Search Results

Search found 7583 results on 304 pages for 'roger guess'.

Page 258/304 | < Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >

• Client-Side caching on IIS7 doesn't seem to work

  - by thomasbtv

  I have set content caching on a specific folder by following the local web.config method. I don't think it works, and I would like to fix this. I activate the cache using the IIS / HTTP Headers / Common headers feature. I set them to 1 day of expiration. I opened a page with Google Chrome in private navigation, and then open the Network tab in the console. The first time I load the page, everything loads from the site, obviously. If I refresh the page, I see 2 types of loading in the Network console: the files from Google and Facebook and such have a status of 200, and a size of (from cache). the files from the folder for which I set the caching have a status of 304 and their size is displayed. So, I guess the caching setting doesn't work? Or does the 304 response means that it's loaded from the cache? If they aren't, how can I make it work ? Thanks !

  Read the article

• How to cancel a deeply nested process

  - by Mystere Man

  I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

  Read the article

• Log in to subdomain via main domain

  - by Mattias

  I have a website, available through multiple domainnames. like www.domain1.com .... www.domain5.com All my customers have their own subdomain. like: customer1.domain1.com customer2.domain1.com .... customer351.domain4.com Currently i dont use SSL, each customer log in their own account via their sub domain. I want to change this, and make all customers log in on a central log in page, that would use SSL, for example. https://login.domain1.com And somehow redirect each user to the correct sub domain adress. (Sub domain that don't use SSL) How do I do this, and maintain security? One idea i had: Login - add random value somewhere in the database, Redirect to subdomain, with querystring the randomvalue. And after that the session takes care of it, Each value can be used once only.. But how secure is that? I guess someone would ask the question "why?" to me. Because SSL costs money. And unfortunately i dont have a lot of it. :D Thanks for your time!

  Read the article

• Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

  - by dan.codes

  I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

  Read the article

• Does this copy the reference or the object?

  - by Water Cooler v2

  Sorry, I am being both thick and lazy, but mostly lazy. Actually, not even that. I am trying to save time so I can do more in less time as there's a lot to be done. Does this copy the reference or the actual object data? public class Foo { private NameValueCollection _nvc = null; public Foo( NameValueCollection nvc) { _nvc = nvc; } } public class Bar { public static void Main() { NameValueCollection toPass = new NameValueCollection(); new Foo( toPass ); // I believe this only copies the reference // so if I ever wanted to compare toPass and // Foo._nvc (assuming I got hold of the private // field using reflection), I would only have to // compare the references and wouldn't have to compare // each string (deep copy compare), right? } I think I know the answer for sure: it only copies the reference. But I am not even sure why I am asking this. I guess my only concern is, if, after instantiating Foo by calling its parameterized ctor with toPass, if I needed to make sure that the NVC I passed as toPass and the NVC private field _nvc had the exact same content, I would just need to compare their references, right?

  Read the article

• JSF h:outputStylesheet doesn't work everywhere

  - by s3rius

  I'm currently learning Icefaces, now I'm trying to integrate a css file via h:OutputStylesheet into my code. I have a main page and a second page. Using outputStylesheet in my main page works well (and then I can also access the css in the second page, which I guess is intended). But when I try to integrate it in my second page it doesn't work at all. The code for both pages is basically identical. main page: <h:head></h:head> <h:body> <!-- this line works --> <h:outputStylesheet library="css" name="style.css" /> <!-- this line is only shown in red if the outputStylesheet from above is there --> <div class="red">This is red color in main page</div> </h:body> second page: <h:head></h:head> <h:body> <!-- this line doesn't work --> <h:outputStylesheet library="css" name="style.css" /> <!-- this line is only shown in red if the outputStylesheet in main page is there --> <div class="red">This is red color in second page</div> </h:body> I've made sure that I have h:body and h:head tags in both files. There's nothing more in the html pages except the standard doctype and xml version declarations. I've tried packing everything into h:forms, but that doesn't change anything. Can anyone explain to me what's going on?

  Read the article

• Why is T() = T() allowed?

