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• Split UInt32 (audio frame) into two SInt16s (left and right)?

  - by morgancodes

  Total noob to anything lower-level than Java, diving into iPhone audio, and realing from all of the casting/pointers/raw memory access. I'm working with some example code wich reads a WAV file from disc and returns stereo samples as single UInt32 values. If I understand correctly, this is just a convenient way to return the 32 bits of memory required to create two 16 bit samples. Eventually this data gets written to a buffer, and an audio unit picks it up down the road. Even though the data is written in UInt32-sized chunks, it eventually is interpreted as pairs of 16-bit samples. What I need help with is splitting these UInt32 frames into left and right samples. I'm assuming I'll want to convert each UInt32 into an SInt16, since an audio sample is a signed value. It seems to me that for efficiency's sake, I ought to be able to simply point to the same blocks in memory, and avoid any copying. So, in pseudo-code, it would be something like this: UInt32 myStereoFrame = getFramefromFilePlayer; SInt16* leftChannel = getFirst16Bits(myStereoFrame); SInt16* rightChannel = getSecond16Bits(myStereoFrame); Can anyone help me turn my pseudo into real code?

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• Using "from __future__ import division" in my program, but it isn't loaded with my program

  - by Sara Fauzia

  I wrote the following program in Python 2 to do Newton's method computations for my math problem set, and while it works perfectly, for reasons unbeknownst to me, when I initially load it in ipython with %run -i NewtonsMethodMultivariate.py, the Python 3 division is not imported. I know this because after I load my Python program, entering x**(3/4) gives "1". After manually importing the new division, then x**(3/4) remains x**(3/4), as expected. Why is this? # coding: utf-8 from __future__ import division from sympy import symbols, Matrix, zeros x, y = symbols('x y') X = Matrix([[x],[y]]) tol = 1e-3 def roots(h,a): def F(s): return h.subs({x: s[0,0], y: s[1,0]}) def D(s): return h.jacobian(X).subs({x: s[0,0], y: s[1,0]}) if F(a) == zeros(2)[:,0]: return a else: while (F(a)).norm() > tol: a = a - ((D(a))**(-1))*F(a) print a.evalf(10) I would use Python 3 to avoid this issue, but my Linux distribution only ships SymPy for Python 2. Thanks to the help anyone can provide. Also, in case anyone was wondering, I haven't yet generalized this script for nxn Jacobians, and only had to deal with 2x2 in my problem set. Additionally, I'm slicing the 2x2 zero matrix instead of using the command zeros(2,1) because SymPy 0.7.1, installed on my machine, complains that "zeros() takes exactly one argument", though the wiki suggests otherwise. Maybe this command is only for the git version.

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• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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• What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

  - by Chris

  Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

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• Counting XML elements in file on Android

  - by CSharperWithJava

  Take a simple XML file formatted like this: <Lists> <List> <Note/> ... <Note/> </List> <List> <Note/> ... <Note/> </List> </Lists> Each node has some attributes that actually hold the data of the file. I need a very quick way to count the number of each type of element, (List and Note). Lists is simply the root and doesn't matter. I can do this with a simple string search or something similar, but I need to make this as fast as possible. Design Parameters: Must be in java (Android application). Must AVOID allocating memory as much as possible. Must return the total number of Note elements and the number of List elements in the file, regardless of location in file. Number of Lists will typically be small (1-4), and number of notes can potentially be very large (upwards of 1000, typically 100) per file. I look forward to your suggestions.

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• Handling Denormalized Schema with Eclipselink

