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• Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

  - by murat

  Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

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• Database nesting layout confusion

  - by arzon

  I'm no expert in databases and a beginner in Rails, so here goes something which kinda confuses me... Assuming I have three classes as a sample (note that no effort has been made to address any possible Rails reserved words issue in the sample). class File < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :records, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :records, :allow_destroy => true end class Record < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :file has_many :users, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :users, :allow_destroy => true end class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :record end Upon entering records, the database contents will appear as such. My issue is that if there are a lot of Files for the same Record, there will be duplicate record names. This will also be true if there will be multiple Records for the same user in the the Users table. I was wondering if there is a better way than this so as to have one or more files point to a single Record entry and one or more Records will point to a single User. BTW, the File names are unique. Files table: id name 1 name1 2 name2 3 name3 4 name4 Records table: id file_id record_name record_type 1 1 ForDaisy1 ... 2 2 ForDonald1 ... 3 3 ForDonald2 ... 4 4 ForDaisy1 ... Users table: id record_id username 1 1 Daisy 2 2 Donald 3 3 Donald 4 4 Daisy Is there any way to optimize the database to prevent duplication of entries, or this should really the correct and proper behavior. I spread out the database into different tables to be able to easily add new columns in the future.

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• Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

  - by Ismail

  I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

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• How can I get the user object from a service in Symfony2

  - by pogo

  My site is using a third party service for authentication as well as other bits of functionality so I have setup a service that does all the API calls for me and it's this service that I need to be able to access the user object. I've tried injecting the security.context service into my API service but I get a ServiceCircularReferenceException because my user authentication provider references the API service (it has to in order to authenticate the user). So I get a chain of security.context -> authentication provider -> user provider -> API service -> security.context I'm struggling to this of another way of getting the user object and I can't see any obvious way of splitting up this chain. My configs are all defined in config.yml, here are the relevant bits myapp.database: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\DatabaseService arguments: siteid: %siteid% entityManager: "@doctrine.orm.entity_manager" myapp.apiservice: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\TicketingService arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" myapp.user_provider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIUserProvider arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" ticketingAdapter: "@myapp.apiservice" securityContext: "@security.context" myapp.authenticationprovider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIAuthenticationProvider arguments: userChecker: "@security.user_checker" encoderFactory: "@security.encoder_factory" userProvider: "@myapp.user_provider" myapp.user_provider is the service that I've defined as my user provider service in security.yml which I presume is how it's being referenced by security.context

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• ASP.NET catching controls from html generated from the database

  - by Drahcir

  I have a set of websites that basically do the exact same thing in terms of functionality, the only thing that varies is the css and how the html is laid out. Is there a way to generate the html from a database (ie retreiving the html from a table) and then catching the controls (like buttons, textboxes etc) from the code behind? UPDATE: Here is an example of what I want to acheive: <html> <div id="generatedContent" runat="server"> <!-- the following content has been generated from the database on the page load event --> <div> This is a textbox <input id="tb1" runat="server" type="text" /> This is a button <input type="submit" id="btn1" runat="server" value="My Button" /> </div> </div> </html> This is the code behind var tb1 = new HtmlControls.HtmlInputText(); tb1 = FindControl("tb1"); var btn1 = new New HtmlControls.HtmlInputSubmit(); btn1 = FindControl("btn1"); Now obviously since the html has been generated from the database (ie after the page has already been initialised) the FindControl method will return null.

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• NHibernate listener/event to replace object before insert/update

  - by vIceBerg

  Hi! I have a Company class which have a collection of Address. Here's my Address class:(written top of my head): public class Address { public string Civic; public string Street; public City City; } This is the City class: public class City { public int Id; public string Name; public string SearchableName{ get { //code } } } Address is persisted in his own table and have a reference to the city's ID. City are also persisted in is own table. The City's SearchableName is used to prevent some mistakes in the city the user type. For example, if the city name is "Montréal", the searchable name will be "montreal". If the city name is "St. John", the searchable name will be "stjohn", etc. It's used mainly to to search and to prevent having multiple cities with a typo in it. When I save an address, I want an listener/event to check if the city is already in the database. If so, cancel the insert and replace the user's city with the database one. I would like the same behavior with updates. I tried this: public bool OnPreInsert(PreInsertEvent @event) { City entity = (@event.Entity as City); if (entity != null) { if (entity.Id == 0) { var city = (from c in @event.Session.Linq<City>() where c.SearchableName == entity.SearchableName select c).SingleOrDefault(); if (city != null) { //don't know what to do here return true; } } } return false; } But if there's already a City in the database, I don't know what to do. @event.Entity is readonly, if I set @event.Entity.Id, I get an "null identifier" exception. I tried to trap insert/update on Address and on Company, but the City if the first one to get inserted (it's logic...) Any thoughts? Thanks

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• CakePHP: Missing database table

  - by Justin

  I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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• Zend_Auth and database session SaveHandler

  - by takeshin

  I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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• Casting to specify unknown object type?

