Search Results

Search found 23968 results on 959 pages for 'tail call'.

Page 286/959 | < Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >

  • What's next for all of these Microsoft "overlapping" and "enhanced" products ?

    - by pointlesspolitics
    Recently I attended a road show, organised by MS Gold Partner company in the UK. The products discussed were: SharePoint server (2010 and 2007), Exchange server, Office Communication Server 2007, Exchange hosted services Office Live meeting, Office Communicator, System Center Configuration Manager and Operation Manager, VMware, Windows 7 etc. As Microsoft claims the enhancement in the each product against higher version, I felt that clients are not much interested in all these details. For example Office Communicator, surely they have improved a lot the product and first site all said 'WOW' great product, but nobody wish to pay money for all these extra features. Some argued, they are bogged down by all these increased number of menus. They don't need soft call feature included with mobile call. It apply for all other products as well such as MS office (next what 2 ribbons ?), windows OS and many more. Indeed there must be good features in all these products, but is it worth to spend money and time to update the older system ? Also sometimes these feature will decrease the productivity instead increase it. *So do you think what ever enhancement MS is doing in the products is only for selling purpose, not a real use ?? and I think also keep the developer busy learning the new tools and features. * I am sure some some people here will argue that some people need this sort of features. But I am not talking about NASA or MI5 guys. I am talking of usual businesses and joe public. Any ideas welcome.

    Read the article

  • Passing a list of ints to WebMethod using jQuery and ajax.

    - by birdus
    I'm working on a web page (ASP.NET 4.0) and am just starting simple to try and get this ajax call working (I'm an ajax/jQuery neophyte) and I'm getting an error on the call. Here's the js: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Items = new Object; TestParams.Items[0] = 1; TestParams.Items[1] = 5; TestParams.Items[2] = 10; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(TestParams); var _url = 'AdvancedSearch.aspx/TestMethod'; $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: _url, data: finalObj, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { $(".main").html(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(thrownError.toString()); } }); Here's the method in my code behind file: [Serializable] public class TestParams { public List<int> Items { get; set; } } public partial class Search : Page { [WebMethod] public static string TestMethod(TestParams testParams) { // I never hit a breakpoint in here // do some stuff // return some stuff return ""; } } Here's the stringified json I'm sending back: {"Items":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}} When I run it, I get this error: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'undefined' is null or not an object It breaks on the error function. I've also tried this variation on building the json (based on a sample on a website) with this final json: var TestParams = new Object; TestParams.Positions = new Object; TestParams.Positions[0] = 1; TestParams.Positions[1] = 5; TestParams.Positions[2] = 10; var DTO = new Object; DTO.positions = TestParams; var finalObj = JSON.stringify(DTO) {"positions":{"Positions":{"0":1,"1":5,"2":10}}} Same error message. It doesn't seem like it should be hard to send a list of ints from a web page to my webmethod. Any ideas? Thanks, Jay

    Read the article

  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

    Read the article

  • Automatically grow document view of NSScrollView using auto layout?

    - by Monolo
    Is there a simple way to get an NSScrollView to adapt to its document view changing size when using autolayout (the Lion feature)? I have tried to call both setNeedsUpdateConstraints: and setNeedsLayout: on the document view, the clip view and the scroll view, without any results. fittingSize of the document view reports the correct size. An NSPopover in conjunction with an NSViewController handles this nicely, with the popover growing and shrinking as needed, and I was hoping to get a similar simple and robust behaviour with the scroll view. I have checked the documentation for scroll views, but they don't seem to be updated to use autolayout. Edited to clarify: The problem I experience is that the document view, which holds subviews, is not re-sized when the subviews change their size, even if they call invalidateIntrinsicContentSize. The contents of the document view are hence clipped to the original size of the document view as they grow. The document view is created in a nib and set as the scroll view's document view in an awakeFromBib method. What I hoped to obtain was that the document view frame would automatically be adjusted to when its fittingSize changes, and the scrollbars updated accordingly. NSPopover does something similar - provided that the subviews of the content controller's view have the constraints set right and various content hugging values are high enough (higher than the hidden popover window's hight constraint priority, for one).