  - by iamrohitbanga

  Hello All I have a denormalized table containing employee information. The fields are employee id, name and department name. The primary key is a composite one consisting of all three fields. An employee can belong to multiple departments. I want to read/write the objects in the table using the Eclipselink Dynamic Persistence API (which is infact a wrapper on top of JPA descriptors etc.). Example Data: 1 e1 dep1 2 e1 dep2 3 e2 dep1 4 e2 dep3 5 e3 dep1 5 e3 dep2 5 e3 dep3 A normal ReadAllQuery (select query) on the table returns a DynamicEntity corresponding to each row in the table. However I want to club all entities based on the emp id and return all the departments he belongs to as a list. I can merge the entities after retrieving them but if I can use some Eclipselink feature out of the box then it would be better. One way to do the read is the following: I create two dynamic types corresponding to employee: Having id,name as the primary key Having id, department as the primary key, I create a OneToManyMapping from the first type to the second one. Then when I query the first type it does return the departments to which employee belongs as a list of DynamicEntity of the second type. This satisfies the read scenario. Is there a better way of doing this? Is this inherently supported by Eclipselink or JPA? I cannot get the same dynamic type configuration working for the write scenario. This is because when I write the changes using the writeObject method of UnitOfWork, it generates insert queries which enter the following entries in the table id name department 102 emp_102 102 st 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 instead of: id name department 102 emp_102 st 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 Is there any way I can get write to work with this schema using eclipselink? I want to avoid doing the heavy lifting of merging the rows for such a denormalized schema or generating each row before doing a write. Is there no clean way of doing this using Eclipselink or JPA? Thanks in Advance.

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• Efficient (basic) regular expression implementation for streaming data

  - by Brendan Dolan-Gavitt

  I'm looking for an implementation of regular expression matching that operates on a stream of data -- i.e., it has an API that allows a user to pass in one character at a time and report when a match is found on the stream of characters seen so far. Only very basic (classic) regular expressions are needed, so a DFA/NFA based implementation seems like it would be well-suited to the problem. Based on the fact that it's possible to do regular expression matching using a DFA/NFA in a single linear sweep, it seems like a streaming implementation should be possible. Requirements: The library should try to wait until the full string has been read before performing the match. The data I have really is streaming; there is no way to know how much data will arrive, it's not possible to seek forward or backward. Implementing specific stream matching for a couple special cases is not an option, as I don't know in advance what patterns a user might want to look for. For the curious, my use case is the following: I have a system which intercepts memory writes inside a full system emulator, and I would like to have a way to identify memory writes that match a regular expression (e.g., one could use this to find the point in the system where a URL is written to memory). I have found (links de-linkified because I don't have enough reputation): stackoverflow.com/questions/1962220/apply-a-regex-on-stream stackoverflow.com/questions/716927/applying-a-regular-expression-to-a-java-i-o-stream www.codeguru.com/csharp/csharp/cs_data/searching/article.php/c14689/Building-a-Regular-Expression-Stream-Search-with-the-NET-Framework.htm But all of these attempt to convert the stream to a string first and then use a stock regular expression library. Another thought I had was to modify the RE2 library, but according to the author it is architected around the assumption that the entire string is in memory at the same time. If nothing's available, then I can start down the unhappy path of reinventing this wheel to fit my own needs, but I'd really rather not if I can avoid it. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Matching on search attributes selected by customer on front end

  - by CodeNinja1974

  I have a method in a class that allows me to return results based on a certain set of Customer specified criteria. The method matches what the Customer specifies on the front end with each item in a collection that comes from the database. In cases where the customer does not specify any of the attributes, the ID of the attibute is passed into the method being equal to 0 (The database has an identity on all tables that is seeded at 1 and is incremental). In this case that attribute should be ignored, for example if the Customer does not specify the Location then customerSearchCriteria.LocationID = 0 coming into the method. The matching would then match on the other attributes and return all Locations matching the other attibutes, example below: public IEnumerable<Pet> FindPetsMatchingCustomerCriteria(CustomerPetSearchCriteria customerSearchCriteria) { if(customerSearchCriteria.LocationID == 0) { return repository.GetAllPetsLinkedCriteria() .Where(x => x.TypeID == customerSearchCriteria.TypeID && x.FeedingMethodID == customerSearchCriteria.FeedingMethodID && x.FlyAblityID == customerSearchCriteria.FlyAblityID ) .Select(y => y.Pet); } } The code for when all criteria is specified is shown below: private PetsRepository repository = new PetsRepository(); public IEnumerable<Pet> FindPetsMatchingCustomerCriteria(CustomerPetSearchCriteria customerSearchCriteria) { return repository.GetAllPetsLinkedCriteria() .Where(x => x.TypeID == customerSearchCriteria.TypeID && x.FeedingMethodID == customerSearchCriteria.FeedingMethodID && x.FlyAblityID == customerSearchCriteria.FlyAblityID && x.LocationID == customerSearchCriteria.LocationID ) .Select(y => y.Pet); } I want to avoid having a whole set of if and else statements to cater for each time the Customer does not explicitly select an attribute of the results they are looking for. What is the most succint and efficient way in which I could achieve this?

