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• Check a list of packages to install with apt-get

  - by Joel

  I am writing a post-install script for Ubuntu in Perl (same script as seen here). One of the steps is to install a list of packages. The problem is that if apt-get install fails in some of many different ways for any one of the packages the script dies badly. I would like to prevent that from happening. This happens because of the ways that apt-get install fails for packages that it doesn't like. For example when I try to install a nonsense word (i.e. typed in the wrong package name) $ sudo apt-get install oblihbyvl Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done E: Unable to locate package oblihbyvl but if instead the package name has been obsoleted (installing handbrake from ppa) $ sudo apt-get install handbrake Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done Package handbrake is not available, but is referred to by another package. This may mean that the package is missing, has been obsoleted, or is only available from another source E: Package 'handbrake' has no installation candidate $ apt-cache search handbrake handbrake-cli - versatile DVD ripper and video transcoder - command line handbrake-gtk - versatile DVD ripper and video transcoder - GTK GUI I have tried parsing the results of apt-cache and apt-get -s install to try to catch all possibilities before doing the install, but I seem to keep finding new ways to allow failures to continue to the actual install system command. My question is, is there some facility either in Perl (e.g. a module, though I would like to avoid installing modules if possible as this is supposed to be the first thing run after a new install of Ubuntu) or apt-* or dpkg that would let me be sure that the packages are all available to be installed before installing and if not fail gracefully in some way that lets the user decide what to do?

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• Django | passing form values

  - by MMRUser

  I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

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• Handling Denormalized Schema with Eclipselink

  - by iamrohitbanga

  Hello All I have a denormalized table containing employee information. The fields are employee id, name and department name. The primary key is a composite one consisting of all three fields. An employee can belong to multiple departments. I want to read/write the objects in the table using the Eclipselink Dynamic Persistence API (which is infact a wrapper on top of JPA descriptors etc.). Example Data: 1 e1 dep1 2 e1 dep2 3 e2 dep1 4 e2 dep3 5 e3 dep1 5 e3 dep2 5 e3 dep3 A normal ReadAllQuery (select query) on the table returns a DynamicEntity corresponding to each row in the table. However I want to club all entities based on the emp id and return all the departments he belongs to as a list. I can merge the entities after retrieving them but if I can use some Eclipselink feature out of the box then it would be better. One way to do the read is the following: I create two dynamic types corresponding to employee: Having id,name as the primary key Having id, department as the primary key, I create a OneToManyMapping from the first type to the second one. Then when I query the first type it does return the departments to which employee belongs as a list of DynamicEntity of the second type. This satisfies the read scenario. Is there a better way of doing this? Is this inherently supported by Eclipselink or JPA? I cannot get the same dynamic type configuration working for the write scenario. This is because when I write the changes using the writeObject method of UnitOfWork, it generates insert queries which enter the following entries in the table id name department 102 emp_102 102 st 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 instead of: id name department 102 emp_102 st 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 Is there any way I can get write to work with this schema using eclipselink? I want to avoid doing the heavy lifting of merging the rows for such a denormalized schema or generating each row before doing a write. Is there no clean way of doing this using Eclipselink or JPA? Thanks in Advance.

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• Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

  - by Avatar_Squadron

  Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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• Linq - reuse expression on child property

  - by user175528

  Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

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• OCaml delimiters and scopes

  - by Jack

  Hello! I'm learning OCaml and although I have years of experience with imperative programming languages (C, C++, Java) I'm getting some problems with delimiters between declarations or expressions in OCaml syntax. Basically I understood that I have to use ; to concatenate expressions and the value returned by the sequence will be the one of last expression used, so for example if I have exp1; exp2; exp3 it will be considered as an expression that returns the value of exp3. Starting from this I could use let t = something in exp1; exp2; exp3 and it should be ok, right? When am I supposed to use the double semicol ;;? What does it exactly mean? Are there other delimiters that I must use to avoid syntax errors? I'll give you an example: let rec satisfy dtmc state pformula = match (state, pformula) with (state, `Next sformula) -> let s = satisfy_each dtmc sformula and adder a state = let p = 0.; for i = 0 to dtmc.matrix.rows do p <- p +. get dtmc.matrix i state.index done; a +. p in List.fold_left adder 0. s | _ -> [] It gives me syntax error on | but I don't get why.. what am I missing? This is a problem that occurs often and I have to try many different solutions until it suddently works :/ A side question: declaring with let instead that let .. in will define a var binding that lasts whenever after it has been defined? What I basically ask is: what are the delimiters I have to use and when I have to use them. In addition are there differences I should consider while using the interpreter ocaml instead that the compiler ocamlc? Thanks in advance!

