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  • Pydev and Django: Shell not finding certain modules?

    - by Rosarch
    I am developing a Django project with PyDev in Eclipse. For a while, PyDev's Django Shell worked great. Now, it doesn't: >>> import sys; print('%s %s' % (sys.executable or sys.platform, sys.version)) C:\Python26\python.exe 2.6.4 (r264:75708, Oct 26 2009, 08:23:19) [MSC v.1500 32 bit (Intel)] >>> >>> from django.core import management;import mysite.settings as settings;management.setup_environ(settings) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named mysite.settings >>> The dev server runs just fine. What could I be doing wrong? The models module is also conspicuously absent: >>> import mysite.myapp.models Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named mysite.myapp.models On the normal command line, outside of PyDev, the shell works fine. Why could this be happening?

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  • Sample twitter application.

    - by Jack
    <?php function updateTwitter($status) { // Twitter login information $username = 'xxxxx'; $password = 'xxxxxx'; // The url of the update function $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; // Arguments we are posting to Twitter $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); // Will store the response we get from Twitter $responseInfo=array(); // Initialize CURL $ch = curl_init($url); // Tell CURL we are doing a POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // execute the CURL call $response = curl_exec($ch); // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following output Error: 0 Please help.

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • How to construct LambdaExpression with conversion

    - by nerijus
    I need to sort in ajax response grid by column name. Column value is number stored as a string. Let's say some trivial class (in real-life situation there is no possibility to modify this class): class TestObject { public TestObject(string v) { this.Value = v; } public string Value { get; set; } } then simple test: [Test] public void LambdaConstructionTest() { var queryable = new List<TestObject> { new TestObject("5"), new TestObject("55"), new TestObject("90"), new TestObject("9"), new TestObject("09"), new TestObject("900"), }.AsQueryable(); var sortingColumn = "Value"; ParameterExpression parameter = Expression.Parameter(queryable.ElementType); MemberExpression property = Expression.Property(parameter, sortingColumn); //// tried this one: var c = Expression.Convert(property, typeof(double)); LambdaExpression lambda = Expression.Lambda(property, parameter); //// constructs: o=>o.Value var callExpression = Expression.Call(typeof (Double), "Parse", null, property); var methodCallExpression = Expression.Call( typeof(Queryable), "OrderBy", new[] { queryable.ElementType, property.Type }, queryable.Expression, Expression.Quote(lambda)); // works, but sorts by string values. //Expression.Quote(callExpression)); // getting: System.ArgumentException {"Quoted expression must be a lambda"} var querable = queryable.Provider.CreateQuery<TestObject>(methodCallExpression); // return querable; // <- this is the return of what I need. } Sorry for not being clear in my first post as @SLaks answer was correct but I do not know how to construct correct lambda expression in this case.

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  • Wanted: How to reliably, consistently select an MKMapView annotation

    - by jdandrea
    After calling MKMapView's setCenterCoordinate:animated: method (without animation), I'd like to call selectAnnotation:animated: (with animation) so that the annotation pops out from the newly-centered pushpin. For now, I simply watch for mapViewDidFinishLoadingMap: and then select the annotation. However, this is problematic. For instance, this method isn't called when there's no need to load additional map data. In those cases, my annotation isn't selected. :( Very well. I could call this immediately after setting the center coordinate instead. Ahh, but in that case it's possible that there is map data to load (but it hasn't finished loading yet). I'd risk calling it too soon, with the animation becoming spotty at best. Thus, if I understand correctly, it's not a matter of knowing if my coordinate is visible, since it's possible to stray almost a screenful of distance and have to load new map data. Rather, it's a matter of knowing if new map data needs to be loaded, and then acting accordingly. Any ideas on how to accomplish this, or how to otherwise (reliably) select an annotation after re-centering the map view on the coordinate where that annotation lives? Clues appreciated - thanks!

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  • Response.Redirect in a COM+ Object Called from Classic ASP Page

    - by ajdams
    Basically we moved from IIS 5 to IIS 7 and I am trying to update some of our old COM objects to .NET by rewriting them in C#. What I am have so far is a Classic ASP page calling the COM+ object and then I am trying to do a simple redirect within the COM+ object (this is just for testing purposes, it's not what the object will do eventually). My problem/question is, why does the redirect call not work properly? Am I doing something wrong or can you not redirect within a COM+ object? All that happens is a blank white page comes up and if I check the IIS logs, I see no errors. Here is my code so far: In Classic ASP (the call to COM+) Set oBankReg = CreateObject("BVSRegistration.SignIn") oBankReg.GetBankId(bankid) Code in C# COM object: using System; using System.Web; using System.Text; using System.EnterpriseServices; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; [assembly: ApplicationName("BVSRegistration")] [assembly: Description("COM+ upgrade of the BVSRegistration VB6 SignIn.cls.")] [assembly: ApplicationActivation(ActivationOption.Server)] [assembly: ApplicationAccessControl(false, AccessChecksLevel = AccessChecksLevelOption.ApplicationComponent)] namespace BVSRegistration { public class SignIn : ServicedComponent { public void GetBankId(string bankid) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("http://www.google.com"); } } } Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Modifying UINavigation Bar Buttons in SubViews

    - by james
    I'm having trouble trying to modify the navigation bar in the subview portion of my application. self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(add_Clicked:)] autorelease]; I have no issues modifying the navigation bar in any of my UIViewControllers classes. The simplified application class outline is as such: AppDelegate - UIViewControllerA (has a left and a right navigationBarButton) - Subview is displayed when a SegmentControl is selected. (Within the subview, I'm trying to modify the right NavigationBarButton that is displayed) [self.view addSubview:newControllerName.view]; Methods I have attempted: Trying to set self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem within my subview to a new UIBarButtonItem. Creating a pointer to UIViewControllerA within my AppDelegate. The UIViewControllerA contains a function setNavButton I wrote to set the rightBarButtonItem to a button. Then I am referencing the AppDelegate's reference to UIViewControllerA and attempting to call setNavButton. I included a NSLog call to see if that function is being called and it is executing but the NavigationBar isn't being modified. I'm trying to avoid having to push a UIViewController after the SegmentControl is clicked in UIViewControllerA so that I can simulate the SegmentControl as tabs. I'm not getting any errors during compile or run time. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • Unity to dispose of object

    - by Johan Levin
    Is there a way to make Unit dispose property-injected objects as part of the Teardown? The background is that I am working on an application that uses ASP.NET MVC 2, Unity and WCF. We have written our own MVC controller factory that uses unity to instantiate the controller and WCF proxies are injected using the [Dependency] attribute on public properties of the controller. At the end of the page life cycle the ReleaseController method of the controller factory is called and we call IUnityContainer.Teardown(theMvcController). At that point the controller is disposed as expected but I also need to dispose the injected wcf-proxies. (Actually I need to call Close and/or Abort on them and not Dispose but that is a later problem.) I could of course override the controllers' Dispose methods and clean up the proxies there, but I don't want the controllers to have to know about the lifecycles of the injected interfaces or even that they refer to WCF proxies. If I need to write code myself for this - what would be the best extension point? I'd appreciate any pointer.

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  • C question: error: expected ')' before '*' token

    - by lhw
    ===EDIT I apologize for not putting the pcb struct into the code snippet. There is a struct called pcb defined in above the two structs I originally posted. Namely, typedef struct{ UINT32 proc; struct pcb *link; }pcb; Hi, I asked a question regarding structs in C a few minutes ago and got an answer blazing fast. But now I'm facing another problem, namely the error in the title of this question. I'm trying to implement a simple priority queue in C using arrays of queues. However, when I try to declare a function on pcb_pQ structure, I get the above error. I have the structs clearly defined in the heard file. In the header file: typedef struct{ pcb *head; pcb *tail; SINT32 size; } pcb_Q; typedef struct pcb_pQ { pcb_Q queues[5]; SINT32 size; } pcb_pQ; Function prototype in header file: /*priority queue operations*/ VOID pcb_pq_enqueue(pcb_pQ*, pcb*); Function impelmentation in .c file: VOID pcb_pq_enqueue(pcb_pQ* pcb_pQ, pcb* pcb) { pcb_Q* pcb_Q_p; int priority; priority = pcb->proc_priority; pcb_Q_p = &pcb_pQ->queues[priority]; pcb_enqueue(pcb_Q_p, pcb); } When I try to compile the above code, I get an "error: expected ')' before '*' token". This error is pointing to the function signature in the .c file, namely VOID pcb_pq_enqueue(pcb_pQ* pcb_pQ, pcb* pcb) { But I am not sure why I am getting this error, could someone give me a hand? Thanks a lot.

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  • Dynamically load Jquery into .js page

    - by RussP
    Please excuse me if I'm simple here, I want to create a simple widget that people can access from their websites - e.g by copy/past something like <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> <div id="test"></div> anywhere in their web pages. where is dynamically filled via Jquery and the functions in/on test2.js. I can do it if JQuery is actually "printed" on the page of test2.js, but I cannot get any JQuery functions to work if I try to include/call JQuery dynamically. How do you call JQuery via javascript and then get it to work with the functions on the page? And/Or is there an easy way to add the <div id="test"></div> dynamically aswell? Sure I can body.append etc. but that only adds at the bottom of the page. Is there a way to .append in the position where the script include <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> is actually placed? Hope I make sence.

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  • XSL check param length

    - by AdRock
    I need to check if a param has got a value in it and if it has then do this line otherwise do this line. I've got it working whereas I don't get errors but it's not taking the right branch Here is the template which holds the html in the XSL stylesheet <xsl:call-template name="volunteer_role"> <xsl:with-param name="volrole" select="volunteer/roles" /> </xsl:call-template> and here is the template where there is a choice whether to take this brancg or that brach depending if the param is empty <xsl:template name="volunteer_role"> <xsl:param name="volrole" select="'Not Available'" /> <div class="small bold">ROLES:</div> <div class="large"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="string-length($volrole)!=0"> <xsl:value-of select="$volrole" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:text> </xsl:text> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </div> </xsl:template>

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  • secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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  • Settings module not found deploying django on a shared server

    - by mcanes
    I'm trying to deploy my django project on a shared hosting as describe here I have my project on /home/user/www/testa I'm using this script #!/usr/bin/python import sys, os sys.path.append("/home/user/bin/python") sys.path.append('/home/user/www/testa') os.chdir("/home/user/www/testa") os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = "settings.py" from django.core.servers.fastcgi import runfastcgi runfastcgi(method="threaded", daemonize="false") And here's the error I get when trying to run it from shell: WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param REQUEST_METHOD required by WSGI! WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param SERVER_NAME required by WSGI! WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param SERVER_PORT required by WSGI! WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param SERVER_PROTOCOL required by WSGI! Traceback (most recent call last): File "build/bdist.linux-i686/egg/flup/server/fcgi_base.py", line 558, in run File "build/bdist.linux-i686/egg/flup/server/fcgi_base.py", line 1118, in handler File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 230, in __call__ self.load_middleware() File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 33, in load_middleware for middleware_path in settings.MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES: File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/utils/functional.py", line 269, in __getattr__ self._setup() File "/home/usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/conf/__init__.py", line 40, in _setup self._wrapped = Settings(settings_module) File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/conf/__init__.py", line 75, in __init__ raise ImportError, "Could not import settings '%s' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): %s" % (self.SETTINGS_MODULE, e) ImportError: Could not import settings 'settings.py' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): No module named settings.py Content-Type: text/html Unhandled Exception Unhandled Exception An unhandled exception was thrown by the application. What am I doing wrong? Running the script from the browser just gives me an internal server error.

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  • handling java exception

    - by Noona
    This questions is related to java exception, why are there some cases that when an exception thrown the program exits even though the exception was caught and there was no exit() statement? my code looks something like this void bindProxySocket(DefaultHttpClientConnection proxyConnection, String hostName, HttpParams params) { if (!proxyConnection.isOpen()) { Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(hostName, 80); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { proxyConnection.bind(socket, params); } catch(IOException e) { System.err.println ("couldn't bind socket"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } and then I call this method like this: bindProxySocket(proxyConn, hostName, params1); but, the program exits, although I want to handle the exception by doing something else, can it be because I didn't enclose the method call within a try catch clause? what happens if I catch the exception again even though it's already in the method? and what should I do if i want to clean resources only if an exception occurs and otherwise I want to continue with the program? I am guessing in this case I have to include the whole piece of code until I can clean the resources with in a try statement or can I do it in the handle exception statement? some of these questions are on this specific case, but I would like to get a thorough answer to all my questions for future reference. thanks

