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  • passing multidimensional arrays to function

    - by Pegah
    hi! I have a method in my class which uses a 3dimensional tfpairexp as input parameter. and I need to use the values in tfpairexp later. void calctfpairexp (int tf1, int tf2, double tfpairexp[][2][3]) { int ctr,c; for (int j = 0; j < cchips && (c = chips[j].crepls); j += c) { int ctrl_no=0; for (int *p = chips[j].ctrl ; p && (ctr=*p)>=0; ++p,ctrl_no++) { for (int k = 0; k < c; ++k) { tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); } } } } I call the method inside the class like this: calctfpairexp(tf1,tf2,tfpairexp); and I need to use values inside tfpairexp in next lines. but the compiler gives error in this line: tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); and says that the tfpairexp variable is not defined in the calctfpairexp function. any idea?

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  • Questions regarding detouring by modifying the virtual table

    - by Elliott Darfink
    I've been practicing detours using the same approach as Microsoft Detours (replace the first five bytes with a jmp and an address). More recently I've been reading about detouring by modifying the virtual table. I would appreciate if someone could shed some light on the subject by mentioning a few pros and cons with this method compared to the one previously mentioned! I'd also like to ask about patched vtables and objects on the stack. Consider the following situation: // Class definition struct Foo { virtual void Call(void) { std::cout << "FooCall\n"; } }; // If it's GCC, 'this' is passed as the first parameter void MyCall(Foo * object) { std::cout << "MyCall\n"; } // In some function Foo * foo = new Foo; // Allocated on the heap Foo foo2; // Created on the stack // Arguments: void ** vtable, uint offset, void * replacement PatchVTable(*reinterpret_cast<void***>(foo), 0, MyCall); // Call the methods foo->Call(); // Outputs: 'MyCall' foo2.Call(); // Outputs: 'FooCall' In this case foo->Call() would end up calling MyCall(Foo * object) whilst foo2.Call() call the original function (i.e Foo::Call(void) method). This is because the compiler will try to decide any virtual calls during compile time if possible (correct me if I'm wrong). Does that mean it does not matter if you patch the virtual table or not, as long as you use objects on the stack (not heap allocated)?

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  • Simple search form passing the searched string through GET

    - by Brian Roisentul
    Hi, I'd like my Search form to return the following url after submit: /anuncios/buscar/the_text_I_searched My form is the following: <% form_for :announcement, :url => search_path(:txtSearch) do |f| %> <div class="searchBox" id="basic"> <%= text_field_tag :txtSearch, params[:str_search].blank? ? "Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil." : params[:str_search], :maxlength=> 100, :class => "basicSearch_inputField", :onfocus => "if (this.value=='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.') this.value=''", :onblur => "if(this.value=='') { this.value='Busc&aacute; tu curso r&aacute;pido y f&aacute;cil.'; return false; }" %> <div class="basicSearch_button"> <input type="submit" value="BUSCAR" class="basicSearch_buttonButton" /> <br /><a href="#" onclick="javascript:jQuery('#advance').modal({opacity:60});">Busqueda avanzada</a> </div> </div> <% end %> My routes' line for search_path is this: map.search '/anuncios/buscar/:str_search', :controller => 'announcements', :action => 'search' Well, this will work if I manually type the url I want in the brower, but definitely, if you look at the form's url, you'll find a ":txtSearch" parameter, which is not giving me the actual value of the text field when the form is submitted. And that's what I'd like to get! Could anybody help me on this?

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  • Uploading multiple files asynchronously by blueimp jquery-fileupload

    - by Ryo
    I'm using jQuery File Upload library (http://github.com/blueimp/jQuery-File-Upload), and I've been stuck figuring out how to use the library satisfying the following conditions. The page has multiple file input fields surrounded by a form tag. Users can attach multiple files to each input field All files are sent to a server when the button is clicked, not when files are attached to the input fields. Upload is done asynchronously Say the page has 3 input fields with their name attributes being "file1[]", "file2[]" and "file3[]", the request payload should be like {file1: [ array of files on file1[] ], file2: [ array of files on file2[] ], ...} Here's jsFiddle, it's behaving weird so far in that it sends post request twice and the first one is cancelled. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/24/ The core part of js code looks like this. $(document).ready(function(){ var filesList = [] var elem = $("form") file_upload = elem.fileupload({ formData:{extra:1}, autoUpload: false, fileInput: $("input:file"), }).on("fileuploadadd", function(e, data){ filesList.push(data.files[0]) }); $("button").click(function(){ file_upload.fileupload('send', {files:filesList} ) }) }) Anybody have idea how to get this to work? Updates Now thanks to @CBroe 's comment, the issue that request is sent twice is fixed. However the keys of request parameter is not correctly set. Here's updated jsFiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/BAQtG/27/