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• What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

  - by Chris

  Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

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• Trie Backtracking in Recursion

  - by Darksky

  I am building a tree for a spell checker with suggestions. Each node contains a key (a letter) and a value (array of letters down that path). So assume the following sub-trie in my big trie: W / \ a e | | k k | | is word--> e e | ... This is just a subpath of a sub-trie. W is a node and a and e are two nodes in its value array etc... At each node, I check if the next letter in the word is a value of the node. I am trying to support mistyped vowels for now. So 'weke' will yield 'wake' as a suggestion. Here's my searchWord function in my trie: def searchWord(self, word, path=""): if len(word) > 0: key = word[0] word = word[1:] if self.values.has_key(key): path = path + key nextNode = self.values[key] return nextNode.searchWord(word, path) else: # check here if key is a vowel. If it is, check for other vowel substitutes else: if self.isWord: return path # this is the word found else: return None Given 'weke', at the end when word is of length zero and path is 'weke', my code will hit the second big else block. weke is not marked as a word and so it will return with None. This will return out of searchWord with None. To avoid this, at each stack unwind or recursion backtrack, I need to check if a letter is a vowel and if it is, do the checking again. I changed the if self.values.has_key(key) loop to the following: if self.values.has_key(key): path = path + key nextNode = self.values[key] ret = nextNode.searchWord(word, path) if ret == None: # check if key == vowel and replace path # return nextNode.searchWord(... return ret What am I doing wrong here? What can I do when backtracking to achieve what I'm trying to do?

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• Mongodb - how to deserialze when a property has an Interface return type

  - by Mark Kelly

  I'm attempting to avoid introducing any dependencies between my Data layer and client code that makes use of this layer, but am running into some problems when attempting to do this with Mongo (using the MongoRepository) MongoRepository shows examples where you create Types that reflect your data structure, and inherit Entity where required. Eg. [CollectionName("track")] public class Track : Entity { public string name { get; set; } public string hash { get; set; } public Artist artist { get; set; } public List<Publish> published {get; set;} public List<Occurence> occurence {get; set;} } In order to make use of these in my client code, I'd like to replace the Mongo-specific types with Interfaces, e.g: [CollectionName("track")] public class Track : Entity, ITrackEntity { public string name { get; set; } public string hash { get; set; } public IArtistEntity artist { get; set; } public List<IPublishEntity> published {get; set;} public List<IOccurenceEntity> occurence {get; set;} } However, the Mongo driver doesn't know how to treat these interfaces, and I understandably get the following error: An error occurred while deserializing the artist property of class sf.data.mongodb.entities.Track: No serializer found for type sf.data.IArtistEntity. --- MongoDB.Bson.BsonSerializationException: No serializer found for type sf.data.IArtistEntity. Does anyone have any suggestions about how I should approach this?

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• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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• Why would using a Temp table be faster than a nested query?

  - by Mongus Pong

  We are trying to optimise some of our queries. One query is doing the following: SELECT t.TaskID, t.Name as Task, '' as Tracker, t.ClientID, (<complex subquery>) Date, INTO [#Gadget] FROM task t SELECT TOP 500 TaskID, Task, Tracker, ClientID, dbo.GetClientDisplayName(ClientID) as Client FROM [#Gadget] order by CASE WHEN Date IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE 0 END , Date ASC DROP TABLE [#Gadget] (I have removed the complex subquery, cos I dont think its relevant other than to explain why this query has been done as a two stage process.) Now I would have thought it would be far more efficient to merge this down into a single query using subqueries as : SELECT TOP 500 TaskID, Task, Tracker, ClientID, dbo.GetClientDisplayName(ClientID) FROM ( SELECT t.TaskID, t.Name as Task, '' as Tracker, t.ClientID, (<complex subquery>) Date, FROM task t ) as sub order by CASE WHEN Date IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE 0 END , Date ASC This would give the optimiser better information to work out what was going on and avoid any temporary tables. It should be faster. But it turns out it is a lot slower. 8 seconds vs under 5 seconds. I cant work out why this would be the case as all my knowledge of databases imply that subqueries would always be faster than using temporary tables. Can anyone explain what could be going on!?!?

