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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • How do you save images to a Blackberry device via HttpConnection?

    - by Kai
    My script fetches xml via httpConnection and saves to persistent store. No problems there. Then I loop through the saved data to compose a list of image url's to fetch via queue. Each of these requests calls the httpConnection thread as so ... public synchronized void run() { HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open("http://www.somedomain.com/image1.jpg"); connection.setRequestMethod("GET"); String contentType = connection.getHeaderField("Content-type"); InputStream responseData = connection.openInputStream(); connection.close(); outputFinal(responseData, contentType); } public synchronized void outputFinal(InputStream result, String contentType) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { if(contentType.startsWith("text/")) { // bunch of xml save code that works fine } else if(contentType.equals("image/png") || contentType.equals("image/jpeg") || contentType.equals("image/gif")) { // how to save images here? } else { //default } } What I can't find any good documentation on is how one would take the response data and save it to an image stored on the device. Maybe I just overlooked something very obvious. Any help is very appreciated. Thanks

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  • Backbone Model fetched from Lithium controller is not loaded properly in bb Model

    - by Nilesh Kale
    I'm using backbone.js and Lithium. I'm fetching a model from the server by passing in a _id that is received as a hidden parameter on the page. The database MongoDB has stored the data correctly and can be viewed from console as: { "_id" : ObjectId("50bb82694fbe3de417000001"), "holiday_name" : "SHREE15", "description": "", "star_rating" : "3", "holiday_type" : "family", "rooms" : "1", "adults" : "2", "child" :"0", "emails" : "" } The Lithium Model class is so: class Holidays extends \lithium\data\Model { public $validates = array( 'holiday_name' => array( array( 'notEmpty', 'required' => true, 'message' => 'Please key-in a holiday name! (eg. Family trip for summer holidays)' ))); } The backbone Holiday model is so: window.app.IHoliday = Backbone.Model.extend({ urlRoot: HOLIDAY_URL, idAttribute: "_id", id: "_id", // Default attributes for the holiday. defaults: { }, // Ensure that each todo created has `title`. initialize: function(props) { }, The code for backbone/fetch is: var Holiday = new window.app.IHoliday({ _id: holiday_id }); Holiday.fetch( { success: function(){ alert('Holiday fetched:' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('HOLIDAY Fetched: \n' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('Holiday name:' + Holiday.get('holiday_name')); } } ); Lithium Controller Code is: public function load($holiday_id) { $Holiday = Holidays::find($holiday_id); return compact('Holiday'); } PROBLEM: The output of the backbone model fetched from server is as below and the Holiday model is not correctly 'formed' when data returns into backbone Model: HOLIDAY Fetched: {"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","Holiday":{"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","holiday_name":"SHREE15","description":"","star_rating":"3","holiday_type":"family","rooms":"1","adults":"2","child":"0","emails":""}} iplann...view.js (line 68) Holiday name:undefined Clearly there is some issue when the data is passed/translated from Lithium and loaded up as a model into backbone Holiday model. Is there something very obviously wrong in my code?

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  • create TableModel and populate jTable dynamically

    - by Julia
    Hi all! I want to store the results of reading lucene index into jTable, so that I can make it sortable by different columns. From index I am reading terms with different measures of their frequencies. Table columns are these : [string term][int absFrequency][int docFrequency][double invFrequency] So i in AbstractTableModel I can define column names, but i dont know how to get the Object[][]data with results from the following method: public static void FrequencyMap(Directory indexDir) throws Exception { List<Object>redoviLista = new ArrayList<Object>(); //final Map<String,TermRow> map = new TreeMap<String,TermRow>(); List<String>termList = new ArrayList<String>(); IndexReader iReader = IndexReader.open(indexDir); FilterIndexReader fReader = new FilterIndexReader(iReader); int numOfDocs = fReader.numDocs(); TermEnum terms = fReader.terms(); while (terms.next()){ Term term = terms.term(); String termText = term.text(); termList.add(termText); //Calculating the frequencies int df = iReader.docFreq(term); double idf = 0.0F; idf = Math.log10((double) numOfDocs / df); double tfidf = (df*idf); //Here comes important part Object oneTableRow[] = {termText, df, idf, tfidf}; redoviLista.add(jedanRed); // So i thaught to store them into list, and then later to copy into table, but didnt manage } iReader.close(); // So I need something like this, and i Neeed this array to be stored out of this method Object[][]data = new Object[redoviLista.size()][]; for (int i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { data[i][0] = redoviLista.get(i); } So I am kindda stuck here to proceed to implement AbstractTableModel and populate and display this table .... :/ Please help!

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  • SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

    - by Kenneth
    I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

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  • Are there some cases where Python threads can safely manipulate shared state?

    - by erikg
    Some discussion in another question has encouraged me to to better understand cases where locking is required in multithreaded Python programs. Per this article on threading in Python, I have several solid, testable examples of pitfalls that can occur when multiple threads access shared state. The example race condition provided on this page involves races between threads reading and manipulating a shared variable stored in a dictionary. I think the case for a race here is very obvious, and fortunately is eminently testable. However, I have been unable to evoke a race condition with atomic operations such as list appends or variable increments. This test exhaustively attempts to demonstrate such a race: from threading import Thread, Lock import operator def contains_all_ints(l, n): l.sort() for i in xrange(0, n): if l[i] != i: return False return True def test(ntests): results = [] threads = [] def lockless_append(i): results.append(i) for i in xrange(0, ntests): threads.append(Thread(target=lockless_append, args=(i,))) threads[i].start() for i in xrange(0, ntests): threads[i].join() if len(results) != ntests or not contains_all_ints(results, ntests): return False else: return True for i in range(0,100): if test(100000): print "OK", i else: print "appending to a list without locks *is* unsafe" exit() I have run the test above without failure (100x 100k multithreaded appends). Can anyone get it to fail? Is there another class of object which can be made to misbehave via atomic, incremental, modification by threads? Do these implicitly 'atomic' semantics apply to other operations in Python? Is this directly related to the GIL?

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  • MS SQL datetime precision problem

    - by Nailuj
    I have a situation where two persons might work on the same order (stored in an MS SQL database) from two different computers. To prevent data loss in the case where one would save his copy of the order first, and then a little later the second would save his copy and overwrite the first, I've added a check against the lastSaved field (datetime) before saving. The code looks roughly like this: private bool orderIsChangedByOtherUser(Order localOrderCopy) { // Look up fresh version of the order from the DB Order databaseOrder = orderService.GetByOrderId(localOrderCopy.Id); if (databaseOrder != null && databaseOrder.LastSaved > localOrderCopy.LastSaved) { return true; } else { return false; } } This works for most of the time, but I have found one small bug. If orderIsChangedByOtherUser returns false, the local copy will have its lastSaved updated to the current time and then be persisted to the database. The value of lastSaved in the local copy and the DB should now be the same. However, if orderIsChangedByOtherUser is run again, it sometimes returns true even though no other user has made changes to the DB. When debugging in Visual Studio, databaseOrder.LastSaved and localOrderCopy.LastSaved appear to have the same value, but when looking closer they some times differ by a few milliseconds. I found this article with a short notice on the millisecond precision for datetime in SQL: Another problem is that SQL Server stores DATETIME with a precision of 3.33 milliseconds (0. 00333 seconds). The solution I could think of for this problem, is to compare the two datetimes and consider them equal if they differ by less than say 10 milliseconds. My question to you is then: are there any better/safer ways to compare two datetime values in MS SQL to see if they are exactly the same?

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  • How to make designer generated .Net application settings portable

    - by Ville Koskinen
    Hello, I've been looking at modifying the source of the Doppler podcast aggregator with the goal of being able to run the program directly from my mp3 player. Doppler stores application settings using a Visual Studio designer generated Settings class, which by default serializes user settings to the user's home directory. I'd like to change this so that all settings would be stored in the same directory as the exe. It seems that this would be possible by creating a custom provider class which inherits the SettingsProvider class. Has anyone created such a provider and would like to share code? Update: I was able to get a custom settings provider nearly working by using this MSDN sample, i.e. with simple inheritance. I was initially confused as Windows Forms designer stopped working until I did this trick suggested at Codeproject: internal sealed partial class Settings { private MySettingsProvider settingsprovider = new MySettingsProvider(); public Settings() { foreach (SettingsProperty property in this.Properties) { property.Provider = settingsprovider; } ... The program still starts with window size 0;0 though. Anyone with any insight to this? Why the need to assing the provider in runtime---instead of using attributes as suggested by MSDN? Why the changes in how the default settings are passed to the application with the default settings provider vs. the custom one?

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  • How to form submit and show a different page in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by melaos
    hi guys i'm new to asp.net mvc.. so basically i just build up a two page app which takes the registration information of the user and post it to the database. i use a lot of jquery and ajax calls to retrieve data from the database using linq to sql stored proc object. and currently i'm stuck at one page where after the user submits the form it should redirect him to /Home/AddProduct. What i found was the error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. what used on my form are basically a combination of html controls, asp.net controls and some asp.net mvc type controls. i submit the form using action="/Home/ProductAdded" and after doing some googling i found i was supposed to add in the machine key but after doing so, the index page becomes unviewable. because it couldn't find the index file now. removing the action helps, but now it just doesn't go anywhere. so what am i missing here? i feel i'm missing a lot of fundamentals understanding about asp.net mvc and i don't even know how to submit a form and go to a different page here!!

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  • Transitive SQL query on same table

    - by MiKu
    Hey. consider d following table and data... in_timestamp | out_timestamp | name | in_id | out_id | in_server | out_server | status timestamp1 | timestamp2 | data1 |id1 | id2 | others-server1 | my-server1 | success timestamp2 | timestamp3 | data1 | id2 | id3 | my-server1 | my-server2 | success timestamp3 | timestamp4 | data1 | id3 | id4 | my-server2 | my-server3 | success timestamp4 | timestamp5 | data1 | id4 | id5 | my-server3 | others-server2 | success the above data represent log of a execution flow of some data across servers. e.g. some data has flowed from some 'outside-server1' to bunch of 'my-servers' and finally to destined 'others-server2'. Question : 1) I need to give this log in representable form to client where he doesn't need to know anything about the bunch of 'my-servers'. All i am supposed to give is timestamp of the data entered my infrastructure and when it left; drilling down to following info. in_timestamp (of 'others_server1' to 'my-server1') out_timestamp (of 'my-server3' to 'others-server2') name status I want to write sql for the same! Can someone help? NOTE : there might not be 3 'my-servers' all the time. It differs from situation to situation. e.g. there might be 4 'my-server' involved for, say, data2! 2) Are there any other alternatives to SQL? I mean stored procs/etc? 3) Optimizations? (The records are huge in number! As of now, it is around 5 million a day. And we are supposed to show records that are upto a week old.) In advance, THANKS FOR THE HELP! :)

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  • Full-text search on App Engine with Whoosh

    - by Martin
    I need to do full text searching with Google App Engine. I found the project Whoosh and it works really well, as long as I use the App Engine Development Environement... When I upload my application to App Engine, I am getting the following TraceBack. For my tests, I am using the example application provided in this project. Any idea of what I am doing wrong? <type 'exceptions.ImportError'>: cannot import name loads Traceback (most recent call last): File "/base/data/home/apps/myapp/1.334374478538362709/hello.py", line 6, in <module> from whoosh import store File "/base/data/home/apps/myapp/1.334374478538362709/whoosh/__init__.py", line 17, in <module> from whoosh.index import open_dir, create_in File "/base/data/home/apps/myapp/1.334374478538362709/whoosh/index.py", line 31, in <module> from whoosh import fields, store File "/base/data/home/apps/myapp/1.334374478538362709/whoosh/store.py", line 27, in <module> from whoosh import tables File "/base/data/home/apps/myapp/1.334374478538362709/whoosh/tables.py", line 43, in <module> from marshal import loads Here is the import I have in my Python file. # Whoosh ---------------------------------------------------------------------- sys.path.append(os.path.abspath(os.path.join(os.path.dirname(__file__), '..', 'utils'))) from whoosh.fields import Schema, STORED, ID, KEYWORD, TEXT from whoosh.index import getdatastoreindex from whoosh.qparser import QueryParser, MultifieldParser Thank you in advance for your help!

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  • Invalid argument supplied for foreach() using adldap

    - by Brad
    I am using adldap http://adldap.sourceforge.net/ And I am passing the session from page to page, and checking to make sure the username within the session is a member of a certain member group, for this example, it is the STAFF group. <?php ini_set('display_errors',1); error_reporting(E_ALL); require_once('/web/ee_web/include/adLDAP.php'); $adldap = new adLDAP(); session_start(); $group = "STAFF"; //$authUser = $adldap->authenticate($username, $password); $result=$adldap->user_groups($_SESSION['user_session']); foreach($result as $key=>$value) { switch($value) { case $group: print '<h3>'.$group.'</h3>'; break; default: print '<h3>Did not find specific value: '.$value.'</h3>'; } if($value == $group) { print 'for loop broke'; break; } } ?> It gives me the error: Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() on line 15, which is this line of code: foreach($result as $key=$value) { When I uncomment the code $authUser = $adldap-authenticate($username, $password); and enter in the appropriate username and password, it works fine, but I shouldn't have to, since the session is valid, I just want to see if the username stored within the valid_session is apart of the STAFF group. Why would it be giving me that problem?

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  • Is it possible to run my Windows Form application in Windows CE platform?

    - by Fakhrul
    I am new in Windows CE development and never done it yet. Need some advise from the expert in here. In our current project, we are developing a client-server application. The client side is using a windows form application that are base on Windows XP OS while the server is a web base application. This question are related to the client application (Windows Form). This application are using Sql Server Express Edition for data storage. The data is stored in XML object format. It also can transfer a data from client to server via web service. It also interact with hardware such as Magnetic Stripe Reader, Contactless Smart Card Reader, and a thermal printer. Most of the communication between hardware device and systems are base on Serial Port. It is use standard app.config for the configuration and is a multi threaded application. There is a new requirement to use a Handheld device which is use a Windows CE platform. This handheld included the required equipment such as Contactless Smart Card Reader, Printer and Magnetic Stripe Reader. Instead of developing a new client application, is it possible to me to convert my current application that are base on Windows XP to Windows CE? If yes, how can I do that? If no, is it any other brilliant suggestion to do this? Thanks in advance. Software Engineer

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  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

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  • what data structure should I use for hash lookup as well as binary search?

    - by zebraman
    I am working on a school homework. I have a list of names. I want to be able to perform binary search on these names (find all names between a lower and upper bound) for first name as well as last name, and perform keyword searches as well (this will be accomplished using hashing. For example, if I have the names Garfield Cat Snoopy Dog Captain Crunch Fat Cat then a binary search of first names (C,H) will return Captain Crunch, Fat Cat, and Garfield Cat. A binary search of last names (Cr,D) will return Captain Crunch. A keyword search of 'cat' will return Fat Cat and Garfield Cat. I understand binary search will only work on a sorted list, but since I am planning on searching two different criteria, I will have to sort the list by last name or first name depending on what I'm searching for. I feel like it will be too inefficient to have to resort the list each time I want to perform a new binary search. Would it just be better for me to set up and maintain two sorted lists (one for sorted by first name, one for sorted by last name)? Also, for hashing, will I have to set up a different table of names for that as well? I understand each keyword will hash to some value determined by a hash function, and this value (or key) is a table address where the corresponding names are stored. So I just want to know what would be the best way to solve this problem? Maintaining separate structures, or is there a way to efficiently do everything I want with just one data structure?

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  • How to create an XML document from a .NET object?

    - by JL
    I have the following variable that accepts a file name: var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); I would like to change it so that I can pass in an object. I don't want to have to serialize the object to file first. Is this possible? Update: My original intentions were to take an xml document, merge some xslt (stored in a file), then output and return html... like this: public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } In the above code I am reading in the xml from a file. Now what I would like to do is just work with the object, before it was serialized to the file. So let me illustrate my problem using code public string TransformXMLFromObject(myObjType myobj , string xsltFileName) { // Notice the xslt stays the same. // Its in these next few lines that I can't figure out how to load the xml document (xd) from an object, and not from a file.... var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); }

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  • How can I determine if an object or reference has a valid string coercion?

    - by Ether
    I've run into a situation (while logging various data changes) where I need to determine if a reference has a valid string coercion (e.g. can properly be printed into a log or stored in a database). There isn't anything in Scalar::Util to do this, so I have cobbled together something using other methods in that library: use strict; use warnings; use Scalar::Util qw(reftype refaddr); sub has_string_coercion { my $value = shift; my $as_string = "$value"; my $ref = ref $value; my $reftype = reftype $value; my $refaddr = sprintf "0x%x", refaddr $value; if ($ref eq $reftype) { # base-type references stringify as REF(0xADDR) return $as_string !~ /^${ref}\(${refaddr}\)$/; } else { # blessed objects stringify as REF=REFTYPE(0xADDR) return $as_string !~ /^${ref}=${reftype}\(${refaddr}\)$/; } } # Example: use DateTime; my $ref1 = DateTime->now; my $ref2 = \'foo'; print "DateTime has coercion: " . has_string_coercion($ref1) . "\n\n"; print "scalar ref has coercion: " . has_string_coercion($ref2) . "\n"; However, I suspect there might be a better way of determining this by inspecting the guts of the variable in some way. How can this be done better?

