Search Results

Search found 10005 results on 401 pages for 'regex trouble'.

Page 272/401 | < Previous Page | 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279  | Next Page >

• Map a domain to an MVC area

  - by Simon_Weaver

  Anybody got any experience in mapping a domain to an MVC area? Here's our situation: Old system (still active but will soon redirect to new store): www.example.com - our main site where we send traffic store.example.com - our store site which is a completely separate site that is indexed in google New system: www.example.com - same site as before www.example.com/store - new store site - built in an ASP.NET MVC area Because store is a separate domain google gives it a separate entry in the search results. I'd like to keep this benefit in future but wondering whether or not there is a good way to map a domain (store.example.com) to the MVC area or if its just going to be more trouble than its worth. PS. I'm not trying to keep existing indexing - its a completely separate store so thats not possible. I just want to redirect to the corresponding page in the new store. I'm just trying not to lose the benefit of two domains for SEO purposes.

  Read the article

• Brew install pyqt mavericks

  - by user3722876

  I have some trouble installing PyQt on my Mac. HOMEBREW_VERSION: 0.9.5 ORIGIN: https://github.com/Homebrew/homebrew.git HEAD: d8af29d63a5b94ffee863788210c3a895315035f HOMEBREW_PREFIX: /usr/local HOMEBREW_CELLAR: /usr/local/Cellar CPU: quad-core 64-bit sandybridge OS X: 10.9.3-x86_64 Xcode: 5.1.1 CLT: 5.1.0.0.1.1396320587 Clang: 5.1 build 503 MacPorts/Fink: /opt/local/bin/port X11: 2.7.6 => /opt/X11 System Ruby: 2.0.0-451 Perl: /usr/bin/perl Python: /opt/local/bin/python => /opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/bin/python2.7 Ruby: /usr/bin/ruby sip installation ok qt installation ok brew install pyqt => make 1 error generated. make[1]: *** [qtlib.o] Error 1 1 error generated. make[1]: *** [siplib.o] Error 1 make: *** [all] Error 2 No idea what's happening...

  Read the article

• How to unit test internals (organization) of a data structure?

  - by Herms

  I've started working on a little ruby project that will have sample implementations of a number of different data structures and algorithms. Right now it's just for me to refresh on stuff I haven't done for a while, but I'm hoping to have it set up kind of like Ruby Koans, with a bunch of unit tests written for the data structures but the implementations empty (with full implementations in another branch). It could then be used as a nice learning tool or code kata. However, I'm having trouble coming up with a good way to write the tests. I can't just test the public behavior as that won't necessarily tell me about the implementation, and that's kind of important here. For example, the public interfaces of a normal BST and a Red-Black tree would be the same, but the RB Tree has very specific data organization requirements. How would I test that?

  Read the article

• Linq to SQL EntitySet Records causing duplicate insertion

  - by Savvas Sopiadis

  In a WPF application i'm using Linq to SQL in a multi tier application. (This is an archailogy photo filing application), so every excavation has its corresponding Pictures, thus a one-to-many relationship. This relationship is correctly created by SQLMetal (which i'm using to create the POCOs). So here is the situation i 'm having trouble with: Saving changes (either of new or altered objects) is done through UnitOfWork() pattern this way: using (IUnitOfWork unitOfWork = UnitOfWork.Begin()) { //if this is a new record if (SelectedExcavation.excavation.ExcavationId == 0) { IsNewRecord = true; excavService.Add(SelectedExcavation.excavation); } //send the actual changes to the dbms unitOfWork.Commit(); } Everything works fine! BUTTTT!!! Whenever a record gets updated which has (already at least one ) corresponding Picture Record: 1) a new Excavation Record is inserted 2) the current Excavation Record gets updated 3) the previous Picture Record gets its Id changed to the newly created ExcavationId What is going on under the hood? Does Linq to SQL not handle such simple update scenarios? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Accessing the DI container from anywhere