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• Processing a database queue across multiple threads - design advice

  - by rwmnau

  I have a SQL Server table full of orders that my program needs to "follow up" on (call a webservice to see if something has been done with them). My application is multi-threaded, and could have instances running on multiple servers. Currently, every so often (on a Threading timer), the process selects 100 rows, at random (ORDER BY NEWID()), from the list of "unconfirmed" orders and checks them, marking off any that come back successfully. The problem is that there's a lot of overlap between the threads, and between the different processes, and their's no guarantee that a new order will get checked any time soon. Also, some orders will never be "confirmed" and are dead, which means that they get in the way of orders that need to be confirmed, slowing the process down if I keep selecting them over and over. What I'd prefer is that all outstanding orders get checked, systematically. I can think of two easy ways do this: The application fetches one order to check at a time, passing in the last order it checked as a parameter, and SQL Server hands back the next order that's unconfirmed. More database calls, but this ensures that every order is checked in a reasonable timeframe. However, different servers may re-check the same order in succession, needlessly. The SQL Server keeps track of the last order it asked a process to check up on, maybe in a table, and gives a unique order to every request, incrementing its counter. This involves storing the last order somewhere in SQL, which I wanted to avoid, but it also ensures that threads won't needlessly check the same orders at the same time Are there any other ideas I'm missing? Does this even make sense? Let me know if I need some clarification.

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• Freetype2 (error-)return value documentation

  - by Awaki

  In short, I'm looking for documentation that would limit the error situations to check for after a Freetype library function failed, much like the OpenGL and Win32 APIs document the error codes generated by their respective functions. I can't seem to find such documentation though, so I was wondering how to best handle translation of Freetype errors to typed exceptions. Background: I am currently in the process of implementing font-rendering capability (using Freetype) for my GUI framework, which makes strong use of typed exceptions to indicate error situations. However, the Freetype docs seem to completely omit what errors can be expected from what functions. That, if such documentation does indeed not exist, would basically leave me with two options: either guessing which errors make sense for a certain Freetype function (obviously prone to mistakes on my part), or considering every error code for translation into appropriate exceptions (less verbose since I would have to write the translation only once). Performance isn't really critical in the code that calls the Freetype library, so even the latter option would probably be acceptable, but surely there must be some kind of documentation on which library calls may return what Freetype error? Is there any such documentation which I just somehow managed to not find? Should I go the route of generically expecting every error code for translation? Or are there other ways to approach this problem? By the way, I wanted to avoid introducing some kind of generic FreetypeException (containing a description of the Freetype error) since I intended to completely hide what libraries I'm using (not from a legal point-of-view, mind you), but I guess I can be convinced to do this anyway if the consensus is that it would be the best option. I don't think it matters for this question, but I'm writing in C++.

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• Iterating over member typed collection fails when using untyped reference to generic object

  - by Alexander Pavlov

  Could someone clarify why iterate1() is not accepted by compiler (Java 1.6)? I do not see why iterate2() and iterate3() are much better. This paragraph is added to avoid silly "Your post does not have much context to explain the code sections; please explain your scenario more clearly." protection. import java.util.Collection; import java.util.HashSet; public class Test<T> { public Collection<String> getCollection() { return new HashSet<String>(); } public void iterate1(Test test) { for (String s : test.getCollection()) { // ... } } public void iterate2(Test test) { Collection<String> c = test.getCollection(); for (String s : c) { // ... } } public void iterate3(Test<?> test) { for (String s : test.getCollection()) { // ... } } } Compiler output: $ javac Test.java Test.java:11: incompatible types found : java.lang.Object required: java.lang.String for (String s : test.getCollection()) { ^ Note: Test.java uses unchecked or unsafe operations. Note: Recompile with -Xlint:unchecked for details. 1 error