  - by fuzzygoat

  In the following code I have a view object that is an instance of UIScrollView, if I run the code below I get warnings saying that "UIView might not respond to -setContentSize etc." UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Snowy_UK.jpg"]; imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]; [[self view] addSubview:imageView]; [[self view] setContentSize:[image size]]; [[self view] setMaximumZoomScale:2.0]; [[self view] setMinimumZoomScale: [[self view] bounds].size.width / [image size].width]; I have checked the type of the object and [self view] is indeed a UIScrollView. I am guessing that this is just the compiler making a bad guess as to the type and the solution is simply to cast the object to the correct type manually, am I getting this right? UIScrollView *scrollView = (UIScrollView *)[self view]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Snowy_UK.jpg"]; imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]; [[self view] addSubview:imageView]; [scrollView setContentSize:[image size]]; [scrollView setMaximumZoomScale:2.0]; [scrollView setMinimumZoomScale: [scrollView bounds].size.width / [image size].width]; cheers Gary.

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• How to make += operator keep the object reference?

  - by orloffm

  Say, I have a class: class M { public int val; And also a + operator inside it: public static M operator +(M a, M b) { M c = new M(); c.val = a.val + b.val; return c; } } And I've got a List of the objects of the class: List<M> ms = new List(); M obj = new M(); obj.val = 5; ms.Add(obj); Some other object: M addie = new M(); addie.val = 3; I can do this: ms[0] += addie; and it surely works as I expect - the value in the list is changed. But if I want to do M fromList = ms[0]; fromList += addie; it doesn't change the value in ms for obvious reasons. But intuitively I expect ms[0] to also change after that. Really, I pick the object from the list and then I increase it's value with some other object. So, since I held a reference to ms[0] in fromList before addition, I want still to hold it in fromList after performing it. Are there any ways to achieve that?

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• Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

  - by Shimrod

  Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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• Returning object from function

  - by brainydexter

  I am really confused now on how and which method to use to return object from a function. I want some feedback on the solutions for the given requirements. Scenario A: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which need not be modified during its lifetime. Thus, const Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { const Foo& l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } Scneraio B: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which will be modified during its lifetime. Thus, void SomeClass::GetFoo(Foo& a_Foo_ref) { a_Foo_ref = Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo; someClassPInstance-GetFoo(l_Foo); //... } I have one question here: Lets say that Foo cannot have a default constructor. Then how would you deal with that in this situation, since we cant write this anymore: Foo l_Foo Scenario C: Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } I think this is not the recommended approach since it would incur constructing extra temporaries. What do you think ? Also, do you recommend a better way to handle this instead ?

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• MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

  - by giveme5minutes

  I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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• geom_ribbon doesn't work - Error in eval(expr, envir, enclos) : object 'variable' not found

  - by Marciszka

  I try to add a geom_ribbon object to my ggplot2 plot. In my data frame, I have an NA values that (I guess) may cause a problem. This is a reproducible example of data drame I have: base <- c(1:10, rep(NA, 10)) output1 <- c(rep(NA, 9), 10 - 0:10) output2 <- c(rep(NA, 9), 10 + 0:10) xaxis <- 1:20 df <- data.frame(xaxis, base, output1, output2) df xaxis base output1 output2 1 1 1 NA NA 2 2 2 NA NA 3 3 3 NA NA 4 4 4 NA NA 5 5 5 NA NA 6 6 6 NA NA 7 7 7 NA NA 8 8 8 NA NA 9 9 9 NA NA 10 10 10 10 10 11 11 NA 9 11 12 12 NA 8 12 13 13 NA 7 13 14 14 NA 6 14 15 15 NA 5 15 16 16 NA 4 16 17 17 NA 3 17 18 18 NA 2 18 19 19 NA 1 19 20 20 NA 0 20 And my attempt to plot a ggplot2 object with a geom_ribbon: dfm <- melt(df, id=1) ggplot(dfm, aes(x = xaxis, y = value, colour = variable)) + geom_line(aes(group=variable)) + geom_ribbon(data=df, aes(group = 1, ymin=output1, ymax=output2)) And, eventually, I got an error I cannot deal with: Error in eval(expr, envir, enclos) : object 'variable' not found Thank ypu in advance for any suggestions.