    Read the article

  • VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

    - by Rob
    I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

    Read the article

  • How can I create objects based on dump file memory in a WinDbg extension?

    - by pj4533
    I work on a large application, and frequently use WinDbg to diagnose issues based on a DMP file from a customer. I have written a few small extensions for WinDbg that have proved very useful for pulling bits of information out of DMP files. In my extension code I find myself dereferencing c++ class objects in the same way, over and over, by hand. For example: Address = GetExpression("somemodule!somesymbol"); ReadMemory(Address, &addressOfPtr, sizeof(addressOfPtr), &cb); // get the actual address ReadMemory(addressOfObj, &addressOfObj, sizeof(addressOfObj), &cb); ULONG offset; ULONG addressOfField; GetFieldOffset("somemodule!somesymbolclass", "somefield", &offset); ReadMemory(addressOfObj+offset, &addressOfField, sizeof(addressOfField), &cb); That works well, but as I have written more extensions, with greater functionality (and accessing more complicated objects in our applications DMP files), I have longed for a better solution. I have access to the source of our own application of course, so I figure there should be a way to copy an object out of a DMP file and use that memory to create an actual object in the debugger extension that I can call functions on (by linking in dlls from our application). This would save me the trouble of pulling things out of the DMP by hand. Is this even possible? I tried obvious things like creating a new object in the extension, then overwriting it with a big ReadMemory directly from the DMP file. This seemed to put the data in the right fields, but freaked out when I tried to call a function. I figure I am missing something...maybe c++ pulls some vtable funky-ness that I don't know about? My code looks similar to this: SomeClass* thisClass = SomeClass::New(); ReadMemory(addressOfObj, &(*thisClass), sizeof(*thisClass), &cb);

    Read the article

  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

    Read the article

  • How do I use the 7-zip LZMA SDK 9.x to self-extract?

    - by Christopher
    I am writing a SFX for an installer. I have a number of good reasons for doing this, primarily: The installer is actually a large Python program which uses plugins. Using py2exe or pyinstaller makes doing plugins annoyingly complicated. I want to be able to pass command-line options directly to the Python installer script, as if it were getting run directly. Using the existing 7-zip SFX modules is clunky because I cannot pass command-line options directly into the processes I want to start. I need more flexibility than any of the existing SFX modules I have seen provide. I have already tried using the SDK to open the file, seek to the 7z archive signature, and run the decompression from there. That fails because the SzArEx_Open() call appears to assume that you are starting at a 0 offset in the file. I am using the File_Seek() call to perform the seeking. It seems like there must be a way to do this, since the 7z archive format itself supports multiple embedded streams. Any pointers to examples would be awesome, but narrative explanation is also quite welcome!

    Read the article

  • Windows Workflow Foundation: Recommendations how to design architecture

    - by Petr Felzmann
    We are running several the same ASP.NET applications (one per customer) based on our custom framework (libraries). Each application use its own database (Initial Catalog in the term of connection string). Now we would like to add workflow capability (of course 4.0 ;) to the applications. So the particular workflows will be the same for all the applications only some initial settings of each workflow can vary, e.g. in one application the e-mail will be send to the user X, but in other application to the user Y. I have several general questions how to design architecture: (1) Can be the workflow database shared for all the applications? (2) Where to host workflow engine - inside our custom windows NT service or inside IIS? What are the criteria to choose the right host? (3) How the workflow engine should communicate with applications? Should application call some WCF endpoint API configured in workflow host or vice verse - should each application provide WCF endpoint API and workflow engine will call it? How then the workflow engine will identify applications? Both cases requires probably some application identifier as a parameter in API calls? (4) We would like to also store some information to the application databases based on the workflow states. Is it possible? Thanks for suggestions!