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• Freetype2 (error-)return value documentation

  - by Awaki

  In short, I'm looking for documentation that would limit the error situations to check for after a Freetype library function failed, much like the OpenGL and Win32 APIs document the error codes generated by their respective functions. I can't seem to find such documentation though, so I was wondering how to best handle translation of Freetype errors to typed exceptions. Background: I am currently in the process of implementing font-rendering capability (using Freetype) for my GUI framework, which makes strong use of typed exceptions to indicate error situations. However, the Freetype docs seem to completely omit what errors can be expected from what functions. That, if such documentation does indeed not exist, would basically leave me with two options: either guessing which errors make sense for a certain Freetype function (obviously prone to mistakes on my part), or considering every error code for translation into appropriate exceptions (less verbose since I would have to write the translation only once). Performance isn't really critical in the code that calls the Freetype library, so even the latter option would probably be acceptable, but surely there must be some kind of documentation on which library calls may return what Freetype error? Is there any such documentation which I just somehow managed to not find? Should I go the route of generically expecting every error code for translation? Or are there other ways to approach this problem? By the way, I wanted to avoid introducing some kind of generic FreetypeException (containing a description of the Freetype error) since I intended to completely hide what libraries I'm using (not from a legal point-of-view, mind you), but I guess I can be convinced to do this anyway if the consensus is that it would be the best option. I don't think it matters for this question, but I'm writing in C++.

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• Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

  - by MaseBase

  I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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• A better way of getting a data table with various column types into string array

  - by Vlad

  This should be an easy one, looks like I got myself too confused. I get a table from a database, data ranges from varchar to int to Null values. Cheap and dirty way of converting this into a tab-delimited file that I already have is this (shrunken to preserve space, ugliness is kept on par with original): da.Fill(dt) ' da - DataAdapter ' ' dt - DataTable ' Dim lColumns As Long = dt.Columns.Count Dim arrColumns(dt.Columns.Count) As String Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object Dim j As Long = 0 Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Count - 1 arrData = dt.Rows(i).ItemArray() For j = 0 To arrData.GetUpperBound(0) - 1 arrColumns(j) = arrData(j).ToString Next wrtOutput.WriteLine(String.Join(strFieldDelimiter, arrColumns)) Array.Clear(arrColumns, 0, arrColumns.GetLength(0)) Array.Clear(arrData, 0, arrData.GetLength(0)) Next Not only this is ugly and inefficient, it is also getting on my nerves. Besides, I want, if possible, to avoid the infamous double-loop through the table. I would really appreciate a clean and safe way of rewriting this piece. I like the approach that is used here - especially that is trying to solve the same problem that I have, but it crashes on me when I apply it to my case directly.

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• Word Automation : Replace do not work after TypeText

  - by wishper

  I need to generate doc (real doc, not docx) files, the "best" way i have found is to use word automation (Word 2010). I have files that I open, and then replace values inside before saving it on a new name. (Ex : I replace "" with "155023"). To do this, I use the Application.Selection.Find. I just had a problem when the new value had more than 255 characters (Thanks Microsofts limitations ...). To avoid this problem, i use TypeText in this case. My problem now is once I use TypeText, the Replace do not work anymore .. And I can't find why. Any idea will be greatly appreciated. My code is in a function, called in a foreach with each values to replace : private void Replace(Application app, string name, string newValue) { Selection selection = app.Selection; Find find = selection.Find; Replacement replacement = find.Replacement; find.ClearFormatting(); find.Text = "<" + name + ">"; // Word limitation : can't replace with more than 255 characters, // use another way to do it if that's the case if (tempNewValue.Length < 255) { replacement.ClearFormatting(); replacement.Text = tempNewValue; find.Execute(Replace: replaceAll); } else { while (find.Execute()) { selection.TypeText(tempNewValue); } } Marshal.ReleaseComObject(replacement); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(find); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(selection); }