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• Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

  - by Quentin T.

  1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

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• What database systems should an startup company consider?

  - by Am

  Right now I'm developing the prototype of a web application that aggregates large number of text entries from a large number of users. This data must be frequently displayed back and often updated. At the moment I store the content inside a MySQL database and use NHibernate ORM layer to interact with the DB. I've got a table defined for users, roles, submissions, tags, notifications and etc. I like this solution because it works well and my code looks nice and sane, but I'm also worried about how MySQL will perform once the size of our database reaches a significant number. I feel that it may struggle performing join operations fast enough. This has made me think about non-relational database system such as MongoDB, CouchDB, Cassandra or Hadoop. Unfortunately I have no experience with either. I've read some good reviews on MongoDB and it looks interesting. I'm happy to spend the time and learn if one turns out to be the way to go. I'd much appreciate any one offering points or issues to consider when going with none relational dbms?

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• populate checkboxes with database.

  - by amby

  Hi, I have to poulate checkboxes with data coming from database but no checkbox is showing on my page. please give me correct way to do that. in C# file page_load method i m doing this: public partial class dbTest1 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string Server = "al2222"; string Username = "hshshshsh"; string Password = "sjjssjs"; string Database = "database1"; string ConnectionString = "Data Source=" + Server + ";"; ConnectionString += "User ID=" + Username + ";"; ConnectionString += "Password=" + Password + ";"; ConnectionString += "Initial Catalog=" + Database; string query = "Select * from Customer_Order where orderNumber = 17"; using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn)) { conn.Open(); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { if (!IsPostBack) { Interests.DataSource = dr; Interests.DataTextField = "OptionName"; Interests.DataValueField = "OptionName"; Interests.DataBind(); } } conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); } } } } and in .aspx using this: <asp:CheckBoxList ID="Interests" runat="server"></asp:CheckBoxList> please tell me correct way to do that.

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• problems selecting a mutliple select value from database in Rails

  - by Ramy

  From inside of a form_for in rails, I'm inserting multiple select values into the database, like this: <div class="new-partner-form"> <%= form_for [:admin, matching_profile.partner, matching_profile], :html => {:id => "edit_profile", :multipart => true} do |f| %> <%= f.submit "Submit", :class => "hidden" %> <div class="rounded-block quarter-wide radio-group"> <h4>Exclude customers from source:</h4> <%= f.select :source, User.select(:source).group(:source).order(:source).map {|u| [u.source,u.source]}, {:include_blank => false}, {:multiple => true} %> <%= f.error_message_on :source %> </div> I'm then trying to pull the value from the database like this: def does_not_contain_source(matching_profiles) Expression.select(matching_profiles, :source) do |keyword| Rails.logger.info("Keyword is : " + keyword) @customer_source_tokenizer ||= Tokenizer.new(User.select(:source).where("id = ?", self.owner_id).map {|u| u.source}[0]) #User.select("source").where("id = ?", self.owner_id).to_s) @customer_source_tokenizer.divergent?(keyword) end end but getting this: ExpressionErrors: Bad syntax: --- - "" - B - "" this is what the value is in the database but it seems to choke when i access it this way. What's the right way to do this?