    Read the article

  • How to associate static entity instances in a Session without database retrieval

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I have a simple Result class that used to be an Enum but has evolved into being its own class with its own table. public class Result { public static readonly Result Passed = new Result(StatusType.Passed) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result NotRun = new Result(StatusType.NotRun) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result Running = new Result(StatusType.Running) { Id = [Predefined] }; } Each of these predefined values has a row in the database at their predefined Guid Id. There is then a failed result that has an instance per failure: public class FailedResult : Result { public FailedResult(string description) : base(StatusType.Failed) { . . . } } I then have an entity that has a Result: public class Task { public Result Result { get; set; } } When I save a Task, if the Result is a predefined one, I want NHibernate to know that it doesn't need to save that to the database, nor does it need to fetch it from the database; I just want it to save by Id. The way I get around this is when I am setting up the session, I call a method to load the static entities: protected override void OnSessionOpened(ISession session) { LockStaticResults(session, Result.Passed, Result.NotRun, Result.Running); } private static void LockStaticResults(ISession session, params Result[] results) { foreach (var result in results) { session.Load(result, result.Id); } } The problem with the session.Load method call is it appears to be fetching to the database (something I don't want to do). How could I make this so it does not fetch the database, but trusts that my static (immutable) Result instances are both up to date and a part of the session?

    Read the article

  • dynamically created controls and responding to control events

    - by Dirk
    I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How to create a usable UrlHelper instance?

    - by Marek
    I am using quartz.net to schedule regular events within asp.net mvc application. The scheduled job should call a service layer script that requires a UrlHelper instance (for creating Urls based on correct routes (via urlHelper.Action(..)) contained in emails that will be sent by the service). I do not want to hardcode the links into the emails - they should be resolved using the urlhelper. The job: public class EvaluateRequestsJob : Quartz.IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { // where to get a usable urlHelper instance? ServiceFactory.GetRequestService(urlHelper).RunEvaluation(); } } Please note that this is not run within the MVC pipeline. There is no current request being served, the code is run by the Quartz scheduler at defined times. How do I get a UrlHelper instance usable on the indicated place? If it is not possible to construct a UrlHelper, the other option I see is to make the job "self-call" a controller action by doing a HTTP request - while executing the action I will of course have a UrlHelper instance available - but this seems a little bit hacky to me.

    Read the article

  • Focus behavior in Applet-Javascript interaction

    - by Dan
    I have a web page with an applet that opens a popup window and also makes Javascript calls. When that Javascript call results in a focus() call on an HTML input, that causes the browser window to push itself in front of the applet window. But only on certain browsers, namely MSIE. On Firefox the applet window remains on top. How can I keep that behavior consistent in MSIE? Note that using the old Microsoft VM for Java also achieves the desired (applet window in front) result. HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function focusMe() { document.getElementById('mytext').focus(); } </script> </head> <body> <applet id="myapplet" mayscript code="Popup.class" ></applet> <form> <input type="text" id="mytext"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('myapplet').showPopup()" value="click"> </form> </body> </html> Java code: public class Popup extends Applet { Frame frame; public void start() { frame = new Frame("Test Frame"); frame.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Button button = new Button("Push Me"); frame.add("Center", button); button.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { frame.setVisible(false); } }); frame.pack(); } public void showPopup() { frame.setVisible(true); JSObject.getWindow(this).eval("focusMe()"); } }

    Read the article

  • What is actually happening to this cancelled HTTP request?

    - by Brian Schroth
    When a user takes a particular action on a page, an AJAX call is made to save their data. Unfortunately, this call is synchronous as they need to wait to see if the data is valid before being allowed to continue. Obviously, this eliminates a lot of the benefit of using Asynchronous Javascript And XML, but that's a subject for another post. That's the design I'm working with. The request is made using the dojo.xhrPost function, with a 60s timeout parameter, and the error handler redirects to an error page. What I am finding in testing is that in Firefox, if I initiate the ajax request and then press ESC, the page hangs waiting for a response, and then eventually after exactly 90s (not 60s, the function's timeout), the error handler will kick in and redirect to the error page. I expected this to happen, but either immediately as soon as the request was cancelled, or after 60s due to the timeout value being 60s. What I don't understand is why is it 90s? What is actually happening under the hood when the user cancels their request in Firefox, and how does it differ from IE, where everything works fine exactly the same as if the request had not been cancelled? Is the 90s related to any user-configurable browser settings?