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• Replacing symbol from object file at compile time. For example swapping out main

  - by Anthony Sottile

  Here's the use case: I have a .cpp file which has functions implemented in it. For sake of example say it has the following: [main.cpp] #include <iostream> int foo(int); int foo(int a) { return a * a; } int main() { for (int i = 0; i < 5; i += 1) { std::cout << foo(i) << std::endl; } return 0; } I want to perform some amount of automated testing on the function foo in this file but would need to replace out the main() function to do my testing. Preferably I'd like to have a separate file like this that I could link in over top of that one: [mymain.cpp] #include <iostream> #include <cassert> extern int foo(int); int main() { assert(foo(1) == 1); assert(foo(2) == 4); assert(foo(0) == 0); assert(foo(-2) == 4); return 0; } I'd like (if at all possible) to avoid changing the original .cpp file in order to do this -- though this would be my approach if this is not possible: do a replace for "(\s)main\s*\(" == "\1__oldmain\(" compile as usual. The environment I am targeting is a linux environment with g++.

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• Javascript, IE, Strings, and Performance problems

  - by Infinity

  Hey guys, So we have this product, and it's really slow in IE. We've already applied a lot of the practices advised by the IE guys themselves (like this, and this), and try to sacrifice clean code for performance in the critical parts like DOM manipulation. However, as you can see in this IE profiler screenshot.. Just "String" is the biggest offender. Almost 750ms of exclusive time. Does this mean IE is spending 750ms just instantiating Strings? I also read this stuff on the Opera dev blog: A build script can remove whitespace, comments, replace strings with Array lookups (to avoid MSIE creating a string object for every single instance of a string — even in conditions) But no more info regarding this. Anyone can clarify? It seems like IE has to create a full String instance every time you have " " in your code, which could explain this, but I don't know what the array lookup optimization would look like. BTW- we don't really do much of string concatenation anywhere in the code. The library we use is MooTools 1.2.4 Any suggestions will be appreciated! Thx

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• algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

  - by msalvadores

  I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

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• Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

  - by LauriE

  Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

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• Suggestions for opening the Rails toolbox to design a challenge game?

  - by keruilin

  How would you suggest designing a challenge system as part of a food-eating game so that it's automated as possible? All RoR tools, design patterns and logic are at your disposal (e.g., admin consoles, crontab, arch, etc.). Prize goes to whoever can suggest the simplest and most-automated design! Here are the requirements: User has many challenges. Badge has many challenges. (A unique badge is awarded for each challenge won.) Only one challenge can run at a time. Each challenge has a limited number of days that it runs. For example, one challenge can run 3 days, while another runs 7 days. Challenges can be seasonal. For example, "Eat 13 Pumpkins" only runs during the Fall. New challenges are added to the game on an ongoing basis. For example, a new challenge every week. Each challenge has a certain probability of being selected to run. For example, "Eat 10 Pies" challenge has 10% chance of being selected to run. As each new challenge is added to the database, I want the probabilities of running to change dynamically. I want to avoid the scenario where I'm manually updating a database field just to change the probability from 10% to 5%, for example. Challenges act like Easter eggs. Challenge icons pop-up at different places on the webpage. User is awarded a badge for successfully completing a challenge, but only when it's active. There is some wait time between each challenge. Between 1 and 7 days. Which wait time is random, but the probability of the wait time being short is high and the probability of it being a long wait time is low.

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• C++ variable to const expression

  - by user1344784

  template <typename Real> class A{ }; template <typename Real> class B{ }; //... a few dozen more similar template classes class Computer{ public slots: void setFrom(int from){ from_ = from; } void setTo(int to){ to_ = to; } private: template <int F, int T> void compute(){ using boost::fusion::vector; using boost::fusion::at_c; vector<A<float>, B<float>, ...> v; at_c<from_>(v).operator()(at_c<to_>(v)); //error; needs to be const-expression. }; This question isn't about Qt, but there is a line of Qt code in my example. The setFrom() and setTo() are functions that are called based on user selection via the GUI widget. The root of my problem is that 'from' and 'to' are variables. In my compute member function I need to pick a type (A, B, etc.) based on the values of 'from' and 'to'. The only way I know how to do what I need to do is to use switch statements, but that's extremely tedious in my case and I would like to avoid. Is there anyway to convert the error line to a constant-expression?

