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• Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

  - by user304361

  I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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• Can I output/flush data to screen while processing ajax page?

  - by Bee

  I need to display on my page a list of records pulled from a table. Ajax works fine (I query the database and put all the data inside a on the main page) but if I have lots of records (say 500+) it will hang until data is fully loaded, THEN it will be sent back to the page and correctly displayed. I would like to be able to display the records on the page while getting them, instead of being forced to wait until completion. I am trying with flush(); inside the remote (ajax) page but it still waits until full data is loaded. This is what I currently have inside the ajax page: At the very beginning: @apache_setenv('no-gzip', 1); @ini_set('zlib.output_compression', 0); @ini_set('implicit_flush', 1); for ($i = 0; $i < ob_get_level(); $i++) { ob_end_flush(); } ob_implicit_flush(1); Then whenever I have a echo call: ob_flush(); Now if I load the ajax page alone... it will list the records while reading them from the database. But if I call the same page via Ajax, it will hang and send all the data at once. Any idea? This is the function I use to get the ajax content ('id' is the target , 'url' refers to the ajax page that runs the database query to list the records): function ajax(id,url) { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,false); xmlhttp.send(null); document.getElementById(id).innerHTML = parseScript(xmlhttp.responseText); }

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• How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

  - by George

  I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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• Pass enum value to method which is called by dynamic object

  - by user329588

  hello. I'm working on program which dynamically(in runtime) loads dlls. For an example: Microsoft.AnalysisServices.dll. In this dll we have this enum: namespace Microsoft.AnalysisServices { [Flags] public enum UpdateOptions { Default = 0, ExpandFull = 1, AlterDependents = 2, } } and we also have this class Cube: namespace Microsoft.AnalysisServices { public sealed class Cube : ... { public Cube(string name); public Cube(string name, string id); .. .. .. } } I dynamically load this dll and create object Cube. Than i call a method Cube.Update(). This method deploy Cube to SQL Analysis server. But if i want to call this method with parameters Cube.Update(UpdateOptions.ExpandFull) i get error, because method doesn't get appropriate parameter. I have already tried this, but doesn't work: dynamic updateOptions = AssemblyLoader.LoadStaticAssembly("Microsoft.AnalysisServices", "Microsoft.AnalysisServices.UpdateOptions");//my class for loading assembly Array s = Enum.GetNames(updateOptions); dynamic myEnumValue = s.GetValue(1);//1 = ExpandFull dynamicCube.Update(myEnumValue);// == Cube.Update(UpdateOptions.ExpandFull) I know that error is in parameter myEnumValue but i don't know how to get dynamically enum type from assembly and pass it to the method. Does anybody know the solution? Thank you very much for answers and help!

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• Reflection: cast an object to subclass without use instaceof

  - by Fabrizio

  I have this simple interface/class: public abstract class Message { } public class Message1 extends Message{ } public class Message2 extends Message{ } And an utility class: public class Utility { public void handler(Message m){ System.out.println("Interface: Message"); } public void handler(Message1 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message1"); } public void handler(Message2 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message2"); } } Now, the main class: public static void main(String[] args) { Utility p=new Utility(); Message1 m1=new Message1(); p.handler(m1); Message m=(Message) m1; p.handler(m); } The output is Class: Message1 Interface: Message I would that p.handler(m) call the method p.handler(m:Message1) I don't want use the "manual" command instanceof because I have many cases: if(m instance of Message1) p.handler((Message1)m) else if (m instanceof Message2) p.handler((Message2)m) ... If I call m.getClass() I obtain "mypackage.Message1", so the subclass and not the superclass. I try with this code (use reflection): p.handler(m.getClass().cast(m)); But the output is Interface: Message So, this is my problem. I would do a runtime cast of superclass object to subclassobject without use the "code command" istanceof. I would a right command like this: p.handler((m.getclass)m); How can I obtain it? It's possible? Thank in advance. Fabrizio

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• retrieve events where uid is the creator and application id is the admin - Facebook API

  - by Anup Parekh

  I would like to know if there is a Facebook API call to retrieve the events (eids) for all the events a user has created using my facebook connect application. The events are created using the following REST api call: https://api.facebook.com/method/events.create?event_info=' . $e_i . '&access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'] $e_i is the event info array where the 'host' value is set to 'Me' as follows $event_info['host'] = 'Me'; On Facebook events under the "Created by:" section it lists "My user name,Application Name", I presume this is because I am the creator and the application is the admin as stated in the REST api documentation http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/rest/events.create/ Unfortunately I cannot seem to find out how (neither REST nor GPRAPH API) to return a list of events where I am the creator and the application is the admin as in the above scenario. If this is possible I would really appreciate some assistance with how it is done. So far I have tried: REST API events.get using uid=application_id. This only returns events created by the application not those including the user who created them GRAPH API https://graph.facebook.com/me/events?fields=owner&access_token=... this returns all the events for 'me' but not where the application is also the admin. It seems strange that there's no reference to the linkage between the event creator and the event admin through the API but in Facebook it is able to pull both and display them on the event details.