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • Bing search API and Azure

    - by Gapton
    I am trying to programatically perform a search on Microsoft Bing search engine. Here is my understanding: There was a Bing Search API 2.0 , which will be replaced soon (1st Aug 2012) The new API is known as Windows Azure Marketplace. You use different URL for the two. In the old API (Bing Search API 2.0), you specify a key (Application ID) in the URL, and such key will be used to authenticate the request. As long as you have the key as a parameter in the URL, you can obtain the results. In the new API (Windows Azure Marketplace), you do NOT include the key (Account Key) in the URL. Instead, you put in a query URL, then the server will ask for your credentials. When using a browser, there will be a pop-up asking for a/c name and password. Instruction was to leave the account name blank and insert your key in the password field. Okay, I have done all that and I can see a JSON-formatted results of my search on my browser page. How do I do this programmatically in PHP? I tried searching for the documentation and sample code from Microsoft MSDN library, but I was either searching in the wrong place, or there are extremely limited resources in there. Would anyone be able to tell me how do you do the "enter the key in the password field in the pop-up" part in PHP please? Thanks alot in advance.

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  • [Java] Safe way of exposing keySet().

    - by Jake
    This must be a fairly common occurrence where I have a map and wish to thread-safely expose its key set: public MyClass { Map<String,String> map = // ... public final Set<String> keys() { // returns key set } } Now, if my "map" is not thread-safe, this is not safe: public final Set<String> keys() { return map.keySet(); } And neither is: public final Set<String> keys() { return Collections.unmodifiableSet(map.keySet()); } So I need to create a copy, such as: public final Set<String> keys() { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } However, this doesn't seem safe either because that constructor traverses the elements of the parameter and add()s them. So while this copying is going on, a ConcurrentModificationException can happen. So then: public final Set<String> keys() { synchronized(map) { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } } seems like the solution. Does this look right?

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  • .net mvc2 custom HtmlHelper extension unit testing

    - by alex
    My goal is to be able to unit test some custom HtmlHelper extensions - which use RenderPartial internally. http://ox.no/posts/mocking-htmlhelper-in-asp-net-mvc-2-and-3-using-moq I've tried using the method above to mock the HtmlHelper. However, I'm running into Null value exceptions. "Parameter name: view" Anyone have any idea?? Thanks. Below are the ideas of the code: [TestMethod] public void TestMethod1() { var helper = CreateHtmlHelper(new ViewDataDictionary()); helper.RenderPartial("Test"); // supposingly this line is within a method to be tested Assert.AreEqual("test", helper.ViewContext.Writer.ToString()); } public static HtmlHelper CreateHtmlHelper(ViewDataDictionary vd) { Mock<ViewContext> mockViewContext = new Mock<ViewContext>( new ControllerContext( new Mock<HttpContextBase>().Object, new RouteData(), new Mock<ControllerBase>().Object), new Mock<IView>().Object, vd, new TempDataDictionary(), new StringWriter()); var mockViewDataContainer = new Mock<IViewDataContainer>(); mockViewDataContainer.Setup(v => v.ViewData) .Returns(vd); return new HtmlHelper(mockViewContext.Object, mockViewDataContainer.Object); }

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  • LINQ to XML - How to get Dictionary from Anonymous Object?