    Read the article

  • Inheritance of closure objects and overriding of methods

    - by bobikk
    I need to extend a class, which is encapsulated in a closure. This base class is following: var PageController = (function(){ // private static variable var _current_view; return function(request, new_view) { ... // priveleged public function, which has access to the _current_view this.execute = function() { alert("PageController::execute"); } } })(); Inheritance is realised using the following function: function extend(subClass, superClass){ var F = function(){ }; F.prototype = superClass.prototype; subClass.prototype = new F(); subClass.prototype.constructor = subClass; subClass.superclass = superClass.prototype; StartController.cache = ''; if (superClass.prototype.constructor == Object.prototype.constructor) { superClass.prototype.constructor = superClass; } } I subclass the PageController: var StartController = function(request){ // calling the constructor of the super class StartController.superclass.constructor.call(this, request, 'start-view'); } // extending the objects extend(StartController, PageController); // overriding the PageController::execute StartController.prototype.execute = function() { alert('StartController::execute'); } Inheritance is working. I can call every PageController's method from StartController's instance. However, method overriding doesn't work: var startCont = new StartController(); startCont.execute(); alerts "PageController::execute". How should I override this method?

    Read the article

  • VBA: How go I get the total width from all controls in an MS-Access form?

    - by Stefan Åstrand
    Hi, This is probably very basic stuff, but please bear in mind I am completely new to these things. I am working on a procedure for my Access datasheet forms that will: Adjust the width of each column to fit content Sum the total width of all columns and subtract it from the size of the window's width Adjust the width of one of the columns to fit the remaining space This is the code that adjusts the width of each column to fit content (which works fine): Dim Ctrl As Control Dim Path As String Dim ClmWidth As Integer 'Adjust column width to fit content For Each Ctrl In Me.Controls If TypeOf Ctrl Is TextBox Then Path = Ctrl.Name Me(Path).ColumnWidth = -2 End If Next Ctrl How should I write the code so I get the total width of all columns? Thanks a lot! Stefan Solution This is the code that makes an Access datasheet go from this: To this: Sub AdjustColumnWidth(frm As Form, clm As String) On Error GoTo HandleError Dim intWindowWidth As Integer ' Window width property Dim ctrl As Control ' Control Dim intCtrlWidth As Integer ' Control width property Dim intCtrlSum As Integer ' Control width property sum Dim intCtrlAdj As Integer ' Control width property remaining after substracted intCtrSum 'Adjust column width to standard width For Each ctrl In frm.Controls If TypeOf ctrl Is TextBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is CheckBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is ComboBox Then Path = ctrl.Name frm(Path).ColumnWidth = 1500 End If Next ctrl 'Get total column width For Each ctrl In frm.Controls If TypeOf ctrl Is TextBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is CheckBox Or TypeOf ctrl Is ComboBox Then Path = ctrl.Name intCtrlWidth = frm(Path).ColumnWidth If Path <> clm Then intCtrlSum = intCtrlSum + intCtrlWidth End If End If Next ctrl 'Adjust column to fit window intWindowWidth = frm.WindowWidth - 270 intCtrlAdj = intWindowWidth - intCtrlSum frm.Width = intWindowWidth frm(clm).ColumnWidth = intCtrlAdj Debug.Print "Totalt (Ctrl): " & intCtrlSum Debug.Print "Totalt (Window): " & intWindowWidth Debug.Print "Totalt (Remaining): " & intCtrlAdj Debug.Print "clm : " & clm HandleError: GeneralErrorHandler Err.Number, Err.Description Exit Sub End Sub Code to call procedure: Private Sub Form_Load() Call AdjustColumnWidth(Me, "txtDescription") End Sub