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• HeadJS ready for both document and script

  - by Yashua

  Current code: head.ready(function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); It will sometimes fail with error that $ is not ready. I have loaded jquuery earlier with the label 'jquery'. Neither of these work: head.ready(document, function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); head.ready('jquery', function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); I would like to not do this if possible: head.ready(document, function() { head.ready('jquery', function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); }); And also avoid refactoring current code to place that snippet at bottom of body though that I think may be the solution. Is it possible with HeadJS to define a ready call() using head.ready(), that is not placed at the bottom, that will wait for both a labeled script and the DOM to be loaded? UPDATE: the nested script doesn't actually work. I think the inner one erases/superseds the other :(

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• How to convert a lambda to an std::function using templates

  - by retep998

  Basically, what I want to be able to do is take a lambda with any number of any type of parameters and convert it to an std::function. I've tried the following and neither method works. std::function([](){});//Complains that std::function is missing template parameters template <typename T> void foo(function<T> f){} foo([](){});//Complains that it cannot find a matching candidate The following code does work however, but it is not what I want because it requires explicitly stating the template parameters which does not work for generic code. std::function<void()>([](){}); I've been mucking around with functions and templates all evening and I just can't figure this out, so any help would be much appreciated. As mentioned in a comment, the reason I'm trying to do this is because I'm trying to implement currying in C++ using variadic templates. Unfortunately, this fails horribly when using lambdas. For example, I can pass a standard function using a function pointer. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(R (*f)(A...)) {} void bar() {} int main() { foo(bar); } However, I can't figure out how to pass a lambda to such a variadic function. Why I'm interested in converting a generic lambda into an std::function is because I can do the following, but it ends up requiring that I explicitly state the template parameters to std::function which is what I am trying to avoid. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(std::function<R(A...)>) {} int main() { foo(std::function<void()>([](){})); }

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• How to lazy load a data structure (python)

  - by Anton Geraschenko

  I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

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• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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• a basic issue in implementing validations through properties ? Please guide me.

  - by haansi

  hello, thanks for your attention and time. I want to implement validations in settter of properties. Here is an issue where your expert help is required please. I have idea of how I will do validations before setting value. but not getting what to do if passed value is not correct. Just not setting is not a acceptable solution as I want to return an appropriate message to user (in a label in web form). My example code is: private int id; public int Id { get { return id; } set { bool result = IsNumber(value); if (result==false) { // What to do if passed data is not valid ? how to give a appropriate message to user that what is wrong ? } id = value; } } A thought was to use return but it is not allowed. Throwing error looks not good as generally we avoid thorwing custom errors. Please guide and help me. thanks in anticipation haansi

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• Why doesn't String's hashCode() cache 0?

  - by polygenelubricants

  I noticed in the Java 6 source code for String that hashCode only caches values other than 0. The difference in performance is exhibited by the following snippet: public class Main{ static void test(String s) { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; i++) { s.hashCode(); } System.out.format("Took %d ms.%n", System.currentTimeMillis() - start); } public static void main(String[] args) { String z = "Allocator redistricts; strict allocator redistricts strictly."; test(z); test(z.toUpperCase()); } } Running this in ideone.com gives the following output: Took 1470 ms. Took 58 ms. So my questions are: Why doesn't String's hashCode() cache 0? What is the probability that a Java string hashes to 0? What's the best way to avoid the performance penalty of recomputing the hash value every time for strings that hash to 0? Is this the best-practice way of caching values? (i.e. cache all except one?) For your amusement, each line here is a string that hash to 0: pollinating sandboxes amusement & hemophilias schoolworks = perversive electrolysissweeteners.net constitutionalunstableness.net grinnerslaphappier.org BLEACHINGFEMININELY.NET WWW.BUMRACEGOERS.ORG WWW.RACCOONPRUDENTIALS.NET Microcomputers: the unredeemed lollipop... Incentively, my dear, I don't tessellate a derangement. A person who never yodelled an apology, never preened vocalizing transsexuals.

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• How can I spot subtle Lisp syntax mistakes?