    - by DaveDev
    Currently I'm getting a list of HeaderColumns from the following XML snippet: <PerformancePanel> <HeaderColumns> <column performanceId="12" text="Over last month %" /> <column performanceId="13" text="Over last 3 months %" /> <column performanceId="16" text="1 Year %" /> <column performanceId="18" text="3 Years % p.a." /> <column performanceId="20" text="5 Years % p.a." /> <column performanceId="22" text="10 Years % p.a." /> </HeaderColumns> </PerformancePanel> from which I create an object as follows: (admitedly similar to an earlier question!) var performancePanels = new { Panels = (from panel in doc.Elements("PerformancePanel") select new { HeaderColumns = (from column in panel.Elements("HeaderColumns").Elements("column") select new { PerformanceId = (int)column.Attribute("performanceId"), Text = (string)column.Attribute("text") }).ToList(), }).ToList() }; I'd like if HeaderColumns was a Dictionary() so later I extract the values from the anonymous object like follows: Dictionary<int, string> myHeaders = new Dictionary<int, string>(); foreach (var column in performancePanels.Panels[0].HeaderColumns) { myHeaders.Add(column.PerformanceId, column.Text); } I thought I could achieve this with the Linq to XML with something similar to this HeaderColumns = (from column in panel.Elements("HeaderColumns").Elements("column") select new Dictionary<int, string>() { (int)column.Attribute("performanceId"), (string)column.Attribute("text") }).ToDictionary<int,string>(), but this doesn't work because ToDictionary() needs a Func parameter and I don't know what that is / how to implement it, and the code's probably wrong anyway! Could somebody please suggest how I can achieve the result I need? Thanks.

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  • Differences in accessing resources between Simulator and Device?

    - by Tony
    Is there some difference between the way that bundle resources can be accessed on the iPhone simulator versus a device (in my case, an iPad)? I am able to access a file on the former, but not the latter. NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@",[[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath], @"/AppResources/html/pages/quickHelp.html"]; BOOL fileExists = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]; // fileExists == YES in the debugger on both the simulator and the device NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"AppResources/html/pages/%@", contentsFileName]; NSString *pathForURL = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:path ofType:@"html"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:pathForURL isDirectory:NO]; The code above works fine in the simulator, but on the device pathForResource:path returns nil, so the last line throws a 'nil string parameter' exception. Am I missing something obvious? edit: Of course, in the above @"quickHelp" is being passed in the contentsFileName var. edit2: if it makes any difference, in my build settings "Base SDK" is set to "iPhone Device 4.0", and "iPhone OS Deployment Target" is set to "iPhone OS 3.1.3". Any other settings that might have an influence?

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  • JavaScript: List global variables in IE

    - by Quandary
    I'm trying to get the instance name of my class. The way I do this is I loop through all global objects and compare it with the this pointer. It works in Chrome and FF, but in IE, it doesn't. The problem seems to be the global variables don't seem to be in window. How can I loop through the global variables in IE ? PS: I know it only works as long as there is only one instance, and I don't want to pass the instance's name as a parameter. function myClass() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in this.global) { if (this.global[name] == this) return name } } } function myClass_chrome() { this.myName = function () { // search through the global object for a name that resolves to this object for (var name in window) { if (window[name] == this) return name ; } } ; } // store the global object, which can be referred to as this at the top level, in a // property on our prototype, so we can refer to it in our object's methods myClass.prototype.global = this //myClass_IE.prototype.global = this // create a global variable referring to an object // var myVar = new myClass() var myVar = new myClass_chrome() //var myVar = new myClass_IE() alert(myVar.myName() );// returns "myVar"

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  • "end()" iterator for back inserters?

    - by Thanatos
    For iterators such as those returned from std::back_inserter(), is there something that can be used as an "end" iterator? This seems a little nonsensical at first, but I have an API which is: template<typename InputIterator, typename OutputIterator> void foo( InputIterator input_begin, InputIterator input_end, OutputIterator output_begin, OutputIterator output_end ); foo performs some operation on the input sequence, generating an output sequence. (Who's length is known to foo but may or may not be equal to the input sequence's length.) The taking of the output_end parameter is the odd part: std::copy doesn't do this, for example, and assumes you're not going to pass it garbage. foo does it to provide range checking: if you pass a range too small, it throws an exception, in the name of defensive programming. (Instead of potentially overwriting random bits in memory.) Now, say I want to pass foo a back inserter, specifically one from a std::vector which has no limit outside of memory constraints. I still need a "end" iterator - in this case, something that will never compare equal. (Or, if I had a std::vector but with a restriction on length, perhaps it might sometimes compare equal?) How do I go about doing this? I do have the ability to change foo's API - is it better to not check the range, and instead provide an alternate means to get the required output range? (Which would be needed anyways for raw arrays, but not required for back inserters into a vector.) This would seem less robust, but I'm struggling to make the "robust" (above) work.

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • GridView ObjectDataSource LINQ Paging and Sorting using multiple table query.