  - by Rimo

  I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

  Read the article

• Java Graphics not displaying on successive function calls, why?

  - by primehunter326

  Hi, I'm making a visualization for a BST implementation (I posted another question about it the other day). I've created a GUI which displays the viewing area and buttons. I've added code to the BST implementation to recursively traverse the tree, the function takes in coordinates along with the Graphics object which are initially passed in by the main GUI class. My idea was that I'd just have this function re-draw the tree after every update (add, delete, etc...), drawing a rectangle over everything first to "refresh" the viewing area. This also means I could alter the BST implementation (i.e by adding a balance operation) and it wouldn't affect the visualization. The issue I'm having is that the draw function only works the first time it is called, after that it doesn't display anything. I guess I don't fully understand how the Graphics object works since it doesn't behave the way I'd expect it to when getting passed/called from different functions. I know the getGraphics function has something to do with it. Relevant code: private void draw(){ Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); tree.drawTree(g,ORIGIN,ORIGIN); } vPanel is what I'm drawing on private void drawTree(Graphics g, BinaryNode<AnyType> n, int x, int y){ if( n != null ){ drawTree(g, n.left, x-10,y+10 ); if(n.selected){ g.setColor(Color.blue); } else{ g.setColor(Color.gray); } g.fillOval(x,y,20,20); g.setColor(Color.black); g.drawString(n.element.toString(),x,y); drawTree(g,n.right, x+10,y+10); } } It is passed the root node when it is called by the public function. Do I have to have: Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); ...within the drawTree function? This doesn't make sense!! Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• How can I manage building library projects that produce both a static lib and a dll?

  - by Scott Langham

  I've got a large visual studio solution with ~50 projects. There are configurations for StaticDebug, StaticRelease, Debug and Release. Some libraries are needed in both dll and static lib form. To get them, we rebuild the solution with a different configuration. The Configuration Manager window is used to setup which projects need to build in which flavours, static lib, dynamic dll or both. This can by quite tricky to manage and it's a bit annoying to have to build the solution multiple times and select the configurations in the right order. Static versions need building before non-static versions. I'm wondering, instead of this current scheme, might it be simpler to manage if, for the projects I needed to produce both a static lib and dynamc dll, I created two projects. Eg: CoreLib CoreDll I could either make both of these projects reference all the same files and build them twice, or I'm wondering, would it be possible to build CoreLib and then get CoreDll to link it to generate the dll? I guess my question is, do you have any advice on how to structure your projects in this kind of situation? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to use a TFileStream to read 2D matrices into dynamic array?

  - by Robert Frank

  I need to read a large (2000x2000) matrix of binary data from a file into a dynamic array with Delphi 2010. I don't know the dimensions until run-time. I've never read raw data like this, and don't know IEEE so I'm posting this to see if I'm on track. I plan to use a TFileStream to read one row at a time. I need to be able to read as many of these formats as possible: 16-bit two's complement binary integer 32-bit two's complement binary integer 64-bit two's complement binary integer IEEE single precision floating-point For 32-bit two's complement, I'm thinking something like the code below. Changing to Int64 and Int16 should be straight forward. How can I read the IEEE? Am I on the right track? Any suggestions on this code, or how to elegantly extend it for all 4 data types above? Since my post-processing will be the same after reading this data, I guess I'll have to copy the matrix into a common format when done. I have no problem just having four procedures (one for each data type) like the one below, but perhaps there's an elegant way to use RTTI or buffers and then move()'s so that the same code works for all 4 datatypes? Thanks! type TRowData = array of Int32; procedure ReadMatrix; var Matrix: array of TRowData; NumberOfRows: Cardinal; NumberOfCols: Cardinal; CurRow: Integer; begin NumberOfRows := 20; // not known until run time NumberOfCols := 100; // not known until run time SetLength(Matrix, NumberOfRows); for CurRow := 0 to NumberOfRows do begin SetLength(Matrix[CurRow], NumberOfCols); FileStream.ReadBuffer(Matrix[CurRow], NumberOfCols * SizeOf(Int32)) ); end; end;