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• Zend_Auth and database SaveHandler

  - by takeshin

  I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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• Using a Context Menu to delete from a SQLite database in Android

  - by LordSnoutimus

  Hi, I have created a list view that displays the names and dates of items stored in a SQLite database, now I want to use a Context Menu to modify these items stored in the database such as edit the name, delete, and view. This is the code for the list view: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.listview); SQLiteDatabase myDB = null; myDB = this.openOrCreateDatabase(MY_DB_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE, null); Cursor cur = myDB.rawQuery("SELECT _id, trackname, tracktime" + " FROM " + MY_DB_TABLE, null); ListAdapter adapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.listview, cur, new String[] { Constants.TRACK_NAME, Constants.TRACK_TIME}, new int[] { R.id.text1, R.id.text2}); ListView list = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.list); list.setAdapter(adapter); registerForContextMenu(list); } and the Context Menu... public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo) { super.onCreateContextMenu(menu, v, menuInfo); menu.setHeaderTitle("Track Options"); menu.add(0, CHANGE_NAME, 0, "Change name"); menu.add(0, VIEW_TRACK, 0, "View track"); menu.add(0, SEND_TRACK, 0, "Send track"); menu.add(0, DELETE_TRACK, 0, "Delete track"); } I have used a Switch statement to control the menu items.. public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { switch (item.getItemId()){ case CHANGE_NAME: changename(); return true; case DELETE_TRACK: deletetrack(); return true; default: return super.onContextItemSelected(item); } So how would I go ahead and map the deletetrack(); method to find the ID of the track stored in the database to the item that has been selected in the list view?

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• Understanding Wordpress database schema - querying from 3rd party app

  - by deceze

  Is there an easy way to grab the latest posts out of a Wordpress wp_posts table using a simple SQL query? I have a Wordpress 2.9.2 installation as part of, but separate from, a larger system. It has a customized theme to look like the rest of the site but has otherwise nothing to do with it. I want to display the latest handful of headlines of posts made using Wordpress on a site of that other system. Preferably I do not want to mess around with importing any of the Wordpress library files. Looking at the database structure I can't see an easy, straight-forward query to simply get the latest revision of the latest posts. The post_status can either be "post" or "inherit", the post_type "post" or "revision" and the parent "0" or the id of the original post of a revision. I can't figure out how to reliably filter different revisions of the same post, drafts, attachments and pages out of this mess and just get the latest revision of the latest posts. I'm aware that the database schema is subject to change in subsequent versions of Wordpress, so shouldn't be relied upon, but that's a minor concern, since it's such a minor feature that could easily be fixed. If I understood how that database is supposed to work, that is.

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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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• how to make changes to database in WPF?

  - by user353573

  Drag access database into designer xsd, toolkit:datagrid get datacontext from resources correctly show the table content through this binding. Press button in the button column, can show each row correctly. delete row and add row also work in datagrid however, when i press button column to add a new row or delete a row, there is no change in the underlying database, how to commit the changes from datagrid to database in WPF if not using ADO.net ? The following code is what i try do not work private void datagrid2_delete(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Button showButton = (Button)sender; //person p = (person)showButton.DataContext; DataRowView ds = (DataRowView)showButton.DataContext; //DataSet1.customertableRow p = (DataSet1.customertableRow)ds; //ds.BeginEdit(); //ds.Delete(); //ds.EndEdit(); /* DataSourceProvider provider = (DataSourceProvider)this.FindResource("Family"); WpfApplication1.DataSet1.customertableDataTable table = (WpfApplication1.DataSet1.customertableDataTable)provider.Data; table.AddcustomertableRow("hello3", 5, System.DateTime.Today); table.AcceptChanges(); }

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• Storing date/times as UTC in database

  - by James

  I am storing date/times in the database as UTC and computing them inside my application back to local time based on the specific timezone. Say for example I have the following date/time: 01/04/2010 00:00 Say it is for a country e.g. UK which observes DST (Daylight Savings Time) and at this particular time we are in daylight savings. When I convert this date to UTC and store it in the database it is actually stored as: 31/03/2010 23:00 As the date would be adjusted -1 hours for DST. This works fine when your observing DST at time of submission. However, what happens when the clock is adjusted back? When I pull that date from the database and convert it to local time that particular datetime would be seen as 31/03/2009 23:00 when in reality it was processed as 01/04/2010 00:00. Correct me if I am wrong but isn't this a bit of a flaw when storing times as UTC? Example of Timezone conversion Basically what I am doing is storing the date/times of when information is being submitted to my system in order to allow users to do a range report. Here is how I am storing the date/times: public DateTime LocalDateTime(string timeZoneId) { var tzi = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(timeZoneId); return TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTimeFromUtc(DateTime.UtcNow, tzi).ToLocalTime(); } Storing as UTC: var localDateTime = LocalDateTime("AUS Eastern Standard Time"); WriteToDB(localDateTime.ToUniversalTime());

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• jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

  - by roosteronacid

  I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

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