    Read the article

  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

    - by Shamster
    I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

    Read the article

  • Read from file hexadecimal number and change their representation style

    - by user576844
    I want to write a program changing the notation of all hexadecimal numbers found in an assembly source file from traditional (h) to C-style (0x). I have started the coding part but am not sure how can I detect the hexadecimal numbers and eventually change the style and save it back in the file... I have started writing the program.. ## Mips program - .data fin: .ascii "" # filename for input msg0: .asciiz "aaaa" msg1: .asciiz "Please enter the input file name:" buffer: .asciiz "" .text #----------------------- li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg1 syscall li $v0, 8 la $a0, fin li $a1, 21 syscall jal fileRead #read from file move $s1, $v0 #$t0 = total number of bytes li $t0, 0 # Loop counter loop: bge $t0, $s1, end #if end of file reached OR if there is an error in the file lb $t5, buffer($t0) #load next byte from file jal checkhexa #check for hexadecimal numbers addi $t0, $t0, 1 #increment loop counter j loop end: jal output jal fileClose li $v0, 10 syscall fileRead: # Open file for reading li $v0, 13 # system call for open file la $a0, fin # input file name li $a1, 0 # flag for reading li $a2, 0 # mode is ignored syscall # open a file move $s0, $v0 # save the file descriptor # reading from file just opened li $v0, 14 # system call for reading from file move $a0, $s0 # file descriptor la $a1, buffer # address of buffer from which to read li $a2, 100000 # hardcoded buffer length syscall # read from file jr $ra Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Creating a form dynamically

    - by Nathan
    Hi, I use a search button that creates a form dynamically at the server side and returns it with Jquery syntax. After I fill-up the form and click on submit button, there is another .submit() Jquery function that suppose to be called to validate input before data is sent to the server. But, for some reason, this function is never called, and the data is request is sent. In more details: This is the form that the serach button creates dynamically at the server side and "prints" to html page with Jquery: <form action=... name="stockbuyform" class="stockbuyform" method="post"> <input type=text value="Insert purchasing amount"> <input type="submit" value="Click to purchase"> </form> And here is the .submit() function : $(".stockbuyform").submit(function() { alert("Need to validate purchasing details"); } But whaen I click on purchase button, the .submit() function is never called. Does it mean that I can't use another Jquery call with the answer I got in the first call?

    Read the article

  • ajax to php to curl and back..

    - by pfunc
    I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

    Read the article

  • How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

    - by Bungle
    Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Connection

    - by pepersview
    Hello, I would like to ask you about NSURLConnection in objective-c for iPhone. I have one app that needs to connect to one webservice to receive data (about YouTube videos), Then I have all the things that I need to connect (Similar to Hello_Soap sample code in the web). But now, my problem is that I create a class (inherits from NSObject) named Connection and I have implemented the methods: didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError and connectionDidFinishLoading. Also the method: -(void)Connect:(NSString *) soapMessage{ NSLog(soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://....."]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if( theConnection ) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"theConnection is NULL"); } } But when from my AppDelegate I create one Connection object: Connection * connect = [[Connection alloc] Init:num]; //It's only one param to test. [connect Connect:method.soapMessage]; And I call this method, when this finishes, it doesn't continue calling didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError or connectionDidFinishLoading. I'm trying to do this but I can't for the moment. The thing I would like to do is to be able to call this class "Connection" each time that I want to receive data (after that to be parsed and displayed in UITableViews). Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How can I prevent default_environment variables from getting set by Capistrano's sudo action?

    - by Logan Koester
    My deploy.rb sets some environment variables to use the regular user's local Ruby rather than the system-wide one. set :default_environment, { :PATH => '/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global/bin:/home/myapp/bin:/usr/bin:/opt/local/bin:/opt/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games', :RUBY_VERSION => 'ruby-1.9.1-p378', :GEM_HOME => '/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378', :GEM_PATH => '/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global' } Naturally, when a task is using sudo, I would expect the system-wide ruby to be used instead. But it seems the environment variables are being set anyway, which is obviously invalid for the root user and returns an error: executing "sudo -p 'sudo password: ' /etc/init.d/god stop" servers: ["myapp.com"] [myapp.com] executing command command finished failed: "env PATH=/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global/bin:/home/myapp/bin:/usr/bin:/opt/local/bin:/opt/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games RUBY_VERSION=ruby-1.9.1-p378 GEM_HOME=/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378 GEM_PATH=/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global sh -c 'sudo -p '\\''sudo password: '\\'' /etc/init.d/god stop'" on myapp.com It makes no difference whether I use capistrano's sudo "system call" or the regular run "sudo system call". How can I avoid this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >