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• Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

  - by mannish

  So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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• How to assign a table view controller to a table view on iPhone?

  - by Tattat

  I have a CharTableController, View and TableView on my IB. The CharTableController is using "CharTableController" in class identity. And this is how I implemented in the .h, and I want use the "CharTableController" to control the table only: @interface CharTableController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource>{ // IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; NSArray *listData; } //@property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *listData; @end It is the .m: #import "CharTableController.h" @implementation CharTableController @synthesize listData; - (void)viewDidLoad { //NSLog(@"bulll"); // [debugLabel setText:@"success"]; NSArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"A", @"B", @"C", @"D", @"E", nil]; self.listData = array; [array release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.listData count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *SimpleTableIdentifier = @"SimpleTableIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: SimpleTableIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:SimpleTableIdentifier] autorelease]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listData objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } @end In the IB, I already assign the CharTableController's view to Table View in IB. And Table View is under the View, in IB. After I run the program, I can see the table view, but I can't see any char in the table view, why? What's wrong with my code? thz.

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• Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

  - by Rob

  Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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• SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

  - by thursdaysgeek

  I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

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• Value objects in DDD - Why immutable?

  - by Hobbes

  I don't get why value objects in DDD should be immutable, nor do I see how this is easily done. (I'm focusing on C# and Entity Framework, if that matters.) For example, let's consider the classic Address value object. If you needed to change "123 Main St" to "123 Main Street", why should I need to construct a whole new object instead of saying myCustomer.Address.AddressLine1 = "123 Main Street"? (Even if Entity Framework supported structs, this would still be a problem, wouldn't it?) I understand (I think) the idea that value objects don't have an identity and are part of a domain object, but can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing? EDIT: My final question here really should be "Can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing as applied to Value Objects?" Sorry for the confusion! EDIT: To clairfy, I am not asking about CLR value types (vs reference types). I'm asking about the higher level DDD concept of Value Objects. For example, here is a hack-ish way to implement immutable value types for Entity Framework: http://rogeralsing.com/2009/05/21/entity-framework-4-immutable-value-objects. Basically, he just makes all setters private. Why go through the trouble of doing this?

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• How to use generic (NSObject) controller with subviews of a UIViewController?

  - by wanderlust

  I have a UIViewController that is loading several subviews at different times based on user interaction. I originally built all of these subviews in code, with no nib files. Now I am moving to nib files with custom UIView subclasses. Some of these subviews display static data, and I am using loadNibNamed:owner:options: to load them into the view controller. Others contain controls that I need to access. I (sort of) understand the reasons Apple says to use one view controller per screen of content, using generic controller objects (NSObjects) to manage subsections of a screen. So I need a view controller, a generic controller, a view class and a nib. How do I put this all together? My working assumptions and subsequent questions: I will associate the view class with the nib in the 'class identity' drop down in IB. The view controller will coordinate overall screen interactions. When necessary, it will create an instance of the generic controller. Does the generic controller load the nib? How? Do I define the outlets and actions in that view class, or should they be in the generic controller? How do I pass messages between the view controller and the generic controller? If anyone can point me to some sample code using a controller in this way, it will go a long way to helping me understand. None of the books or stackoverflow posts I've read have quite hit the spot yet.

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• WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

  - by Neillyboy

  What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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• UpdateModel not working consistently for me if a ddl gets hidden by jQuery

  - by awrigley

  Hi My jQuery code hides a ddl under certain circumstances. When this is the case, after submitting the form, using the UpdateModel doesn't seem to work consistently. My code in the controller: // POST: /IllnessDetail/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) { IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { IllnessDetail sick = idr.GetLatestIllnessDetailByUsername(User.Identity.Name); UpdateModel(sick); idr.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Current", "IllnessDetail"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(mfv.IllnessDetail.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill)); } I have only just started with MVC, and working under a deadline, so am still hazy as to how UpdateModel works. Debugging seems to reveal that the correct value is passed in to the action method: public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) And the correct value is put into sick in the following line: IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); However, when all is said, done and returned to the client, what displays is the value of: sick.IdInfectiousAgent instead of the value of: ill.IdInfectiousAgent The only reason I can think of is that the ddlInfectiousAgent has been hidden by jQuery. Or am I barking up the wrong lamp post? Andrew

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• Get email address from OpenID provider (Janrain openid library)