  - by Marius Andersen

  I'm a newbie playing around with Lisp (actually, Emacs Lisp). It's a lot of fun, except when I seem to run into the same syntax mistakes again and again. For instance, here's something I've encountered several times. I have some cond form, like (cond ((foo bar) (qux quux)) ((or corge (grault warg)) (fred) (t xyzzy))) and the default clause, which returns xyzzy, is never carried out, because it's actually nested inside the previous clause: (cond ((foo bar) (qux quux)) ((or corge (grault warg)) (fred)) (t xyzzy)) It's difficult for me to see such errors when the difference in indentation is only one space. Does this get easier with time? I also have problems when there's a large distance between the (mal-)indented line and the line it should be indented against. let forms with a lot of complex bindings, for example, or an unless form with a long conditional: (defun test () (unless (foo bar (qux quux) (or corge (grault warg) (fred)))) xyzzy) It turns out xyzzy was never inside the unless form at all: (defun test () (unless (foo bar (qux quux) (or corge (grault warg) (fred))) xyzzy)) I auto-indent habitually and use parenthesis highlighting to avoid counting parentheses. For the most part it works like a breeze, but occasionally, I discover my syntax mistakes only by debugging. What can I do?

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• ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

  - by chucknelson

  I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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• Why null reference exception in SetMolePublicInstance?

  - by OldGrantonian

  I get a "null reference" exception in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, null); The program builds and compiles correctly. There are no complaints about any of the parameters to the method. Here's the specification of SetMolePublicInstance, from the object browser: SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate _stub, System.Type receiverType, object _receiver, string name, params System.Type[] parameterTypes) Here are the parameter values for "Locals": + stub {Method = {System.String <StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq>b__0()}} System.Func<string> + receiverType {Name = "OrigValue" FullName = "OrigValueP.OrigValue"} System.Type {System.RuntimeType} objReceiver {OrigValueP.OrigValue} object {OrigValueP.OrigValue} name "TestString" string parameterTypes null object[] I know that TestString() takes no parameters and returns string, so as a starter to try to get things working, I specified "null" for the final parameter to SetMolePublicInstance. As already mentioned, this compiles OK. Here's the stack trace: Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.ExtendedReflection.Collections.Indexable.ConvertAllToArray[TInput,TOutput](TInput[] array, Converter`2 converter) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMole(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, MoleBindingFlags flags, Type[] parameterTypes) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, Type[] parameterTypes) at DeqP.Deq.Replace[T](Func`1 stub, Type receiverType, Object objReceiver, String name) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecP\DeqC.cs:line 38 at DeqPTest.DecCTest.StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq() in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecPTest\DeqCTest.cs:line 28 at Starter.Start.Main(String[] args) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\Starter\Starter.cs:line 14 Press any key to continue . . . To avoid the null parameter, I changed the final "null" to "parameterTypes" as in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, parameterTypes); I then tried each of the following (before the line): int[] parameterTypes = null; // if this is null, I don't think the type will matter int[] parameterTypes = new int[0]; object[] parameterTypes = new object[0]; // this would allow for various parameter types All three attempts produce a red squiggly line under the entire line for SetMolePublicInstance Mouseover showed the following message: The best overloaded method match for 'Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate, System.Type, object, string, params System.Type[])' has some invalid arguments. I'm assuming that the first four arguments are OK, and that the problem is with the params array.

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• Suggestions for opening the Rails toolbox to design a challenge game?

  - by keruilin

  How would you suggest designing a challenge system as part of a food-eating game so that it's automated as possible? All RoR tools, design patterns and logic are at your disposal (e.g., admin consoles, crontab, arch, etc.). Prize goes to whoever can suggest the simplest and most-automated design! Here are the requirements: User has many challenges. Badge has many challenges. (A unique badge is awarded for each challenge won.) Only one challenge can run at a time. Each challenge has a limited number of days that it runs. For example, one challenge can run 3 days, while another runs 7 days. Challenges can be seasonal. For example, "Eat 13 Pumpkins" only runs during the Fall. New challenges are added to the game on an ongoing basis. For example, a new challenge every week. Each challenge has a certain probability of being selected to run. For example, "Eat 10 Pies" challenge has 10% chance of being selected to run. As each new challenge is added to the database, I want the probabilities of running to change dynamically. I want to avoid the scenario where I'm manually updating a database field just to change the probability from 10% to 5%, for example. Challenges act like Easter eggs. Challenge icons pop-up at different places on the webpage. User is awarded a badge for successfully completing a challenge, but only when it's active. There is some wait time between each challenge. Between 1 and 7 days. Which wait time is random, but the probability of the wait time being short is high and the probability of it being a long wait time is low.