  Read the article

• Writing to the DataContext

  - by user738383

  I have a function. This function takes an IEnumerable<Customer> (Customer being an entity). What the function needs to do is tell the DataContext (which has a collection of Customers as a property) that its Customers property needs to be overwritten with this passed in IEnumerable<Customer>. I can't use assignment because DomainContext.Customers cannot be assigned to, as it is read only. I guess it's not clear what I'm asking, so I suppose I should say... how do I do that? So we have DataContext.Customers (of type System.Data.Linq.Table) which wants to be replaced with a System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable. I can't just assign the latter to the former because DataContext's properties are read only. But there must be a way. Edit: here's an image: Further edit: Yes, this image does not feature a collection of the type 'Customer' but rather 'Connection'. It doesn't matter though, they are both created from tables within the linked SQL database. So there is a dc.Connections, a dc.Customers, a dc.Media and so on. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Where can I view rountrip information in my ASP.NET application?

  - by ajax81

  Hi All, I'm playing around with storing application settings in my database, but I think I may have created a situation where superfluous roundtrips are being made. Is there an easy way to view roundtrips made to an MS Access (I know, I know) backend? I guess while I'm here, I should ask for advice on the best way to handle this project. I'm building an app that generates links based on file names (files are numbered ints, 0-5000). The files are stored on network shares, arranged by name, and the paths change frequently as files are bulk transfered to create space, etc. Example: Files 1000 - 2000 go to /path/1000s Files 2001 - 3000 go to /path/2000s Files 3001 - 4000 go to /path/3000s etc I'm sure by now you can see where I'm going with this. Ultimately, I'm trying to avoid making a roundtrip to get the paths for every single file as they are displayed in a gridview. I'm open to the notion that I've gone about this all wrong and that my idea might be rubbish. I've toyed around with the notion of just creating a flat file, but if I do that, do I still run into the problem of having that file opened and closed for every file displayed in a gridview?

  Read the article

• Testing paginated UIScrollView on iPad

  - by Piotr Czapla

  I'm creating a magazine reader (something like iGizmo on iPad). I have two scrollviews one that paginate over articles and second to paginate inside of an article through pages. I'd like to check memory usage of my app after scrolling through 20 pages. To do so I decided to create an automated ui test that scrolls 20 times right and the check the memory foot print at the end of the test. I need that info to have some metrics before I start optimizing the memory usage And Here is the thing: I can't make the ui automation to pass to the second page. My automation code looks like that: var window = UIATarget.localTarget().frontMostApp().mainWindow(); var articleScrollView = window.scrollViews()[0]; articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // do you know any command to wait until first scrolls ends? articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // this one doesn't work I guess that I need to wait for the first scorlling to end before I can run another one, but I don't know how to do that as each page is just an image. (I don't have anything else on pages yet) Any idea?

  Read the article

• I want a function to return a type of the subclass its invoked from

  - by Jay

  I want to have a function defined in a superclass that returns a value of the type of the subclass that is used to invoke the function. That is, say I have class A with a function plugh. Then I create subclasses B and C that extend A. I want B.plugh to return a B and C.plugh to return a C. Yes, they could return an A, but then the caller would have to either cast it to the right subtype, which is a pain when used a lot, or declare the receiving variable to be of the supertype, which loses type safety. So I was trying to do this with generics, writing something like this: class A<T extends A> { private T foo; public T getFoo() { return foo; } } class B extends A<B> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } class C extends A<C> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } This appears to work but it looks pretty ugly. For one thing, I get warnings on "class A". The compiler says that A is generic and I should specify the type. I guess it wants me to say "class A". But what would I put in for x? I think I could get stuck in an infinite loop here. It seems weird to write "class B extends A", but this causes no complaints, so maybe that's just fine. Is this the right way to do it? Is there a better way?