    - by user367426
    I am trying to create a pageing and sorting object data source that before execution returns all results, then sorts on these results before filtering and then using the take and skip methods with the aim of retrieving just a subset of results from the database (saving on database traffic). this is based on the following article: http://www.singingeels.com/Blogs/Nullable/2008/03/26/Dynamic_LINQ_OrderBy_using_String_Names.aspx Now I have managed to get this working even creating lambda expressions to reflect the sort expression returned from the grid even finding out the data type to sort for DateTime and Decimal. public static string GetReturnType<TInput>(string value) { var param = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TInput), "o"); Expression a = Expression.Property(param, "DisplayPriceType"); Expression b = Expression.Property(a, "Name"); Expression converted = Expression.Convert(Expression.Property(param, value), typeof(object)); Expression<Func<TInput, object>> mySortExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<TInput, object>>(converted, param); UnaryExpression member = (UnaryExpression)mySortExpression.Body; return member.Operand.Type.FullName; } Now the problem I have is that many of the Queries return joined tables and I would like to sort on fields from the other tables. So when executing a query you can create a function that will assign the properties from other tables to properties created in the partial class. public static Account InitAccount(Account account) { account.CurrencyName = account.Currency.Name; account.PriceTypeName = account.DisplayPriceType.Name; return account; } So my question is, is there a way to assign the value from the joined table to the property of the current table partial class? i have tried using. from a in dc.Accounts where a.CompanyID == companyID && a.Archived == null select new { PriceTypeName = a.DisplayPriceType.Name}) but this seems to mess up my SortExpression. Any help on this would be much appreciated, I do understand that this is complex stuff.

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  • I read 3 pages of a JQuery book and here's my reaction and question

    - by George
    My jQuery reaction to the language's flexible "selectors" is probably rooted in this experience: I once had managed a project where a developer constructed a web page that was used by users to provide very flexible search parameters for a search screen using dynamic sql string building based on the user's specified search parameter. The resulting queries were usually very complicated and involved joins to many tables. One of the options that the user had was to choose from one of 3 an options. Depending on the user's choice for this option, the resulting SQL would need to query a different set of database columns. For example, if choice option "A" were selected, the resulting database columns queried would be prefixed with "A_"; if option "B" were selected, he resulting database columns queried would be prefixed with "B_" and so on. The developer choice to write all the complete SQL assuming that the user selected, for example, option "A" and therefore first constructed SQLs of this type: SQL = "SELECT A_COL1, A_COL2, A_COL3 FROM TABLE ..." and then after constructing one of a million possible variations on the Query From Hell, did something like this: If UserOption = "B" then SQL = SQL.Replace("A_","B_") 'replace everywhere End if He insisted that this was the easiest was to code it, and while I understood that, I was concerned about maintenance of this code. You see, this worked for a while, but as the search options grew and the database columns evolved, the various "REPLACE small substring" with another small substring had unexpected consequences when applied to an evolving database and new search options. My feeling is that code should be written as much as possible such that you can add to it without fear of breaking what is already there. I feel a better approach, though a bit more work, would have been to write a function to return the appropriate target column based on a common set name and the user selected option. OK, so what does this have to do with jQuery selectors? Are the ultra flexible JQuery selectors kind of like perform a "replace all" on a SQL string? Handy as hell but potentially creating a maintenance nightmare?

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Pass view to viewmodel with datatemplate

    - by jpsstavares
    I have a ParameterView and ParameterViewModel, and I need the ParameterViewModel to have a reference to the Parameter view (more on that later). In the window I have a list of ParameterViewModels and in the ResourceDictionary I add the DataTemplate: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type my:ParameterViewModel}" > <my:ParameterView HorizontalAlignment="Left"/> </DataTemplate> I then bind an ItemsControl.ItemSource to the List of ParameterViewModels The problem is: How can I pass the ParameterView to the ParameterViewModel in this scenario? The reason I need the ParameterView in the ParameterViewModel is the following: I have a TextBox whose Text property is binded to the PropertyModelView.Name property. But I want to display a default string when the Name is empty or Null. I've tried to set the property value to the default string I want when that happens but the TextBox.Text is not set in this scenario. I do something like this: private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { if (value == null || value.Length == 0) Name = _defaultName; else _name = value; } } I've also tried to specifically set the TextBox.Text binding mode to TwoWay without success. I think this is a defense mechanism to prevent an infinite loop from happening but I don't know for sure. Any help on this front would also be highly appreciated. Thanks, José Tavares