  - by Moak

  When signing in to stackoverflow with google I get this message Stackoverflow.com is asking for some information from your Google Account [email protected] • Email address: [email protected] However on my site I can log in with openid but I can't ask for the email address. I get this message You are signing in to example.com with your Google Account [email protected] Also I'm finding it hard to know at what step I need to ask for it, here's some code where I think that step should be built into. /** * Authenticates the given OpenId identity. * Defined by Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface. * * @throws Zend_Auth_Adapter_Exception If answering the authentication query is impossible * @return Zend_Auth_Result */ public function authenticate() { $id = $this->_id; $consumer = new Auth_OpenID_Consumer($this->_storage); if (!empty($id)) { $authRequest = $consumer->begin($id); if (is_null($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", 'Unknown error')); } if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", "Could not redirect to server: " . $authRequest->message)); } $redirectUrl = $authRequest->redirectUrl($this->_root, $this->_returnTo); if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($redirectUrl)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", $redirectUrl->message)); } Zend_OpenId::redirect($redirectUrl); } else { $response = $consumer->complete(Zend_OpenId::selfUrl()); switch($response->status) { case Auth_OpenID_CANCEL: case Auth_OpenID_FAILURE: return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, null, array("Authentication failed. " . @$response->message)); break; case Auth_OpenID_SUCCESS: return $this->_constructSuccessfulResult($response); break; } } } It seems like such an obvious thing but I'm having a hard time googling and combing through the code just to find this. Thanks!

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• Ruby open_id_authentication with Google OpenID

  - by Patrick Daryll Glandien

  I am in my first steps of implementing OpenID in my Rails app. open_id_authentication appeared to be a fairly easy-to-use plugin, which is why I decided to use it. Logging in with my Google account seems to work perfectly, however I do not get the sreg/AX fields that I require. My code is currently as follows: class SessionsController < ApplicationController def new; end def create open_id_authentication end protected def open_id_authentication authenticate_with_open_id(params[:openid_identifier], :required => ["http://axschema.org/contact/email"]) do |result, identity_url, registration| if result.successful? p registration.data @current_user = User.find_by_identity_url(identity_url) if @current_user successful_login else failed_login "Sorry, no user by that identity URL exists (#{identity_url})" end else failed_login result.message end end end private def successful_login session[:user_id] = @current_user.id redirect_to(root_url) end def failed_login(message) flash[:error] = message redirect_to(new_session_url) end end I have already read various discussions about Google OpenID and all only say that you need to require the AX schema instead of the sreg field email, but even when I am doing so (as you can see in the code above), registration.data will remain empty ({}). How do I effectively require the email from most OpenID providers with open_id_authentication?

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• Deployment problems of asp.net 3.5 in iis 5.1

  - by peter

  i have microsoft.net 3.5 application and have IIS5.1,,for deploying website do i need to do any thing aother than this 1.In IIS i created virtual directory named SPA and i browsed in to the location where my project is lacated and i added entire project file there( Do i need to add only bin file and login page or i need to add all pages???) 2.In asp.net folder i selected tab version 2.0,, 3.when i browsed i can see all pages when i click login.aspx i am getting this error [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +821651 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +186 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +1932 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +172 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +381 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +181 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +173 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +133 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +30 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +424 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +494 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +82 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +105 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +111 ChatTool.LoginForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in D:\Chat tool_Ameya\ProjectCode\Unisys Project Testing\Unisys Project\Login.aspx.cs:25 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +15 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +47 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1436

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• Passing a URL as a URL parameter

  - by Andrea

  I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

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• Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

  - by Rupa

  Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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• Closures and universal quantification

  - by Apocalisp

  I've been trying to work out how to implement Church-encoded data types in Scala. It seems that it requires rank-n types since you would need a first-class const function of type forAll a. a -> (forAll b. b -> b). However, I was able to encode pairs thusly: import scalaz._ trait Compose[F[_],G[_]] { type Apply = F[G[A]] } trait Closure[F[_],G[_]] { def apply[B](f: F[B]): G[B] } def pair[A,B](a: A, b: B) = new Closure[Compose[PartialApply1Of2[Function1,A]#Apply, PartialApply1Of2[Function1,B]#Apply]#Apply, Identity] { def apply[C](f: A => B => C) = f(a)(b) } For lists, I was able to get encode cons: def cons[A](x: A) = { type T[B] = B => (A => B => B) => B new Closure[T,T] { def apply[B](xs: T[B]) = (b: B) => (f: A => B => B) => f(x)(xs(b)(f)) } } However, the empty list is more problematic and I've not been able to get the Scala compiler to unify the types. Can you define nil, so that, given the definition above, the following compiles? cons(1)(cons(2)(cons(3)(nil)))

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• Is Google the only OpenID provider that requires "identifier_select"?

  - by Skrat

  I am developing an OpenID consumer in PHP and am using the fantastic LightOpenID library (http://gitorious.org/lightopenid). Basing my code off of that found in the example client script I have successfully created a consumer. However, I've run across a snag: Google requires the openid.identity and openid.claimed_id to be set to "http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select" (see here). If I do that it works but other providers (i.e. AOL) don't. Here are my questions: Is Google a corner case –– is it the only OpenID provider where identifier_select is required, contrary to the OpenID specs? Is there a shortcoming in the LightOpenID library? Is my understanding of how OpenID works incorrect? If Google is not the only provider that requires identifier_select are there a finite number of them which I'll just hardcode in, or is there someway to determine this through the OpenID spec? I'm new to the internals of OpenID so I wouldn't be surprised if this is a dumb question. I haven't been able to find any info on this subject after scouring the Internet.

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• Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

  - by Bubba88

  Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

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• simple image upload in aspnet mvc

  - by FosterZ

  hi,i'm building a simple school portal, i have stucked at uploading an image into my application, i.e a user should upload school image to my server, i have directory for images as ./Content/Images -- all uploading images should be uploaded to this directory. i have following code input type="file" id="SchoolImageUrl" name="SchoolImageUrl" class="required" using this m'getting a browse button, i have no idea how to upload that image to server and how would be my action controller ? i have following controller for creating school public ActionResult SchoolCreate(_ASI_School schoolToCreate, FormCollection collection) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here schoolToCreate.SchoolId = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); schoolToCreate.UserId = new Guid(Request.Form["currentUser"]); schoolToCreate.SchoolAddedBy = User.Identity.Name; HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files["SchoolImageUrl"]; file.SaveAs(file.FileName); //schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = Reuseable.ImageUpload(Request.Files["SchoolImageUrl"], Server.MapPath("../Content")); //schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = Path.GetFullPath(Request.Files[0].FileName); schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = collection["SchoolImageUrl"]; UpdateModel(schoolToCreate); _schoolRepository.CreateSchool(schoolToCreate); //_schoolRepository.SaveToDb(); return RedirectToAction("DepartmentCreate", "Department", new { userId = schoolToCreate.UserId, schoolId = schoolToCreate.SchoolId }); } catch { return View("CreationFailed"); } } here im geting object referece error

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• "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

  - by Tony_Henrich

  I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

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• Why does this test fail?

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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• Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

  - by holtavolt

  I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

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• Changing the indexing on existing table in SQL Server 2000

  - by Raj

  Guys, Here is the scenario: SQL Server 2000 (8.0.2055) Table currently has 478 million rows of data. The Primary Key column is an INT with IDENTITY. There is an Unique Constraint imposed on two other columns with a Non-Clustered Index. This is a vendor application and we are only responsible for maintaining the DB. Now the vendor has recommended doing the following "to improve performance" Drop the PK and Clustered Index Drop the non-clustered index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT Recreate the PK, with a NON-CLUSTERED index Create a CLUSTERED index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT I am not convinced that this is the right thing to do. I have a number of concerns. By dropping the PK and indexes, you will be creating a heap with 478 million rows of data. Then creating a CLUSTERED INDEX on two columns would be a really mammoth task. Would creating another table with the same structure and new indexing scheme and then copying the data over, dropping the old table and renaming the new one be a better approach? I am also not sure how the stored procs will react. Will they continue using the cached execution plan, considering that they are not being explicitly recompiled. I am simply not able to understand what kind of "performance improvement" this change will provide. I think that this will actually have the reverse effect. All thoughts welcome. Thanks in advance, Raj

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• Calculate lookat vector from position and Euler angles

  - by Jaap

  I've implemented an FPS style camera, with the camera consisting of a position vector, and Euler angles pitch and yaw (x and y rotations). After setting up the projection matrix, I then translate to camera coordinates by rotating, then translating to the inverse of the camera position: // Load projection matrix glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); // Set perspective gluPerspective(m_fFOV, m_fWidth/m_fHeight, m_fNear, m_fFar); // Load modelview matrix glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); // Position camera glRotatef(m_fRotateX, 1.0, 0.0, 0.0); glRotatef(m_fRotateY, 0.0, 1.0, 0.0); glTranslatef(-m_vPosition.x, -m_vPosition.y, -m_vPosition.z); Now I've got a few viewports set up, each with its own camera, and from every camera I render the position of the other cameras (as a simple box). I'd like to also draw the view vector for these cameras, except I haven't a clue how to calculate the lookat vector from the position and Euler angles. I've tried to multiply the original camera vector (0, 0, -1) by a matrix representing the camera rotations then adding the camera position to the transformed vector, but that doesn't work at all (most probably because I'm way off base): vector v1(0, 0, -1); matrix m1 = matrix::IDENTITY; m1.rotate(m_fRotateX, 0, 0); m1.rotate(0, m_fRotateY, 0); vector v2 = v1 * m1; v2 = v2 + m_vPosition; // add camera position vector glBegin(GL_LINES); glVertex3fv(m_vPosition); glVertex3fv(v2); glEnd(); What I'd like is to draw a line segment from the camera towards the lookat direction. I've looked all over the place for examples of this, but can't seem to find anything. Thanks a lot!

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• Inheritance issue with ivar on the iPhone

  - by Buffalo

  I am using the BLIP/MYNetwork library to establish a basic tcp socket connection between the iPhone and my computer. So far, the code builds and runs correctly in simulator but deploying to device yields the following error: error: property 'delegate' attempting to use ivar '_delegate' declared in super class of 'TCPConnection' @interface TCPConnection : TCPEndpoint { @private TCPListener *_server; IPAddress *_address; BOOL _isIncoming, _checkedPeerCert; TCPConnectionStatus _status; TCPReader *_reader; TCPWriter *_writer; NSError *_error; NSTimeInterval _openTimeout; } /** The delegate object that will be called when the connection opens, closes or receives messages. */ @property (assign) id<TCPConnectionDelegate> delegate; /** The delegate messages sent by TCPConnection. All methods are optional. */ @protocol TCPConnectionDelegate <NSObject> @optional /** Called after the connection successfully opens. */ - (void) connectionDidOpen: (TCPConnection*)connection; /** Called after the connection fails to open due to an error. */ - (void) connection: (TCPConnection*)connection failedToOpen: (NSError*)error; /** Called when the identity of the peer is known, if using an SSL connection and the SSL settings say to check the peer's certificate. This happens, if at all, after the -connectionDidOpen: call. */ - (BOOL) connection: (TCPConnection*)connection authorizeSSLPeer: (SecCertificateRef)peerCert; /** Called after the connection closes. You can check the connection's error property to see if it was normal or abnormal. */ - (void) connectionDidClose: (TCPConnection*)connection; @end @interface TCPEndpoint : NSObject { NSMutableDictionary *_sslProperties; id _delegate; } - (void) tellDelegate: (SEL)selector withObject: (id)param; @end Does anyone know how I would fix this? Would I simply declare _delegate as a public property of the base class "TCPEndPoint"? Thanks for the help ya'll!

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• Parameter cannot be null error after success save

  - by tigermain

  I am getting the following nhibernate error when saving an entity (via: NHibernateSession.Save(entity);) despite it being persisted to the database fine "Value cannot be null.\r\nParameter name: id" This is my hbm file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="JeanieMaster.Domain.Entities" assembly="JeanieMaster.Domain"> <class name="ActionLog" table="ActionLog" schema="[DBSVR1].[mydatabase].[dbo]" select-before-update="false" optimistic-lock="none"> <id name="Id" column="ActionLogId" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <property name="ActionId" type="Int32"/> <many-to-one name="User" class="JeanieUser" column="UserId" /> <many-to-one name="ApplicationProvider" class="ApplicationProvider" column="ApplicationProviderId" /> <many-to-one name="ContentProvider" class="ContentProvider" column="ContentProviderId" /> <many-to-one name="SearchLog" class="SearchLog" column="SearchLogId" /> <property name="Data" type="string"/> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"/> <property name="ActionDuration" type="Double"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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• Nhibernate: Stop it from joining to a table that is not needed

  - by Aaron

  I have two tables (tbArea, tbPost) that relate to the following classes. class Area { int ID string Name ... } class Post { int ID string Title Area Area ... } These two classes map up with Fluent Nhibernate. Below is the post mapping. public class PostMapping : ClassMap<Post> { public PostMapping() { Cache.NonStrictReadWrite(); this.Table("tbPost"); Id(x => x.ID) .Column("PostID") .GeneratedBy .Identity(); References(x => x.Area) .ForeignKey("AreaID") .Column("AreaID"); ... } } Any time I perform a query on the Post table "where AreaID = 1(any AreaId)", nhibernate will join to the area table. (What Nhibernate generates for a query) SELECT post fields , area fields (automatically added) FROM tbPost p LEFT JOIN tbArea a on p.areaid = a.areaid where p.areaid = 1 I have tried setting Area to LazyLoad, to Fetch.Select, ReadOnly, and any other setting on the reference and still it will always join to Area. I am trying to optimize the backend database queries, and since I don't need the area object loaded just filtered I would like to eliminate the unnecessary join to Area each time I Query post. What configurations do I need to change or mappings to get area to still be related to post in my objects, but not query it when I filter on AreaID?

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