  Read the article

• initWithContentsOfURL seems to have issues with "long" URLs

  - by samsam

  Hi there I'm facing a rather strange Issue when trying to load data from an XML-Webservice. The webservice allows me to pass separated identifiers within the URL-Request. It is therefore possible for the URL to become rather long (240 characters). If I open said URL in firefox the response arrives as planned, if I execute the following code xmlData remains empty. NSString *baseUrl = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[kSearchDateTimeRequestTV stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{LANG}" withString:appLanguageCode] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{IDENTIFIERS}" withString:myIdentifiers] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{STARTTICKS}" withString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[startTime getTicks] descriptionWithLocale:nil]]] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{ENDTICKS}" withString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[endTime getTicks] descriptionWithLocale:nil]]]]; NSLog(baseUrl); //looks good, if openend in browser, returnvalue is ok urlRequest = [NSURL URLWithString:baseUrl]; NSString *xmlData = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:urlRequest encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:&err]; //err is nil, therefore i guess everything must be ok... :( NSLog(xmlData); //nothing... is there any sort of URL-Length restriction, does the same problem happened to anyone of you as well? whats a good workaround? thanks for your help sam

  Read the article

• WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

  - by d3j4vu

  I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

  Read the article

• If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

  - by tlm2021

  So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

  Read the article

• On checkbox checked show radio button

  - by aDameToKillFor

  Hello, I would like to ask for a little help here, since I haven't got any big knowledge in Javascript, nor in jQuery. I need to show 5 radio buttons when a checkbox is checked, the checkboxes represent languages that the user speaks, so for each of the selected, there should appear 5 separate radio buttons for how good they speak it(1 to 5). I tried to do it with jQuery, but I did not manage to get very far away... This is where my checkboxes are created(dynamically): <% for(int i = 0; i < Model.Languages.Count; i++) { %> <input id="applang" name="applang" type="checkbox" value="<%: Model.Languages[i].languageID%>" /> <%: Model.Languages[i].name.ToString() %><br /> <%} %> So, I tried to add this script, but it's not working: <script type="text/javascript"> $("input[@name='applang']").click(function () { $("input[type='radio']").show(); }); I also tried this way - to use this javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle_visibility(id) { var e = document.getElementById(id); if (e.style.display == 'block') e.style.display = 'none'; else e.style.display = 'block'; } And it works, but it works on already present controls, and I guess I need to create mine dynamically, or maybe not? And I tried to hide a present control with CSS, but then when the script shows it, it is there, only invisible :) Also, I would want to get the name and value of the radio buttons from my database, i.e. Model(this is ASP.NET MVC).. Can someone help me a little bit, please?

  Read the article

• Trouble tunneling my local Wordpress install to the mysql database on appfog

  - by alanmoo

  I've set up a wordpress install on appfog (using rackspace), and cloned the install to my local machine for development. I know the install works (using MAMP) because I created a local mysql database and changed wp-config.php to point to it. However, I want to develop without having to change wp-config.php every time I commit. After doing some research, it seems like the Appfog service Caldecott lets me tunnel into the mysql database on the server, using af tunnel. Unfortunately, I'm having issues with getting it working. Even if I change my MAMP mysql port to something like 8889, and tunnel mysql through port 3306, it looks like it's connected but I still get "Error establishing a database connection" when loading my localhost Wordpress. When I quit the mysql monitor (using ctrl+x, ctrl+c), I get a message stating "Error: 'mysql' execution failed; is it in your $PATH?'. Originally, no, it wasn't, but I've fixed my PATH variable on my local machine so that when I go to Terminal and just type mysql, it loads up. So I guess my question is 2 parts: 1.)Am I going with the right approach for Wordpress development on my local machine and 2.)If so, why is the tunnel not working?