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• How to create a desktop shortcut to a website with website logo as icon?

  - by Wbdvlpr

  Hi I need a solution which allows users to create a desktop shortcut to a website, preferably with website logo as shortcut icon. There are ways users can create shortcut such as drag drop favicon or right click create new shortcut etc. This works but also creates the shortcut with default IE icon on windows. I am trying to avoid this method for this icon and some other reasons. I thought of creating a website-title.URL file, and tell users to download and save file to their desktop, again this works but doesn't solve the icon problem as the website logo (.ico) has to be at local disk and at a pre-specified location [IconFile=path]. I was wondering if it is possible to create a some sort of installer or windows application which users can download from the website. Once its executed by user, it creates this .URL file on user desktop which have IconFile path pre-specified, and copy the website-logo.ico at path specified in .URL file etc. So my questions are - Is it possible to create such a solution? What programming languages can be used to achieve this? Can this installer/app be made to work on non-windows machines as well? From developments point of view how big project it is? if I have to hire a programmer to do this. Please let me know if you need more information. Thanks

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• How to: StructureMap and configuration based on runtime parameters?

  - by user981375

  In a nutshell - I want to be able to instantiate object based on runtime parameters. In this particular case there are only two parameters but the problem is that I'm facing different permutations of these parameters and it gets messy. Here is the situation: I want to get an instance of an object specific to, say, given country and then, say, specific state/province. So, considering the US, there are 50 possible combinations. In reality it's less than that but that's the max. Think of it this way, I want to find out what's the penalty for smoking pot in a given country/state, I pass this information in and I get instantiated object telling me what it is. To the code (for reference only): interface IState { string Penalty { get; } } interface ICountry { IState State { get; set; } string Name { get; } } class BasePenalty : IState { virtual public string Penalty { get { return "Slap on a wrist"; } } } class USA : ICountry { public USA(IState state) { State = state; } public IState State { get; set; } public string Name { get { return "USA"; } } } class Florida: BasePenalty { public override string Penalty { get { return "Public beheading"; } } } // and so on ... I defined other states // which have penalties other than the "Slap on a wrist" How do I configure my container that when given country and state combination it will return the penalty? I tried combinations of profile and contextual binding but that configuration was directly proportional to the number of classes I've created. I have already gone thru trouble of defining different combinations. I'd like to avoid having to do the same during container configuration. I want to inject State into the Country. Also, I'd like to return UsaBasePenalty value in case state is not specified. Is that possible? Perhaps these is something wrong with the design.

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• Web page for IPhone - Large fonts instead of scrolling?

  - by chris_l

  I'm planning the layout of my web page, which should also be usable on the IPhone. I don't really have much experience with the IPhone yet - I just installed the IPhone Simulator on my Mac. The page's contents are flexible, so I think it would be better to use this flexibility to avoid that the user has to scroll around the entire page. Especially I have A header and a sidebar that will be used all the time to perform several actions. A main content area with a number of elements (e.g. images). The UI would stay usable pretty well, if the number of elements shown at one time is reduced for a small screen (e.g. by JavaScript). It would also be okay to make the main content area scrollable (as opposed to the entire page). The problem: If I simply display the page on the IPhone, it uses an extremely small font size, so that users must zoom in first, and then scroll around - so that they can't see the header and sidebar all the time. What's the best way to deal with this situation? Just leave it this way (very small fonts), because users expect that behaviour on the IPhone? Increase the font size (by specifying it in em or px or with xx-large, or what would be the best way?), if I detect - somehow - that it's being displayed on the IPhone. Or is there some way to restrict the viewport size to the screen size, and make it zoom in automatically? I think that would be the easiest solution in my case. Or ...?

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