurk in the shadows as MVC is a concept and everyone feels like they know it best, yet nobody really knows exactly how to use it because there may be a lot of variables involved and everyone is allowed to have a different perspective on how to dissect a project into the Model, the View and the Controller. There is a lot of theory out there but very few clear examples. What I'm looking for are not "the best" ways of doing it so this should not be considered as subjective; I'm looking for different simple implementations that would allow me to decide on my own which are the best approaches. Succinctly: What are good on-line resources that present pro and con arguments to using MVC in various situations and provide clear examples to help the reader understand the concept?

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