  Read the article

• Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

  - by Tyler

  I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

  Read the article

• .net web service annoying issue

  - by JL

  Excuse the title, but it's best I just explain the problem. I have 2 projects in my solution A Class Library A Web Application, which consists of a web service (asmx). the web service has code sitting in the app_code folder, with a file [webservicename].cs Inside the webservice code behind class, I have a web method here is a sample example (its simplified): [WebMethod] public EnumTaskExportState ProcessTask() { var tm = new UploadTaskManager(); return tm.ProcessTask(); } Now at design time, in visual studio (2010 or 2008), when I right click on UploadTaskMananger, and then select "Go to definition". I get taken to AppData\Temp[some folder structure]...etc.... and it displays the public class definition. Instead I would like to have complete integration, so that I get taken directly to the actual class in the class library project. My guess is, this is happening because I am using the app_code route, and not a compiled file for the web service class. But I don't know any other way to do this. How can I fix this? Possibly do away with the need for the app_code directory?

  Read the article

• PHP hashing function not working properly

  - by Jordan Foreman

  So I read a quick PHP login system securing article, and was trying to sort of duplicate their hashing method, and during testing, am not getting the proper output. Here is my code: function decryptPassword($pw, $salt){ $hash = hash('sha256', $salt . hash('sha256', $pw)); return $hash; } function encryptPassword($pw){ $hash = hash('sha256', $pw); $salt = substr(md5(uniqid(rand(), true)), 0, 3); $hash = hash('sha265', $salt . $hash); return array( 'salt' => $salt, 'hash' => $hash ); } And here is my testing code: $pw = $_GET['pw']; $enc = encryptPassword($pw); $hash = $enc['hash']; $salt = $enc['salt']; echo 'Pass: ' . $pw . '<br />'; echo 'Hash: ' . $hash . '<br />'; echo 'Salt: ' . $salt . '<br />'; echo 'Decrypt: ' . decryptPassword($hash, $salt); Now, the output of this should be pretty obvious, but unfortunately, the $hash variable always comes out empty! I'm trying to figure out what the problem could be, and my only guess would be the second $hash assignment line in the encryptPassword(..) function. After a little testing, I've determined that the first assignment works smoothly, but the second does not. Any suggestions? Thanks SO!

  Read the article

• For each result in MySQL query, push to array (complicated)

  - by Dylan Taylor

  Okay, here's what I'm trying to do. I am running a MySQL query for the most recent posts. For each of the returned rows, I need to push the ID of the row to an array, then within that ID in the array, I need to add more data from the rows. A multi-dimensional array. Here's my code thus far. $query = "SELECT * FROM posts ORDER BY id DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($query); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ $id = $row["id"]; $post_title = $row["title"]; $post_text = $row["text"]; $post_tags = $row["tags"]; $post_category = $row["category"]; $post_date = $row["date"]; } As you can see I haven't done anything with arrays yet. Here's an ideal structure I'm looking for, just incase you're confused. The master array I guess you could call it. We'll just call this array $posts. Within this array, I have one array for each row returned in my MySQL query. Within those arrays there is the $post_title, $post_text, etc. How do I do this? I'm so confused.. an example would be really appreciated. -Dylan

  Read the article

• Display Consistent Value of an Item using MVVM and WPF

  - by Blake Blackwell

  In my list view control (or any other WPF control that will fit the situation), I would like to have one TextBlock that stays consistent for all items while another TextBlock that changes based on the value in the ObservableCollection. Here is how my code is currently laid out: XAML <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock x:Name="StrVal" Text="{Binding StrVal}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ConstVal" Text="{Binding MyVM.ConstVal}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> Model public class MyItem { public string StrVal { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyVM { public MyVM() { ObservableCollection<MyItem> myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); for (int i = 0 ; i < 10; i++) myItems.Add(new MyItem { StrVal = i.ToString()}); MyItems = myItems; ConstVal = "1"; } public string ConstVal { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get; set; } } Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyVM(); The StrVal property repeats correctly in the ListView, but the ConstVal TextBlock does not show the ConstVal that is contained in the VM. I would guess that this is because the ItemsSource of the ListView is MyItems and I can't reference other variables outside of what is contained in the MyItems. My question is: How do I get ConstVal to show the value in the ViewModel for all listviewitems that will be controlled by the Observable Collection of MyItems.

  Read the article

• How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

  - by qstarin

  I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >