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• How can i design a DB where the user can define the fields and types of a detail table in a M-D rela

  - by Simon

  My application has one table called 'events' and each event has approx 30 standard fields, but also user defined fields that could be any name or type, in an 'eventdata' table. Users can define these event data tables, by specifying x number of fields (either text/double/datetime/boolean) and the names of these fields. This 'eventdata' (table) can be different for each 'event'. My current approach is to create a lookup table for the definitions. So if i need to query all 'event' and 'eventdata' per record, i do so in a M-D relaitionship using two queries (i.e. select * from events, then for each record in 'events', select * from 'some table'). Is there a better approach to doing this? I have implemented this so far, but most of my queries require two distinct calls to the DB - i cannot simply join my master 'events' table with different 'eventdata' tables for each record in in 'events'. I guess my main question is: can i join my master table with different detail tables for each record? E.g. SELECT E.*, E.Tablename FROM events E LEFT JOIN 'E.tablename' T ON E._ID = T.ID If not, is there a better way to design my database considering i have no idea on how many user defined fields there may be and what type they will be.

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• selenium and firefox timeout behavior

  - by Md. Reazul Karim

  I am facing this strange timeout behavior. I tried to load some page using: WebDriver drv = new FirefoxDriver(); drv.manage().timeouts().implicitlyWait(10, TimeUnit.SECONDS); drv.get(url); String email = ""; try { WebElement aElem = Util.safeFindElementByXpath(drv, "//p[1]/a[1]"); if (aElem != null) { email = aElem.getAttribute("href"); } } catch (Exception e) { } drv.quit(); return email; The safeFindElementByXpath is: static WebElement safeFindElementByXpath(WebDriver driver, String xpath) { try { return driver.findElement(By.xpath(xpath)); } catch (NoSuchElementException e) { return null; } } Now I set the firefox network.http.connection-timeout and network.http.connection-retry-timeout both to 10. Now if I restart the firefox I can see the new values. But if I try to run the above code - the firefox window opens and it waits for a particular website for a long time. Hence I open another tab in the same firefox window and check the values of timeout and find them to be 90 and 250. If I change the values on that same window, the selenium code immediately finishes requesting for the page (ie it goes after the exception block). So the thing is that the same code will work on many sites and I don't know beforehand which site is invalid/down and I was thinking of putting this code in a separate thread and kill the thread after some time from the calling thread. But that is not possible I guess because the child thread has no way to poll anything as it is stuck at page request and can't go to the polling code afterwards. Now the thing is that I want any kind of hack/workaround to accomplish this: try getting the emails for good sites and if there are bad sites just give up after a certain period (press the panic button sorta thing). Thanks

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• How to parse multiple dates from a block of text in Python (or another language)

  - by mlissner

  I have a string that has several date values in it, and I want to parse them all out. The string is natural language, so the best thing I've found so far is dateutil. Unfortunately, if a string has multiple date values in it, dateutil throws an error: >>> s = "I like peas on 2011-04-23, and I also like them on easter and my birthday, the 29th of July, 1928" >>> parse(s, fuzzy=True) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.7/dateutil/parser.py", line 697, in parse return DEFAULTPARSER.parse(timestr, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.7/dateutil/parser.py", line 303, in parse raise ValueError, "unknown string format" ValueError: unknown string format Any thoughts on how to parse all dates from a long string? Ideally, a list would be created, but I can handle that myself if I need to. I'm using Python, but at this point, other languages are probably OK, if they get the job done. PS - I guess I could recursively split the input file in the middle and try, try again until it works, but it's a hell of a hack.

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• MySQL Datefields: duplicate or calculate?

  - by Konerak

  We are using a table with a structure imposed upon us more than 10 years ago. We are allowed to add columns, but urged not to change existing columns. Certain columns are meant to represent dates, but are put in different format. Amongst others: * CHAR(6): YYMMDD * CHAR(6): DDMMYY * CHAR(8): YYYYMMDD * CHAR(8): DDMMYYYY * DATE * DATETIME Since we now would like to do some more complex queries, using advanced date functions, my manager proposed to d*uplicate those problem columns* to a proper FORMATTED_OLDCOLUMNNAME column using a DATE or DATETIME format. Is this the way to go? Couldn't we just use the STR_TO_DATE function each time we accessed the columns? To avoid every query having to copy-paste the function, I could still work with a view or a stored procedure, but duplicating data to avoid recalculation sounds wrong. Solutions I see (I guess I prefer 2.2.1) 1. Physically duplicate columns 1.1 In the same table 1.1.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.1.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 1.2 In a separate table 1.2.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.2.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 2. On-demand transformation 2.1 Each query has to perform the transformation 2.1.1 Using copy-paste in the source code 2.1.2 Using a library 2.1.3 Using a STORED PROCEDURE 2.2 A view performs the transformation 2.2.1 A separate table replacing the entire table 2.2.2 A separate table just adding the date-fields for the primary keys Am I right to say it's better to recalculate than to store? And would a view be a good solution?

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• I want a function to return a type of the subclass its invoked from

  - by Jay

  I want to have a function defined in a superclass that returns a value of the type of the subclass that is used to invoke the function. That is, say I have class A with a function plugh. Then I create subclasses B and C that extend A. I want B.plugh to return a B and C.plugh to return a C. Yes, they could return an A, but then the caller would have to either cast it to the right subtype, which is a pain when used a lot, or declare the receiving variable to be of the supertype, which loses type safety. So I was trying to do this with generics, writing something like this: class A<T extends A> { private T foo; public T getFoo() { return foo; } } class B extends A<B> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } class C extends A<C> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } This appears to work but it looks pretty ugly. For one thing, I get warnings on "class A". The compiler says that A is generic and I should specify the type. I guess it wants me to say "class A". But what would I put in for x? I think I could get stuck in an infinite loop here. It seems weird to write "class B extends A", but this causes no complaints, so maybe that's just fine. Is this the right way to do it? Is there a better way?

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• Manual Linq to SQL entity framework mapping

  - by kprobst

  I've been playing with the O/R designer in VS and I was wondering if someone could shed come light on this. I'm used to OR mappers that are largely manual (homegrown and e.g., NHibernate). I don't mind encoding the entity classes myself, since they don't change all that often to begin with, and I have this irrational fear of designers and auto generated code as it is. I have noticed that the generated entity classes contain a lot of boilerplate extensibility methods, e.g. On[Property]Changed() and so on where [Property] is a mapped member of the class. These are placed in the setters of the property accessors. I assume it's OK if I don't include these when I do my hand coding, correct? They would be nice if I needed some sort of interception pattern but that's certainly not the case. I guess I just need to know if any of those methods are required by the entity framework to keep track of changes to the mapping types in order for things to work when updating the database. Thanks!

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• Strange behaviour when collapsing lines in XML bound WPF Datagrid

  - by Flossn

  i am using a wpf datagrid with a xml file as DataContext. All working good except for iterating thorough the table and collapsing individual rows. There are several checkboxes where the user can decide which kinds of rows he wants to see, dependent on their error level string. If a checkbox is checked, some of the rows are collapsed, others not. You need to uncheck the checkbox and check it again to collapse the ones of the first try and some of the others. If you recheck it again more rows are collapsed every time. I guess it has something to do with how much of the list is actually visible and how much not because of the window size. Thanks in advance. foreach (DataGridRow r in rows) { bool showRow = true; var tb = Datagrid.GetCell(dataGridEvents, r, 2).Content; string level = ((TextBlock)tb).Text; switch (level) { case "Warning": showRow = checkBoxWarnings.IsChecked.HasValue ? checkBoxWarnings.IsChecked.Value : false; break; case "Critical": showRow = checkBoxCritical.IsChecked.HasValue ? checkBoxCritical.IsChecked.Value : false; break; case "OK": showRow = checkBoxOK.IsChecked.HasValue ? checkBoxOK.IsChecked.Value : false; break; case "Unknown": showRow = checkBoxUnknown.IsChecked.HasValue ? checkBoxUnknown.IsChecked.Value : false; break; } r.Visibility = showRow ? Visibility.Visible : Visibility.Collapsed; }

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• .net web service annoying issue

  - by JL

  Excuse the title, but it's best I just explain the problem. I have 2 projects in my solution A Class Library A Web Application, which consists of a web service (asmx). the web service has code sitting in the app_code folder, with a file [webservicename].cs Inside the webservice code behind class, I have a web method here is a sample example (its simplified): [WebMethod] public EnumTaskExportState ProcessTask() { var tm = new UploadTaskManager(); return tm.ProcessTask(); } Now at design time, in visual studio (2010 or 2008), when I right click on UploadTaskMananger, and then select "Go to definition". I get taken to AppData\Temp[some folder structure]...etc.... and it displays the public class definition. Instead I would like to have complete integration, so that I get taken directly to the actual class in the class library project. My guess is, this is happening because I am using the app_code route, and not a compiled file for the web service class. But I don't know any other way to do this. How can I fix this? Possibly do away with the need for the app_code directory?

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• Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

  - by ajkochanowicz

  Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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• Call stored proc using xml output from a table

  - by user263097

  Under a tight deadline and I know I can figure this out eventually but I don't have much time to do it on my own. I have a table that has columns for customer id and account number among many other additional columns. There could be many accounts for a single customer (Many rows with the same customer id but different account number). For each customer in the table I need to call a stored procedure and pass data from my table as xml in the following format. Notice that the xml is for all of the customers accounts. <Accounts> <Account> <AccountNumber>12345</AccountNumber> <AccountStatus>Open</AccountStatus> </Account> <Account> <AccountNumber>54321</AccountNumber> <AccountStatus>Closed</AccountStatus> </Account> </Accounts> So I guess I need help with 2 things. First, how to get the data in this xml format. I assuming I'll use some variation of FOR XML. The other thing is how do I group by customer id and then call a sproc for each customer id?

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• best PHP programming approach?

  - by Nazmin

  Hello guys, i guess that many of us has acceptable years of experience in PHP programming, me myself got 5 years programming in PHP since in University (not very solid), i just want to gather some suggestion here, what is better approach in PHP OOP? Since there is a lot of PHP framework out there as well as javascript framework, can anyone share their experience in using one of them as well as using both of the PHP and javascript framework together especially for developing enterprise system? (my company want to start using framework, ISP company) if someone has his/her own framework or class or php file so on and so forth, mind to share? now I've only database connection class. I've never use any php framework before, just jquery as javascript framework, my company has a messed up of programming approach because they did not actually a software house, so all the files are scattered across the server, I see that there are some question before about the framework but i just want to know you all approaches on OOP and in developing massive web apps using PHP, or maybe someone kind enough to share their solid written class. Also pro's and con's of all this things. Thanks in advance.

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• Why are my bound parameters all identical (using Linq)?

  - by Scott Stafford

  When I run this snippet of code: string[] words = new string[] { "foo", "bar" }; var results = from row in Assets select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Name.Contains(word)); } I get this SQL: -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' DECLARE @p1 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' -- EndRegion SELECT ... FROM [Assets] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p0) AND ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p1) Note that @p0 and @p1 are both bar, when I wanted them to be foo and bar. I guess Linq is somehow binding a reference to the variable word rather than a reference to the string currently referenced by word? What is the best way to avoid this problem? (Also, if you have any suggestions for a better title for this question, please put it in the comments.) Note that I tried this with regular Linq also, with the same results (you can paste this right into Linqpad): string[] words = new string[] { "f", "a" }; string[] dictionary = new string[] { "foo", "bar", "jack", "splat" }; var results = from row in dictionary select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Contains(word)); } results.Dump(); Dumps: bar jack splat

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• ASP.NET: how can I compile in DEBUG mode?

  - by Budda

  AFAIK, usual ASP.NET web site/web application switched on into DEBUG mode when web/app-config setting "compilation" has debug="false". But I don't clearly understand how it works. Let's consider example: I have <compilation debug="true" />. I've added the following line into "Page_Load" method: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("Page_Load"); When I launched web-site in 'debug' mode (using F5 button) It put me 'Page_Load' into output window. Everything is ok so far. When I change application compilation mode into non-debug: Will it recompile everything for 'non-debug' mode? Is this enough to go into "production" environment with this change only? I guess, it should be enough for web-site that doesn't use other project. Otherwise, I would better switch whole configuration into "Release" mode. In this case EACH project will be recompiled in "Release" mode. Am I right? Could you please point me if something is wrong here? Thanks a lot!

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• How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

  - by de3

  Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

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• Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

  - by Neil Traft

  Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

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• When is it possible to override top-level bindings in (R7RS) scheme?

  - by Marc

  I have read the current draft of the forthcoming R7RS scheme standard (small language), but I don't understand under which conditions it is not an error to redefine top-level bindings. I guess that it is possible to define or set! a binding that has been introduced at the top-level of a program a second time. But what about imported bindings from an external library? Is it possible to override these bindings by the standard? On page 26/27 of the report, it says: The top level of a program may also include import declarations. In a library declaration, it is an error to import the same identifier more than once with different bindings, or to redefine or mutate an imported binding with define, define-syntax or set!. However, a REPL should permit these actions. Does it mean that redefining is only an error when it does happen in libraries for imported bindings? I understand that it prohibits optimisations by compilers if the compiler does not know whether, say + still means the built-in addition or is any other user-specified error. But from this perspective, it does not make sense to restrict forbidding to rebind on the library level, when it would also make sense (at least) for imported bindings in programs. P.S.: As this is all about the environment of a scheme program: am I right in saying that environments are not first class citizens because one cannot get hold of the current environment? (Which, in turn, allows a compiled program to forget about the chosen names of the bindings.)

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• What does an object look like in memory?

  - by NeilMonday

  This is probably a really dumb question, but I will ask anyway. I am curious what an object looks like in memory. Obviously it would have to have all of its member data in it. I assume that functions for an object would not be duplicated in memory (or maybe I am wrong?). It would seem wasteful to have 999 objects in memory all with the same function defined over and over. If there is only 1 function in memory for all 999 objects, then how does each function know who's member data to modify (I specifically want to know at the low level). Is there an object pointer that gets sent to the function behind the scenes? Perhaps it is different for every compiler? Also, how does the static keyword affect this? With static member data, I would think that all 999 objects would use the exact same memory location for their static member data. Where does this get stored? Static functions I guess would also just be one place in memory, and would not have to interact with instantiated objects, which I think I understand.

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• Javascript doesn't change document?

  - by egbokul

  Take a look at this example code, which doesn't work: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function moveMe() { document.getElementById('moveme').top = 200; document.getElementById('moveme').style.backgroundcolor = 'green'; document.getElementById('writeme').innerHtml = 'abc'; alert('called!'); } // --> </script> <style type="text/css"> .moveable { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 200px; width: 100px; height: 100px; background-color: yellow; } #writeme { background-color: red; color: white; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="moveme" class="moveable" onClick="moveMe()"> <p id="writeme">Hello!</p> </div> </body> </html> When I click on the text the alert is displayed, but nothing is changed in the document. The paragraph text is not overwritten, the div is not moved... tested it in FF and IE, also checked the DOM via Firebug: strange thing is that the new values are written to the nodes, but they are displayed in bold, and the old values are still there. WTF? I guess I'm missing something fundamental here.

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• Unexpected output using subprocess in Python

  - by Vic

  I am trying to run a shell command from within my Python (version 2.6.5) code, but it is generating different output than the same command run within the shell (bash): bash: ~> ifconfig eth0 | sed -rn 's/inet addr:(([0-9]{1,3}\.){3}[0-9]{1,3}).*/\1/p' | sed 's/^[ \t]*//;s/[ \t]*$//' 192.168.1.10 Python: >>> def get_ip(): ... cmd_string = "ifconfig eth0 | sed -rn \'s/inet addr:(([0-9]{1,3}\.){3}[0-9]{1,3}).*/\1/p' | sed 's/^[ \t]*//;s/[ \t]*$//\'" ... process = subprocess.Popen(cmd_string, shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE) ... out, err = process.communicate() ... return out ... >>> get_ip() '\x01\n' My guess is that I need to escape the quotes somehow when running in python, but I am not sure how to go about this. NOTE: I cannot install additional modules or update python on the machine that this code needs to be run on. It needs to work as-is with Python 2.6.5 and the standard library.

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• How Are These Styles Cascading?

  - by user1569275

  Problem is viewable at this link. http://dansdemos.info/prototypes/htmlSamples/responsive/step08_megaGridForward.html The three boxes need to have green backgrounds, but another style is taking precedence. I thought styles were supposed to take precedence based on where they appear in the style sheets, with styles lower in the style sheet cascading (taking precedence) over styles higher in the style sheet. I guess that is wrong, because the style sheet for the background colors of those boxes is here: #maincontent .col { background: #ccc; background: rgba(204, 204, 204, 0.85); } #callout1 { background-color: #00B300; text-align:center; } #callout2 { background-color: #00CC00; text-align:center; } #callout3 { background-color: #00E600; text-align:center; } When the style for "#maincontent .col" is removed, the green shows up (link)http://dansdemos.info/prototypes/htmlSamples/responsive/step08_megaGridForwardGreen.html, but I thought the green should show up because it is after the gray color specified higher up. I am finding a way to get what I need, but it would really make it a lot easier if I understood why the backgrounds are gray, instead of green. Any assistance would be extremely much appreciated. Thank you.