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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  • Entity Framework self referencing entity deletion.

    - by Viktor
    Hello. I have a structure of folders like this: Folder1 Folder1.1 Folder1.2 Folder2 Folder2.1 Folder2.1.1 and so on.. The question is how to cascade delete them(i.e. when remove folder2 all children are also deleted). I can't set an ON DELETE action because MSSQL does not allow it. Can you give some suggesions? UPDATE: I wrote this stored proc, can I just leave it or it needs some modifications? SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE PROCEDURE sp_DeleteFoldersRecursive @parent_folder_id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF @parent_folder_id = 0 RETURN; CREATE TABLE #temp(fid INT ); DECLARE @Count INT; INSERT INTO #temp(fid) SELECT FolderId FROM Folders WHERE FolderId = @parent_folder_id; SET @Count = @@ROWCOUNT; WHILE @Count > 0 BEGIN INSERT INTO #temp(fid) SELECT FolderId FROM Folders WHERE EXISTS (SELECT FolderId FROM #temp WHERE Folders.ParentId = #temp.fid) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT FolderId FROM #temp WHERE Folders.FolderId = #temp.fid); SET @Count = @@ROWCOUNT; END DELETE Folders FROM Folders INNER JOIN #temp ON Folders.FolderId = #temp.fid; DROP TABLE #temp; END GO

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  • How can I test this SQL Server performance Utility?

    - by Martin Smith
    As part of my MSc I need to do a three month project later this year. I have decided to do something which will likely be useful for me in the workplace and spend the time getting to understand SQL Server internals. The deliverable for this project will be a performance advisor looking at a variety of different rules. Some static such as finding redundant indexes, some more dynamic such as using XEvents to find outlying invocations of stored procedure execution times when certain parameters are passed. I am struggling to come up with a good way of testing this though. I can obviously design a "bad" database and a synthetic workload that my tool will pick up issues on but I also need to demonstrate that it has real world utility. Looking at the self tuning database literature it is common to use TPC benchmarks but I've had a look at the TPCC site and it looks very time consuming to implement and not that good a fit to my project's testing needs in any event (I would still be able to "rig" it by the decisions I made on indexing or physical architecture). Plan A would be to find willing beta tester(s) but in the event that isn't possible I will need a fallback plan. The best idea I have come up with so far is to use the various MS sample applications as examples of real world applications. e.g. http://msftdpprodsamples.codeplex.com/ http://www.asp.net/community/projects/ Does anyone have any better suggestions?

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  • priority queue with limited space: looking for a good algorithm

    - by SigTerm
    This is not a homework. I'm using a small "priority queue" (implemented as array at the moment) for storing last N items with smallest value. This is a bit slow - O(N) item insertion time. Current implementation keeps track of largest item in array and discards any items that wouldn't fit into array, but I still would like to reduce number of operations further. looking for a priority queue algorithm that matches following requirements: queue can be implemented as array, which has fixed size and _cannot_ grow. Dynamic memory allocation during any queue operation is strictly forbidden. Anything that doesn't fit into array is discarded, but queue keeps all smallest elements ever encountered. O(log(N)) insertion time (i.e. adding element into queue should take up to O(log(N))). (optional) O(1) access for *largest* item in queue (queue stores *smallest* items, so the largest item will be discarded first and I'll need them to reduce number of operations) Easy to implement/understand. Ideally - something similar to binary search - once you understand it, you remember it forever. Elements need not to be sorted in any way. I just need to keep N smallest value ever encountered. When I'll need them, I'll access all of them at once. So technically it doesn't have to be a queue, I just need N last smallest values to be stored. I initially thought about using binary heaps (they can be easily implemented via arrays), but apparently they don't behave well when array can't grow anymore. Linked lists and arrays will require extra time for moving things around. stl priority queue grows and uses dynamic allocation (I may be wrong about it, though). So, any other ideas?

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  • Comparing values from a string in a MySQL query

    - by bellesebastien
    I'm having some trouble comparing values found in VARCHAR fields. I have a table with products and each product has volume. I store the volume in a VARCHAR field and it's usually a number (30, 40, 200..) but there are products that have multiple volumes and their data is stored separated by semicolons, like so 30;60;80. I know that storing multiple volumes like that is not recommended but I have to work with it like it is. I'm trying to implement a search by volume function for the products. I want to also display the products that have a bigger or equal volume than the one searched. This is not a problem with the products that have a single volume, but it is a problem with the multiple volume products. Maybe an example will make things clearer: Let's say I have a product with this in it's volume field: 30;40;70;80. If someone searched for a volume, lets say 50, I want that product to be displayed. To do this I was thinking of writing my own custom MySQL function (I've never this before) but maybe someone can offer a different solution. I apologize for my poor English but I hope I made my question clear. Thanks.

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  • Best way to enforce inter-table constraints inside database

    - by FerranB
    I looking for the best way to check for inter-table constraints an step forward of foreing keys. For instance, to check if a date child record value is between a range date on two parent rows columns. For instance: Parent table ID DATE_MIN DATE_MAX ----- ---------- ---------- 1 01/01/2009 01/03/2009 ... Child table PARENT_ID DATE ---------- ---------- 1 01/02/2009 1 01/12/2009 <--- HAVE TO FAIL! ... I see two approaches: Create materialized views on-commit as shown in this article (or other equivalent on other RDBMS). Use stored-procedures and triggers. Any other approach? Which is the best option? UPDATE: The motivation of this question is not about "putting the constraints on database or on application". I think this is a tired question and anyone does the way she loves. And, I'm sorry for detractors, I'm developing with constraints on database. From here, the question is "which is the best option to manage inter-table constraints on database?". I'm added "inside database" on the question title. UPDATE 2: Some one added the "oracle" tag. Of course materialized views are oracle-tools but I'm interested on any option regardless it's on oracle or others RDBMSs.

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  • Programmatically open an email from a POP3 and extract an attachment

    - by Josh
    We have a vendor that sends CSV files as email attachments. These CSV files contain statuses that are imported into our application. I'm trying to automate the process end-to-end, but it currently depends on someone opening an email, saving the attachment to a server share, so the application can use the file. Since I cannot convince the vendor to change their process, such as offering an FTP location or a Web Service, I'm stuck with trying to automate the existing process. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically open an email from a POP3 account and extract an attachment? The preferred solution would reside on a Windows 2003 server, be written VB.NET and secure. The application can reside on the same server as the POP3 server, for example, we could setup the free POP3 server that comes with Windows Server and pull against the mail file stored on the file system. BTW, we are willing to pay for an off-the-shelf solution, if one exists. Note: I did look at this question but the answer points to a CodeProject solution that doesn't deal with attachments.

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  • (rsErrorOpeningConnection) Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user

    - by ChelleATL
    I am trying to deploy a report to the Reporting Services Server but keep running up against this error: An error occurred during client rendering. An error has occurred during report processing. (rsProcessingAborted) Cannot create a connection to data source 'dataSource1'. (rsErrorOpeningConnection) Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user 'DOMAIN\useradmin', error code 0x5. Here’s my situation: Everything is being ran using DOMAIN\useradmin and the report is using a remote database. Reporting Services and SQL Server are both ran under DOMAIN\useradmin. DOMAIN\useradmin is a windows AD login and is part of the server machine Administrators group. My test report is using a data source model that in turn is using a data source that is connection to a database on a different SQL Server. The data source is using “Credentials stored securely in the report server” with the options “Use as Windows credentials when connecting to the data source” and “Impersonate the authenticated user after a connection has been made to the data source.” I am using the credentials of DOMAIN\useradmin that is the db owner of the remote database. DOMAIN\useradmin is assigned the roles, System Administrator, System User and Browser, Content Manager, My Reports, Publisher, Report Builder. So if everything is being run under an über AD account, why I am getting this Could not obtain information about Windows NT group/user 'DOMAIN\useradmin' error? Under normal circumstances , an AD login with Publisher permissions will developing reports using a datasource model created by DOMAIN\useradmin but using one of the remote database’s users which is mapped from yet another AD login. I ran the following statements and non errors were returned: use master go xp_grantlogin 'DOMAIN\useradmin' go xp_logininfo 'DOMAIN\useradmin' go

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