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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Using variables before include()ing them

    - by phenry
    I'm using a file, page.php, as an HTML container for several content files; i.e., page.php defines most of the common structure of the page, and the content files just contain the text that's unique to every page. What I would like to do is include some PHP code with each content file that defines metadata for the page such as its title, a banner graphic to use, etc. For example, a content file might look like this (simplified): <?php $page_title="My Title"; ?> <h1>Hello world!</h1> The name of the file would be passed as a URL parameter to page.php, which would look like this: <html> <head> <title><?php echo $page_title; ?></title> </head> <body> <?php include($_GET['page']); ?> </body> </html> The problem with this approach is that the variable gets defined after it is used, which of course won't work. Output buffering also doesn't seem to help. Is there an alternate approach I can use? I'd prefer not to define the text in the content file as a PHP heredoc block, because that smashes the HTML syntax highlighting in my text editor. I also don't want to use JavaScript to rewrite page elements after the fact, because many of these pages don't otherwise use JavaScript and I'd rather not introduce it as a dependency if I don't have to.

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  • Facebook Android SDK. Error validating access token

    - by Mj1992
    I am trying to access user information from facebook sdk.But I keep getting this error. {"error":{"message":"Error validating access token: The session has been invalidated because the user has changed the password.","type":"OAuthException","code":190,"error_subcode":460}} Here is the call which returns me the error in the response parameter of the oncomplete function. mAsyncRunner.request("me", new RequestListener() { @Override public void onComplete(String response, Object state) { Log.d("Profile", response); String json = response; //<-- error in response try { JSONObject profile = new JSONObject(json); MainActivity.this.userid = profile.getString("id"); new GetUserProfilePic().execute(); runOnUiThread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Name: " + MainActivity.this.userid, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } }); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("jsonexception",e.getMessage()); facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(MainActivity.this, null); GetUserInfo(); } } @Override public void onIOException(IOException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFileNotFoundException(FileNotFoundException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onMalformedURLException(MalformedURLException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e, Object state) { } }); Sometimes I get the correct response also.I think this is due to the access token expiration if I am right. So can you guys tell me how to extend the access token although I've used this facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(this, null); in the onResume method of the activity. How to solve this?

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  • Code Golf: Numeric Ranges

    - by SLaks
    Mods: Can you please make this Community Wiki? Challenge Compactify a long list of numbers by replacing consecutive runs with ranges. Example Input 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15 Output: 1 - 4, 7, 8, 10, 12 - 15 Note that ranges of two numbers should be left as is. (7, 8; not 7 - 8) Rules You can accept a list of integers (or equivalent datatype) as a method parameter, from the commandline, or from standard in. (pick whichever option results in shorter code) You can output a list of strings by printing them, or by returning either a single string or set of strings. Reference Implementation (C#) IEnumerable<string> Sample(IList<int> input) { for (int i = 0; i < input.Count; ) { var start = input[i]; int size = 1; while (++i < input.Count && input[i] == start + size) size++; if (size == 1) yield return start.ToString(); else if (size == 2) { yield return start.ToString(); yield return (start + 1).ToString(); } else if (size > 2) yield return start + " - " + (start + size - 1); } }

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  • Dropdown list bound to object data source - how to update on a button click

    - by Jen
    This is probably something really stupidly simple.. I have a drop down list bound to an object data source. I have set AppendDataBoundItems to true so that I can have an initial select. <asp:DropDownList ID="Accommodations1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" DataTextField="AccommodationTypeDescription" DataValueField="Id" OnDataBound="Accommodations1_DataBound" onSelectedIndexChanged="Accommodations1_SelectedIndexChanged" Width="200px" DataSourceID="AccommodationDs" AppendDataBoundItems="true"> <asp:ListItem Text="Select" Value=""></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="AccommodationDs" runat="server" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" SelectMethod="ListByPropertyId" TypeName="PropertyAccommodationController"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="PropertyId" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> I have a button which adds an accommodaton - so after that happens I need the dropdown list to update to include the new accommodation. So I've tried calling databind on the dropdownlist, and databind on the datasource - and nothing is making this dropdown list update. eg. PropertyAccommodations1.DataBind(); Could someone please let me know what I'm doing wrong. Originally I thought it was due to an update panel issue.. but I've removed the update panel and it still doesn't work (and checked the master page doesn't include an update panel). Thanks!!

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  • Complicated .NET factory design

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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