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• Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

  - by Sandhurst

  I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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• Can I configure the ResetPassword in Asp.Net's MembershipProvider?

  - by coloradotechie

  I have an C# asp.net app using the default Sql MembershipProvider. My web.config has a few settings that control how I'm using this Provider: enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" minRequiredPasswordLength="5" The problem I'm running into is that when people reset their passwords, it seems the ResetPassword() method returns a password that is longer than I want and has characters that can be confusing (l,1,i,I,0,O). Furthermore, I'm sending my users an email with a plain-text message and an HTML message (I'm using MailMessage with AlternateViews). If the password has unsafe HTML characters in it, when the email clients render the HTML text the password might be different (e.g. the %, &, and < aren't exactly HTML safe). I've looked over the "add" element that belongs in the web.config, but I don't see any extra configuration properties to only include certain characters in the ResetPassword() method and to limit the password length. Can I configure the ResetPassword() method to limit the password length and limit the character set it is choosing from? Right now I have a workaround: I call ResetPassword() to make sure the supplied answer is correct, and then I use a RandomPassword generator I downloaded off the internet to generate a password that I like (without ambiguous characters, HTML safe, and only 8 characters long) and then I call ChangePassword() to change the user's password after I've already reset it. My workaround seems kludgy and I thought it would be better to configure ResetPassword() to do what I want. Thank you~! ColoradoTechie

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• How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

  - by DotNetDan

  I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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• Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

  - by Visage

  So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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• Data Mappers, Models and Images

  - by James

  Hi, I've seen and read plenty of blog posts and forum topics talking about and giving examples of Data Mapper / Model implementations in PHP, but I've not seen any that also deal with saving files/images. I'm currently working on a Zend Framework based project and I'm doing some image manipulation in the model (which is being passed a file path), and then I'm leaving it to the mapper to save that file to the appropriate location - is this common practise? But then, how do you deal with creating say 3 different size images from the one passed in? At the moment I have a "setImage($path_to_tmp_name)" which checks the image type, resizes and then saves back to the original filename. A call to "getImagePath()" then returns the current file path which the data mapper can use and then change with a call to "setImagePath($path)" once it's saved it to the appropriate location, say "/content/my_images". Does this sound practical to you? Also, how would you deal with getting the URL to that image? Do you see that as being something that the model should be providing? It seems to me like that model should worry about where the images are being stored or ultimately how they're accessed through a browser and so I'm inclined to put that in the ini file and just pass the URL prefix to the view through the controller. Does that sound reasonable? I'm using GD for image manipulation - not that that's of any relevance. UPDATE: I've been wondering if the image resizing should be done in the model at all. The model could require that it's provided a "main" image and a "thumb" image, both of certain dimensions. I've thought about creating a "getImageSpecs()" function in the model that would return something that defines the required sizes, then a separate image manipulation class could carry out the resizing and (perhaps in the controller?) and just pass the final paths in to the model using something like "setImagePaths($images)". Any thoughts much appreciated :) James.

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• Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

  - by Arvanem

  Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

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• Why is cell phone software is still so primitive?

  - by Tomislav Nakic-Alfirevic

  I don't do mobile development, but it strikes me as odd that features like this aren't available by default on most phones: full text search: searches all address book contents, messages, anything else being a plus better call management: e.g. a rotating audio call log, meaning you always have the last N calls recorded for your listening pleasure later (your little girl just said her first "da-da" while you were on a business trip, you had a telephone job interview, you received complex instructions to do something etc.) bluetooth remote control (like e.g. anyRemote, but available by default on a bluetooth phone) no multitasking capabilities worth mentioning and in general no e.g. weekly software updates, making the phone much more usable (even if it had to be done over USB, rather than over the network). I'm sure I was dumbfounded by the lack or design of other features as well, but they don't come to mind right now. To clarify, I'm not talking about smartphones here: my plain, 2-year old phone has a CPU an order of magnitude faster than my first PC, about as much storage space and it's ridiculous how bad (slow, unwieldy) the software is and it's not one phone or one manufacturer. What keeps the (to me) obvious software functionality vacuum on a capable hardware platform from being filled up?