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  • Using Pragma in Oracle Package Body

    - by asalamon74
    I'd like to create an Oracle Package and two functions in it: A public function ( function_public ) and a private one ( function_private ). The public function calls the private one. I'd like to add the same pragma to the functions: WNDS, WNPS. Without the pragma I can create a code like this: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2; END PRAGMA_TEST; CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_private(y IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code END; FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code -- here is a call for function_private -- code END; END PRAGMA_TEST; If I'd like to add WNDS, WNPS pragma to function_public I should also add the same pragma to function_private because function_public calls function_private. It seems to me pragma can be used only in the package declaration, and not in package body, so I have to declare function_private in the package as well: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_private(y IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2; PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES( function_private, WNDS, WNPS); FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2; PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES( function_public, WNDS, WNPS); END PRAGMA_TEST; CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_private(y IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code END; FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code -- here is a call for function_private -- code END; END PRAGMA_TEST; This solution makes my function_private public as well. Is there a solution to add pragma to a function which can be found only in the package body?

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  • How to use will_paginate with a nested resource in Rails?

    - by Sue Petersen
    I'm new to Rails, and I'm having major trouble getting will_paginate to work with a nested resource. I have two models, Statement and Invoice. will_paginate is working on Statement, but I can't get it to work on Invoice. I know I'd doing something silly, but I can't figure it out and the examples I've found on google won't work for me. statement.rb class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :invoices def self.search(search, page) paginate :per_page => 19, :page => page, :conditions => ['company like ?', "%#{search}%"], :order => 'date_due DESC, company, supplier' end end statements_controller.rb <irrelevant code clipped for readability> def index #taken from the RAILSCAST 51, will_paginate podcast @statements = Statement.search(params[:search], params[:page]) end I call this in the view like so, and it works: <%= will_paginate @statements %> But I can't figure out how to get it to work for Invoices: invoice.rb class Invoice < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :statement def self.search(search, page) paginate :per_page => 19, :page => page, :conditions => ['company like ?', "%#{search}%"], :order => 'employee' end end invoices_controller.rb class InvoicesController < ApplicationController before_filter :find_statement #TODO I can't get will_paginate to work w a nested resource def index #taken from the RAILSCAST 51, will_paginate podcast @invoices = Invoice.search(params[:search], params[:page]) end def find_statement @statement_id = params[:statement_id] return(redirect_to(statements_url)) unless @statement_id @statement = Statement.find(@statement_id) end end And I try to call it like this: <%= will_paginate (@invoices) % The most common error message, as I play with this, is: "The @statements variable appears to be empty. Did you forget to pass the collection object for will_paginate?" I don't have a clue what the problem is, or how to fix it. Thanks for any help and guidance!

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  • jQuery RJS inserting string vs dom.

    - by Dmitriy Likhten
    So I am trying to use jQuery to insert data from an ajax call. I actually use the jquery.form plugin, and have the ajax form submitted with a dataType: 'script'. The response is a jquery expression which contains a <%= javascript_escape(render ...) %> erb tag (similar to what the railscasts episode 136 instructs to do). However the end result is that the full text of the render is inserted as if that was the content to be inserted into the page, as text, not as dom elements. Could the fact that the render had some newlines at the beginning be the cause? Dom text: "\n \n &lt;li>....&lt;/li>" I also tried having jQuery just read the response as a script and execute it, and used the prototype-based rjs stuff, same effect, the text is inserted into the dom. Are there any reasons why such a behavior would be experienced? A bit of clarification: My response.js.erb is jQuery("#content").append("<%= escape_javascript(render(:partial => "widgets")) %>"); jQuery("#information").text("Finally, something happened!"); The full text inside the append() call is inserted as text into #content.

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • Sorting Arrays by More the One Value, and Prioritizing the Sort based on Column data.

    - by Mark Tomlin
    I'm looking for a way to sort an array (we call this a row), with an array of values (that I'll call columns). Each row has columns that must be sorted based on the priority of: timetime, lapcount & timestamp. Each column cotains this information: split1, split2, split3, laptime, lapcount, timestamp. laptime if in hundredths of a second. (1:23.45 or 1 Minute, 23 Seconds & 45 Hundredths is 8345.) Lapcount is a simple unsigned tiny int, or unsigned char. timestamp is unix epoch. The lowest laptime should be at the get a better standing in this sort. Should two peoples laptimes equal, then timestamp will be used to give the better standing in this sort. Should two peoples timestamp equal, then the person with less of a lapcount get's the better standing in this sort. By better standing, I mean closer to the top of the array, closer to the index of zero where it a numerical array. I think the array sorting functions built into php can do this with a callback, I was wondering what the best approch was for a weighted sort like this would be.

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  • Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

    - by James
    Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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  • Retrieve click() handler in jQuery for later use

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    I'm using the jQuery tablesorter plugin to sort a table, which assigns .click() handlers to the <th>s in the table. Since my table has alternating colors for each column, I've built a simple fix_table_colors(identifier) function that does as it should when I call it manually using Firebug. I would like, however, to have that automatically called after a sort. To do this, I decided to retrieve the .click() handler from the <th>s, and assign a new handler that simply calls the previous handler, followed by fix_table_colors(). (This SO question is similar, but uses standard onClick() attributes, which won't work here.) From the accepted answer to this question, I have created the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $("table.torrents").tablesorter({ debug: true, headers: { 1: { sorter: 'name' }, 2: { sorter: 'peers' }, 3: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 4: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 5: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 6: { sorter: 'ratio' } } }); $('table.torrents thead th').each(function() { var th = $(this); var clickHandler = th.data('events').click[0]; th.click(function() { clickHandler(); fix_table_colors('table.torrents'); }); }); }); While this is conceptually correct, clickHandler doesn't appear to actually be a function, and so I cannot call it. With a bit more digging in Firebug, I found that click[3] appears to hold the function I'm looking for (and click[10] my new one). I get an 'e is undefined' error on line 2 of tablesorter.min.js when using that, though. Am I even going down the right path? I have a feeling that with what I've found so far, I can make this work, but it's going to be much uglier than I would expect it needs to be.

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  • implementing Ws-security within WCF proxy

    - by harrisonmeister
    Hi, I have imported an axis based wsdl into a VS 2008 project as a service reference. I need to be able to pass security details such as username/password and nonce values to call the axis based service. I have looked into doing it for wse, which i understand the world hates (no issues there) I have very little experience of WCF, but have worked how to physically call the endpoint now, thanks to SO, but have no idea how to set up the SoapHeaders as the schema below shows: <S:Envelope xmlns:S="http://www.w3.org/2001/12/soap-envelope" xmlns:ws="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2002/04/secext"> <S:Header> <ws:Security> <ws:UsernameToken> <ws:Username>aarons</ws:Username> <ws:Password>snoraa</ws:Password> </ws:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> ••• </S:Header> ••• </S:Envelope> Any help much appreciated Thanks, Mark

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  • Why is it assumed that send may return with less than requested data transmitted on a blocking socke

    - by Ernelli
    The standard method to send data on a stream socket has always been to call send with a chunk of data to write, check the return value to see if all data was sent and then keep calling send again until the whole message has been accepted. For example this is a simple example of a common scheme: int send_all(int sock, unsigned char *buffer, int len) { int nsent; while(len 0) { nsent = send(sock, buffer, len, 0); if(nsent == -1) // error return -1; buffer += nsent; len -= nsent; } return 0; // ok, all data sent } Even the BSD manpage mentions that ...If no messages space is available at the socket to hold the message to be transmitted, then send() normally blocks... Which indicates that we should assume that send may return without sending all data. Now I find this rather broken but even W. Richard Stevens assumes this in his standard reference book about network programming, not in the beginning chapters, but the more advanced examples uses his own writen (write all data) function instead of calling write. Now I consider this still to be more or less broken, since if send is not able to transmit all data or accept the data in the underlying buffer and the socket is blocking, then send should block and return when the whole send request has been accepted. I mean, in the code example above, what will happen if send returns with less data sent is that it will be called right again with a new request. What has changed since last call? At max a few hundred CPU cycles have passed so the buffer is still full. If send now accepts the data why could'nt it accept it before? Otherwise we will end upp with an inefficient loop where we are trying to send data on a socket that cannot accept data and keep trying, or else? So it seems like the workaround, if needed, results in heavily inefficient code and in those circumstances blocking sockets should be avoided at all an non blocking sockets together with select should be used instead.

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