  - by ChrisR

  I've implemented the Symfony2 Dependency Injection container in my Zend Framework project and it works fine in the MVC layer of my application. I've initialized the DIC in my bootstrap and can access it anywhere by calling: Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance()->getParam('bootstrap')->getDic() The problem is that there are some parts of my application that do not utilize the Zend Framework application/MVC layer. My CLI tools for example. I could perfectly initialize a new DIC there but that would just be some copy paste work from the Bootstrap file which is asking for trouble down the road (DRY principles, etc) Is it a better solution to make my DIC available in the Zend_Registry or as a singleton called by a static method DIC::getInstance() for example? I know Registry and singletons are considered bad things but the DIC is such a high level part of the application that I will probably never run into the problems that make it a bad thing. Is this a good solution or are there better ways of accomplishing a globally accessible DIC?

  Read the article

• In WebKitGtk+, how can I access parameters in an event listener?

  - by Matthew

  Here is an example in javascript of what I want to do: function handleDragStart(e) { e.dataTransfer.effectAllowed = 'move'; e.dataTransfer.setData('text/plain', 'some data'); } var dragSource = document.querySelector('#dragSource'); dragSource.addEventListener('dragstart', handleDragStart, false, null); But I am having trouble translating this to a GLib-based system. Here is an example in Vala: void on_dragstart(EventTarget event_target) { // How can I access the equivalent of e.dataTransfer? } WebKit.WebView web_view = ... WebKit.DOM.Document document = web_view.get_dom_document(); WebKit.DOM.Element drag_source = document.query_selector('#dragSource'); drag_source.add_event_listener("dragstart", (Callback) on_dragstart, false, null); While I am using Vala, an answer in any language interacting with WebKitGtk+ directly would be helpful.

  Read the article

• What ORMs work well with Scala?

  - by Clinton R. Nixon

  I'm about to write a Scala command-line application that relies on a MySQL database. I've been looking around for ORMs, and am having trouble finding one that will work well. The Lift ORM looks nice, but I'm not sure it can be decoupled from the entire Lift web framework. ActiveObjects also looks OK, but the author says that it may not work well with Scala. I'm not coming to Scala from Java, so I don't know all the options. Has anyone used an ORM with Scala, and if so, what did you use and how well did it work?

  Read the article

• MDX: How To Aggregate Hierarchy Level Members With Same Name

  - by Dave Frautnick

  Greetings, I am new to MDX, and am having trouble understanding how to perform an aggregation on a hierarchy level with members that have the same names. This query is particular to Microsoft Analysis Services 2000 cubes. I have a given hierarchy dimension with levels defined as follows: [Segment].[Flow].[Segment Week] Within the [Segment Week] level, I have the following members: [Week- 1] [Week- 2] [Week- 3] ... [Week- 1] [Week- 2] [Week- 3] The members have the same names, but are aligned with a different [Flow] in the parent level. So, the first occurrence of the [Week- 1] member aligns with [Flow].[A] while the second occurrence of [Week- 1] aligns with [Flow].[B]. What I am trying to do is aggregate all the members within the [Segment Week] level that have the same name. In SQL terms, I want to GROUP BY the member names within the [Segment Week] level. I am unsure how to do this. Thank you. Dave

  Read the article

• 'Array of arrays' in matlab?

  - by waitinforatrain

  Hey, having a wee bit of trouble. Trying to assign a variable length 1d array to different values of an array, e.g. a(1) = [1, 0.13,0.52,0.3]; a(2) = [1, 0, .268]; However, I get the error: ??? In an assignment A(I) = B, the number of elements in B and I must be the same. Error in ==> lab2 at 15 a(1) = [1, 0.13,0.52,0.3]; I presume this means that it's expecting a scalar value instead of an array. Does anybody know how to assign the array to this value? I'd rather not define it directly as a 2d array as it is for are doing solutions to different problems in a loop Edit: Got it! a(1,1:4) = [1, 0.13,0.52,0.3]; a(2,1:3) = [1, 0, .268];

  Read the article

• Generate markdown from source code doc-comments

  - by erikkallen

  Is there any easy way to generate markdown from source code comments? I'm looking for something similar to Sandcastle, but with Markdown (or something like it) as output. The full story is that I use DokuWiki to generate documentation. It has many nice properties, including that all its data is stored in text files. So my idea is that I should somehow be able to get my API docs into the same place as the rest of my documentation. So far my best bet seems to be to write a custom documenter for NDoc3, but perhaps someone has already done something similar which would save me the trouble. I realize I might need to tweak it a little due to slight syntax differences.

  Read the article

• Can Hibernate default a Null String to Empty String

  - by sliver

  In our application we are pulling data from a DB2 mainframe database. If the database has "low values" in a field, hibernate sends a "null" value in the object. This occurs even if the column is defined as "not null". As we are doing XML parsing on this, Castor is having trouble with it. I would like to fix this in Hibernate. Also, all of the hibernate hbm files are generated, so we can't mess with them (they are regened from time to time.) Any way to intercept all Strings and replace nulls with ""?

  Read the article

• jQuery Sparklines: $.getJSON data can't be read

  - by Bob Jansen

  I'm trying to generate a pie graph with Sparklines but I'm running into some trouble. I can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong, but I feel it is a silly mistake. I'm using the following code to generate a sparkline chart in the div #traffic_bos_ss: //Display Visitor Screen Size Stats $.getJSON('models/ucp/traffic/traffic_display_bos.php', { type: 'ss', server: server, api: api, ip: ip, }, function(data) { var values = data.views; //alert(values); $('#traffic_bos_ss').sparkline(values, { type: "pie", height: "100%", tooltipFormat: 'data.screen - {{value}}', }); }); The JSON string fetched: {"screen":"1220x1080, 1620x1080, 1920x1080","views":"[2, 2, 61]"} For some reason Sparklines does not process the variable values. When I alert the variable it outputs "[2, 2, 61]". Now the jQuery code does work when I replace the snippet: var values = data.views; with var values = [2, 2, 61]; What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Delayed_Job - on site5 server

  - by Matenia Rossides

  I am currently using a site5 server and would like rake jobs:work pretty much running all the time. I currently cannot send out the jobs unless i'm logged into the server. I hope that someone out there can help me with this. Had alot of trouble with ar_mailer and the whenever gem ... but have about another 5 gems working perfectly within my rails app. can someone shed some light on a solution for this please? greatly appreciated. (installed delayed_job as a plugin)

  Read the article

• Why is activeX failing to create an object from a Labview executable?

  - by user360734

  Here is my scenario. I am using Quicktest Pro (VB) to create an ActiveX object from a Labview VI that I built into an executable. In the build specs of the VI I have enabled ActiveX server option (ActiveX server name: "MyLabviewProgram") and in the VI ToolsOptionsVI Server: Configuration the ActiveX box is checked. So in QTP my code is: Set IvApp = CreateObject("MyLabviewProgram.Application") Set Vi = IvApp.getVIReference("MyLabviewVI.vi") Vi.Call ParamNames, ParamVals Upon running this I get a Run Error on the first line: ActiveX component can't create object: 'MyLabviewProgram.Application' I am having trouble figuring out why it errors. From National Instruments website they have a step in on one of their community pages about "LabVIEW Executable Used as ActiveX Server". The step is after building the EXE, 5. Run the EXE at least once on the target to activate the .TLB file. I've run the executable but not sure what they mean by on the target. Does anyone have a suggestion on what I need to do to get this working?

  Read the article

• ColumnCount in DataGridView remains 0 after assigning data source

  - by Manan Shah

  I am having trouble with the following simple code List<Car> tempList = new List<Car>(); BindingSource bindingSource = new BindingSource(); bindingSource.DataSource = tempList; dgTempView.DataSource = bindingSource; Here, dgTempView is a data grid view After the above lines execute, the column count in the datagrid view remains 0. And when I try adding a Car instance in tempList, I get an error saying that 'no row can be added to a datagridview control that does not have columns' . I am not able to understand what am I missing here

  Read the article

• Change color of a table cell using javascript using dropdown menu

  - by Mike Burzycki

  I'd like to use some javascript code to change the background color of a single cell within a table. I have some code below which allows me to change the page background color. This is similar in concept to what I would like to do, but I would really like to be able to change just one cell...not the whole page. I have thought about making the rest of the cell borders and background colors white, leaving the cell I want to manipulate transparent, but I think this probably a brute force method that will cause me trouble down the road. Does anyone have any advice to do this with javascript? The page background color changing code is here: <form name="bgcolorForm">Try it now: <select onChange="if(this.selectedIndex!=0) document.bgColor=this.options[this.selectedIndex].value"> <option value="choose">set background color <option value="FFFFCC">light yellow <option value="CCFFFF">light blue <option value="CCFFCC">light green <option value="CCCCCC">gray <option value="FFFFFF">white </select></form> Thanks for the help, Mike

  Read the article

• code to edit the text ib an EditText widgit

  - by user293663

  Hello, I am a newbi programmer and am having trouble with a measurement conversion program I am working on. What I would like to do is have several EditText boxes. When one is filled in and a calculate button is hit then the rest will be populated with a converted number. The part I am getting stuck on is outputting the answers to EditText widgets. ex: There are three EditText Widgets. a user inputs the number 6 into the first one (labeled inches) and presses calculate. I would like the next box to display .5 (labeled feet) and the last to display .1666 (this would be yards) .setText() apparently does not work to modify the text in an EditText any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• linq to sql using foreign keys returning iqueryable(of myEntity]

  - by Gern Blandston

  I'm trying to use Linq to SQL to return an IQueryable(of Project) when using foreign key relationships. Using the below schema, I want to be able to pass in a UserId and get all the projects created for the company the user is associated with. DB tables: Projects Projid ProjCreator FK (UserId from UserInfo table) Companyid FK (CompanyID from Companies table) UserInfo UserID PK Companyid FK Companies CompanyId PK Description I can get the iqueryable(of project) when simply getting the ProjectCreator with this: Return (From p In db.Projects _ Where p.ProjectCreator = Me.UserId) But I'm having trouble getting the syntax to get a iqueryable(of projects) when using foreign keys. Below gives me an IQueryable(of anonymous) but I can't seem to convince it to give me an IQueryable(of project) even if I try to cast it: Dim retval = (From p In db.Projects _ Join c In db.Companies On p.CompanyId Equals c.CompanyId _ Join u In db.UserInfos On u.CompanyId Equals c.CompanyId _ Where u.Login = UserId)

  Read the article

• Parsing getopts in bash

  - by ABach

  I've got a bash function that I'm trying to use getopts with and am having some trouble. The function is designed to be called by itself (getch), with an optional -s flag (getch -s), or with an optional string argument afterward (so getch master and getch -s master are both valid). The snippet below is where my problem lies - it isn't the entire function, but it's what I'm focusing on: getch() { if [ "$#" -gt 2 ] || [ "$1" = "-h" ] || [ "$1" = "--help" ]; then echo "Usage: $0 [-s] [branch-name]" >&2 return 1 fi while getopts "s" opt; do echo $opt # This line is here to test how many times we go through the loop case $opt in s) squash=true shift ;; *) ;; esac done } The getch -s master case is where the strangeness happens. The above should spit out s once, but instead, I get this: [user@host:git-repositories/temp]$ getch -s master s s [user@host:git-repositories/temp]$ Why is it parsing the -s opt twice?

  Read the article

• Distinguish UI change to variable from code-behind change

  - by Jay

  Like the title says I am trying to architecture into my application a way to distinguish the source of a variable change, either from UI or code-behind. My problem is that I need to trigger some action after a property changed its value, but I only need to do this when the change comes from the UI because otherwise I don-t want to perform that action. I am having some trouble because, for example when a checkbox(two way binding), changes state, my binded property gets updated and then I use the checked and uncheked events to trigger that action.The problem is that when I change the property in codebehind it also triggers those events and I do not want that. Right now, i am using a flag that enables, or not, the actions at the event handlers but I do not feel that this is a good idea. Any sugestions or ideas? I am considering using only one-way binding and control everything my self, using commands.