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• In languages which create a new scope each time in a loop block, a new local copy of the local loop

  - by Jian Lin

  It seems that in language like C, Java, and Ruby (as opposed to Javascript), a new scope is created for each iteration of a loop block, and the local variable defined for the loop is actually made into a local variable every single time and recorded in this new scope? For example, in Ruby: p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out is: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope.rb "1.8.6" 1 2 3 4 5 [MacBook01:~] $ So, it looks like when a new scope is created, a new local copy of i is also created and recorded in this new scope, so that when the function is executed at a later time, the "i" is found in those scope chains as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively. Is this true? (It sounds like a heavy operation). Contrast that with p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] i = 0 (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end This time, the i is defined before entering the loop, so Ruby 1.8.6 will not put this i in the new scope created for the loop block, and therefore when the i is looked up in the scope chain, it always refer to the i that was in the outside scope, and give 5 every time: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope2.rb "1.8.6" 5 5 5 5 5 [MacBook01:~] $ I heard that in Ruby 1.9, i will be treated as a local defined for the loop even when there is an i defined earlier? The operation of creating a new scope, creating a new local copy of i each time through the loop seems heavy, as it seems it wouldn't have matter if we are not invoking the functions at a later time. So when the functions don't need to be invoked at a later time, could the interpreter and the compiler to C / Java try to optimize it so that there is not local copy of i each time?

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• MonoRail ActiveRecord - The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE

  - by Justin

  Hey all, I'm new to MonoRail and ActiveRecord and have inherited an application that I need to modify. I have a Category table (Id, Name) and I'm adding a ParentId FK which references the Id in the same table so that you can have parent/child category relationships. I tried adding this to my Category model class: [Property] public int ParentId { get; set; } I also tried doing it this way: [BelongsTo("ParentId")] public Category Parent { get; set; } When I call a method to get all parent categories (they have a null ParentId), it works fine: public static Category[] GetParentCategories() { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", null)); } However, when I call a method to get all child categories within a specific category, it errors out: public static Category[] GetChildCategories(int parentId) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", parentId)); } The error is: "The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint \"FK_Category_ParentId\". The conflict occurred in database \"UCampus\", table \"dbo.Category\", column 'Id'.\r\nThe statement has been terminated." I'm hard-coding in the parentId parameter as 1 and I'm 100% sure it exists as an id in the Category table so I don't know why it'd give this error. Also, I'm doing a select, not an update, so what is going on here?? Thanks for any input on this, Justin

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• What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

  - by Michael Steele

  problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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• How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

  - by LES2

  I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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• mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

  - by Chris

  I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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• Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

  - by Doug Kavendek

  In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

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• BindingList<T> and reflection!

  - by Aren B

  Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

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• C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

  - by Kevin Won

  This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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• Qt Socket blocking functions required to run in QThread where created. Any way past this?

  - by Alexander Kondratskiy

  The title is very cryptic, so here goes! I am writing a client that behaves in a very synchronous manner. Due to the design of the protocol and the server, everything has to happen sequentially (send request, wait for reply, service reply etc.), so I am using blocking sockets. Here is where Qt comes in. In my application I have a GUI thread, a command processing thread and a scripting engine thread. I create the QTcpSocket in the command processing thread, as part of my Client class. The Client class has various methods that boil down to writing to the socket, reading back a specific number of bytes, and returning a result. The problem comes when I try to directly call Client methods from the scripting engine thread. The Qt sockets randomly time out and when using a debug build of Qt, I get these warnings: QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be enabled from another thread QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be disabled from another thread Anytime I call these methods from the command processing thread (where Client was created), I do not get these problems. To simply phrase the situation: Calling blocking functions of QAbstractSocket, like waitForReadyRead(), from a thread other than the one where the socket was created (dynamically allocated), causes random behaviour and debug asserts/warnings. Anyone else experienced this? Ways around it? Thanks in advance.

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• instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

  - by gwk

  My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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• Python3 and ftplib uploading files

  - by Teifion

  My python2 script uploads files nicely using this method but python3 is presenting problems and I'm stuck as to where to go next (googling hasn't helped). from ftplib import FTP ftp = FTP(ftp_host, ftp_user, ftp_pass) ftp.storbinary('STOR myfile.txt', open('myfile.txt')) The error I get is Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/WebServer/CGI-Executables/rob3/functions/cli_f.py", line 12, in upload ftp.storlines('STOR myfile.txt', open('myfile.txt')) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 454, in storbinary conn.sendall(buf) TypeError: must be bytes or buffer, not str I tried altering the code to from ftplib import FTP ftp = FTP(ftp_host, ftp_user, ftp_pass) ftp.storbinary('STOR myfile.txt'.encode('utf-8'), open('myfile.txt')) But instead I got this Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/WebServer/CGI-Executables/rob3/functions/cli_f.py", line 12, in upload ftp.storbinary('STOR myfile.txt'.encode('utf-8'), open('myfile.txt')) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 450, in storbinary conn = self.transfercmd(cmd) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 358, in transfercmd return self.ntransfercmd(cmd, rest)[0] File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 329, in ntransfercmd resp = self.sendcmd(cmd) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 244, in sendcmd self.putcmd(cmd) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 179, in putcmd self.putline(line) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 172, in putline line = line + CRLF TypeError: can't concat bytes to str Can anybody point me in the right direction

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