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• Output columns not in destination table?

  - by lance

  SUMMARY: I need to use an OUTPUT clause on an INSERT statement to return columns which don't exist on the table into which I'm inserting. If I can avoid it, I don't want to add columns to the table to which I'm inserting. DETAILS: My FinishedDocument table has only one column. This is the table into which I'm inserting. FinishedDocument -- DocumentID My Document table has two columns. This is the table from which I need to return data. Document -- DocumentID -- Description The following inserts one row into FinishedDocument. Its OUTPUT clause returns the DocumentID which was inserted. This works, but it doesn't give me the Description of the inserted document. INSERT INTO FinishedDocument OUTPUT INSERTED.DocumentID SELECT DocumentID FROM Document WHERE DocumentID = @DocumentID I need to return from the Document table both the DocumentID and the Description of the matching document from the INSERT. What syntax do I need to pull this off? I'm thinking it's possible only with the one INSERT statement, by tweaking the OUTPUT clause (in a way I clearly don't understand)? Is there a smarter way that doesn't resemble the path I'm going down here? EDIT: SQL Server 2005

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• Getting memory leak at NSURL connection in Iphone sdk.

  - by monish

  Hi guys, Here Im getting leak at the NSURL connection in my libxml parser can anyone tell how to resolve it. The code where leak generates is: - (BOOL)parseWithLibXML2Parser { BOOL success = NO; ZohoAppDelegate *appDelegate = (ZohoAppDelegate*) [ [UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString* curl; if ([cName length] == 0) { curl = @"https://invoice.zoho.com/api/view/settings/currencies?ticket="; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:appDelegate.ticket]; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:@"&apikey="]; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:appDelegate.apiKey]; curl = [curl stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"\n" withString:@""]; } NSURLRequest *theRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:curl]]; NSLog(@"the request parserWithLibXml2Parser %@",theRequest); NSURLConnection *con = [[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self] autorelease];//Memory leak generated here at this line of code. //self.connection = con; //[con release]; // This creates a context for "push" parsing in which chunks of data that are // not "well balanced" can be passed to the context for streaming parsing. // The handler structure defined above will be used for all the parsing. The // second argument, self, will be passed as user data to each of the SAX // handlers. The last three arguments are left blank to avoid creating a tree // in memory. _xmlParserContext = xmlCreatePushParserCtxt(&simpleSAXHandlerStruct, self, NULL, 0, NULL); if(con != nil) { do { [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode beforeDate:[NSDate distantFuture]]; } while (!_done && !self.error); } if(self.error) { //NSLog(@"parsing error"); [self.delegate parser:self encounteredError:nil]; } else { success = YES; } return success; } Anyone's help will be muck appreciated . Thank you, Monish.

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• Javascript Namespace Help

  - by Jason

  Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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• Using custom Qt subclasses in Python

  - by kwatford

  First off: I'm new to both Qt and SWIG. Currently reading documentation for both of these, but this is a time consuming task, so I'm looking for some spoilers. It's good to know up-front whether something just won't work. I'm attempting to formulate a modular architecture for some in-house software. The core components are in C++ and exposed via SWIG to Python for experimentation and rapid prototyping of new components. Qt seems like it has some classes I could use to avoid re-inventing the wheel too much here, but I'm concerned about how some of the bits will fit together. Specifically, if I create some C++ classes, I'll need to expose them via SWIG. Some of these classes likely subclass Qt classes or otherwise have Qt stuff exposed in their public interfaces. This seems like it could raise some complications. There are already two interfaces for Qt in Python, PyQt and PySide. Will probably use PySide for licensing reasons. About how painful should I expect it to be to get a SWIG-wrapped custom subclass of a Qt class to play nice with either of these? What complications should I know about upfront?

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• ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

  - by chucknelson

  I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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