  Read the article

• jQuery internals: Organization of the jQuery Object

  - by sonofdelphi

  I was going through the source code of jQuery. I'm having trouble understanding the wrapping strategy for the jQuery object. (function( window, undefined ) { // Define a local copy of jQuery var jQuery = function( selector, context ) { // The jQuery object is actually just the init constructor 'enhanced' return new jQuery.fn.init( selector, context ); }, .... .... .... // Expose jQuery to the global object window.jQuery = window.$ = jQuery; })(window); Specifically, what I'm not able to understand stems from the first line. What is the outermost unnamed container function? Why is it required? Why is the container function anonymous? What is the need for the outermost '(' parantheses ?

  Read the article

• Synclock a section of code while waiting for ShowDialog to return

  - by clawson

  I'm having trouble working out how to lock my application out of a section of code while it waits for a response from an external program. I've used Synclock on a section of code with the Me object in the expression. In this Synclock I call an overridden ShowDialog method of a dialog box, which has a timeout parameter, but does return the value from the underlying ShowDialog function call ,once the timer is setup. Works like this. SyncLock Me Dim frmDlgWithTimeout As New frmDlgWithTimeout ' dialog box with overridden ShowDialog ' Dim res As DialogResult = frmDlgWithTimeout.ShowDialog(10 * 1000) ' 10 sec timeout ' End SyncLock Now, external programs may raise events that bring my application to this Synclock but it doesn't prevent it from entering it, even though the ShowDialog function hasn't returned a value (and hence what I thought would keep the section of code locked). There is only one instance of the object that is used for lock in the program. Your help is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to mix orm.xml definitions with annotations when using JPA/hibernate ?

  - by hatchetman82

  I'm working on an application whihc supports using several DB vendors, with the table definitions being different for each DB type. The trouble is that the column definitions are not what hibernate expects, and so my entities contain a lot of @Column(..columnDefintion="..."...) annotations. To further complicate the issue, there's no way to specify a columnDefinition per DB. So I tried moving just the columnDefinition bits to an orm.xml file, and I have a Maven profile that bundles the correct file. JBoss 4.0.5/Hibernate 3.2.0GA fails to validate, and it seems it completely disregards the annotations given an xml file. Is there a way to make Hibernate "merge" the data from the xml with the annotations ?

  Read the article

• Help with grasping (INNER?) JOIN

  - by Greenie

  I'm having trouble building a query. I can do what I want in 3 different queries. SELECT id FROM table1 WHERE url LIKE '%/$downloadfile' put that in $url_id SELECT item_id FROM table2 WHERE rel_id = '$url_id'" put that in $item_id SELECT rel_id FROM table2 WHERE rel_id = '$item_id' AND field_id = '42'" put that in $user_id But from reading examples on joins and inner joins I think there's a more elegant way. I cant wrap my brain around writing a better query (but would like to) I can describe how it should go: table1 fields: id, url table2 fields item_id, rel_id, field_id I know the last part of table1.url (LIKE '%/$filename') with that I select table1.id. table1.id is equal to one entry in table2.rel_id. So get that and select the table2.item_id. In table2 there is another entry which has the same table2.item_id and it will have a table2.field_id = '42' And finally the value I need is the table2.rel_id where the table2.field_id was 42. I will fetch that value and put it in $user_id Can this be done with one query using joins/inner joins?

  Read the article

• JJIL Android Java Problem

  - by Danny_E

  Hey Guys, Long time reader never posted until now. Im having some trouble with Android, im implementing a library called JJIL its an open source imaging library. My problem is this i need to run some analysis on an image and to do so i need to have it in jjil.core.image format and once those processes are complete i need to convert the changed image from jjil.core.image to java.awt.image. I cant seem to find a method of doing this does anyone have any ideas or have any experience with this? I would be grateful of any help. Danny

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279  | Next Page >