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• Ruby & ActiveRecord: referring to integer fields by (uniquely mapped) strings

  - by JP

  While its not my application a simple way to explain my problem is to assume I'm running a URL shortener. Rather than attempt to try and figure out what the next string I should use as the unique section of the URL, I just index all my URLs by integer and map the numbers to strings behind the scenes, essentially just changing the base of the number to, let's say, 62: a-z + A-Z + 0-9. In ActiveRecord I can easily alter the reader for the url_id field so that it returns my base 62 string instead of the number being stored in the database: class Short < ActiveRecord::Base def url_id i = read_attribute(:convo) return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << CHARS[i.modulo(62)] i /= 62 end s end end but is there a way to tell ActiveRecord to accept Short.find(:first,:conditions=>{:url_id=>'Ab7'}), ie. putting the 'decoding' logic into my Short ActiveRecord class? I guess I could define my own def self.find_by_unique_string(string), but that feels like cheating somehow! Thanks!

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• How can flash call jquery function in its event

  - by user2955639

  I want jquery to do something during some of the events when an audio is playing. So I'm coding a function like this <script> $.fn.playMedia = function(options){ var opts = $.extend({}, { swfSrc: '' timeUpdated: function(currentTime){}, startPlay: function(){}, endPlay: function(){} }, options); return $(this).each(function(){ // call flash to play the media whose src is opts.swfSrc // Is it possible that flash can call the js functions(opts.timeUpdate, opts.startPlay and opts.endPlay) at each time of the event is triggered? }); }}; </script> // Usage <div id="player"></div> <script> $('#player').playMedia({ swfSrc: '/path/song.mp3', timeUpdated: function(currentTime){ comsole.log(currentTime); } }); </script> I'm a totally layman of flash, I just guess this works. Hope someone could tell me how to make up a swf file for this jquery function. Or is there any existing jquery plugin which does this thing but can re-design apperance flexibly. Thank you very much!

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• Criteria for triggering garbage collection in .Net

  - by Kennet Belenky

  I've come across some curious behavior with regard to garbage collection in .Net. The following program will throw an OutOfMemoryException very quickly (after less than a second on a 32-bit, 2GB machine). The Foo finalizer is never called. class Foo { static Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference> allFoos = new Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference>(); Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000000]; static Random rand = new Random(); public Foo() { // Uncomment the following line and the program will run forever. // rand.NextBytes(buffer); allFoos[guid] = new WeakReference(this); } ~Foo() { allFoos.Remove(guid); } static public void Main(string args[]) { for (; ; ) { new Foo(); } } } If the rand.nextBytes line is uncommented, it will run ad infinitum, and the Foo finalizer is regularly invoked. Why is that? My best guess is that in the former case, either the CLR or the Windows VMM is lazy about allocating physical memory. The buffer never gets written to, so the physical memory is never used. When the address space runs out, the system crashes. In the latter case, the system runs out of physical memory before it runs out of address space, the GC is triggered and the objects are collected. However, here's the part I don't get. Assuming my theory is correct, why doesn't the GC trigger when the address space runs low? If my theory is incorrect, then what's the real explanation?

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• git: How to move last N commits made to master, into own branch?

  - by amn

  Hi all, I have a repository where I had been working on master branch having last committed some 10 or so commits which I now wish were in another branch, as they describe work that I now consider experimental (i am still learning good git practices). Basically I would like to have these last 10 commits starting from a point in master to form another branch instead, so that I can have my master in a release state (which is what I strive for.) So, this is what I have (rightmost X is the last commit good for release): b--b (feature B) / X--X--X--Z--Z--Z--Z--Z--Z (master) \ a--a--a (feature A) You can see that both X and Z are on master, while I want commits marked by Z (my feature Z work) to lie on their own feature branch, and so that rightmost X is at the tip of master forming a good master branch tip. I guess this is what I want: b--b (feature B) / X--X--X (master) \ \ \ Z--Z--Z--Z--Z--Z (feature Z - the branch I want Z on) a--a--a (feature A) That way I will have my master always ready for release, and merge A, B and Z features when the time comes. Hope I am making sense here...

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• Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

  - by Tyler

  I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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