Search Results

Search found 24011 results on 961 pages for 'call me dummy'.

Page 293/961 | < Previous Page | 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300  | Next Page >

• Correct Delphi compiler switches to stop in the user's code, not my component's

  - by Jeremy Mullin

  I'm modifying our VCL components so the end user's application links to our dcu files, instead of building our source code each time. We have everything working, but I want the debugger to stop on the user's code when an exception is raised. At first it would stop in our dcu and open the CPU window. I was able to prevent that by removing debug info from the dcu files. But now it still doesn't stop in the users code (like DevExpress libraries and others do). The following screencast is a short example. The first time I cause an exception in the DevExpress code, and the debugger correctly stops in my button event. The second time I cause an exception in my components, but the debugger doesn't have my button event on the call stack, and doesn't show me where the problem was. Any ideas why? http://screencast.com/t/NjhlOTRk Currently building the DCU's with these options: -$W+ -$D- -h -w -q Update: The TDataSet methods in between my component and the button event seem to cause this behavior. If I instead call a direct method of my table, I get the expected behavior. I'm guessing there isn't anything I can do about this, but I'm still curious why it happens.

  Read the article

• Newsletter send using AJAX to avoid PHP timeout

  - by simPod

  I need to send newsletters. I have already a PHP script that sends mass emails but it won't work for long as email database is growing because of PHP max script run time. So, to avoid it I came up with a solution: I would call my PHP script using AJAX in javascript and I will give it $_GET parameter with a count 20 so the script would sent only 20 emails. Than AJAX would receive success response, and call my script again and again till all emails are send. Is it possible? I'm asking because I have never seen such a solution so I'm wondering if it is real (It's kinda hard to implement this into my PHP framework so I'm asking experts here first) To sum it up here's a code skeleton: <script> var emailCount = 1000; //would get this from DB var runCount = 20; //number of emails sent in one cycle var from = 0; //start number function sendMail(){ if(from<emailCount){ jQuery.ajaxfunction({ path: 'script.php?from='+from+'&count='+runCount successFc: function(){ from+=runCount; sendMail(); } }) } } sendMail(); </script> So, are there any obstacles? Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• parse xml with elementtree, custom sorting

  - by microspace

  I want to parse xml file in utf-8 and sort it by some field. Soring is made by custom alphabet (s1 from sourcecode). History of question is here: sorting of list containing utf-8 charachters. I've found how to sort xml here. Sorting work correctly, the problem is with elementtree, I must admit that it doesn't work on python3 Here is source code: #!/usr/bin/env python # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- #import xml.etree.ElementTree as ET # Python 2.5 import elementtree.ElementTree as ET s1='aáàAâÂbBcCçÇdDeéEfFgGgGhHiIîÎíiiIjJkKlLmMnNóoOöÖpPqQrRsSsStTuUûúÛüÜvVwWxXyYzZ' s2='11111122334455666aabbccddeeeeeeffgghhiijjkklllllmmnnooppqqrrsssssttuuvvwwxxyy' trans = str.maketrans(s1, s2) def unikey(seq): return seq[0].translate(trans) tree = ET.parse("tosort.xml") container = tree.find("entries") data = [] for elem in container: keyd = elem.findtext("k") data.append((keyd, elem)) print (data) data.sort(key=unikey) print (data) container[:] = [item[-1] for item in data] tree.write("sorted.xml", encoding="utf-8") Here are instructions to import elementtree module. When I import module this way :import xml.etree.ElementTree as ET, I get a message: Traceback (most recent call last): File "pcs.py", line 19, in <module> container[:] = [item[-1] for item in data] File "/usr/lib/python3.1/xml/etree/ElementTree.py", line 210, in __setitem__ assert iselement(element) AssertionError When I use this method to import: import elementtree.ElementTree as ET, I get this message: Traceback (most recent call last): File "pcs.py", line 4, in <module> import elementtree.ElementTree as ET File "/usr/local/lib/python3.1/dist-packages/elementtree/ElementTree.py", line 794, in <module> _escape = re.compile(eval(r'u"[&<>\"\u0080-\uffff]+"')) File "<string>", line 1 u"[&<>\"\u0080-\uffff]+" ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax I use Python 3.1.3 (r313:86834, Nov 28 2010, 11:28:10). In python2.6 elementtree work without a problem. Content of tosort.xml: <xdxf> <entries> <ar><k>zaaaa</k>definition1</ar> <ar><k>saaaa</k>definition2</ar> ... ... </entries> </xdxf>

  Read the article

• Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

  - by Lee-Man

  I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

  Read the article

• std::string insert method has ambiguous overloads?

  - by sdg

  Environment: VS2005 C++ using STLPort 5.1.4. Compiling the following code snippet: std::string copied = "asdf"; char ch = 's'; copied.insert(0,1,ch); I receive an error: Error 1 error C2668: 'stlpx_std::basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>::insert' : ambiguous call to overloaded function It appears that the problem is the insert method call on the string object. The two defined overloads are void insert ( iterator p, size_t n, char c ); string& insert ( size_t pos1, size_t n, char c ); But given that STLPort uses a simple char* as its iterator, the literal zero in the insert method in my code is ambiguous. So while I can easily overcome the problem by hinting such as copied.insert(size_t(0),1,ch); My question is: is this overloading and possible ambiguity intentional in the specification? Or more likely an unintended side-effect of the specific STLPort implementation? (Note that the Microsoft-supplied STL does not have this problem as it has a class for the iterator, instead of a naked pointer)

  Read the article

• Properly design a code editor application

  - by Hemaulo

  I'm working on personal project which is basically a code editor. Imagine standard File menu with menu items New, Open, Save, Save As, Save All, Close, Close All. I'm stuck with proper design. Currently I have: A Document class which represents a document - code editing control, respective tab in tab bar and various properties such as Caption, Filename, IsModified etc. A Documents class which represents all open documents. Contains methods like New, Open(FileName), ... The problem is that I can't figure out which class / menu command is responsible for which tasks. For example, with File-New menu command is simple - call Documents.New and that's it. But what for File-Open? The Documents.Open method expects filename as a parameter. So before calling this method I need to open an file selection dialog, let user select files and for each file call Documents.Open(FileName). Where is best place for this supporting code, in menu command, rewrite Documents.Open and put it there? The same with Save actions. Which is responsible for saving? Is it Documents class which uses Document.Editor.SaveToFile(FileName) or better create Save method in Document class? Somewhere in the middle also need to ask user if he wants to save current document... I'm stuck. Any ideas? Edited: The programming language is Delphi.

  Read the article

• What happens when value types are created?

  - by Bob

  I'm developing a game using XNA and C# and was attempting to avoid calling new struct() type code each frame as I thought it would freak the GC out. "But wait," I said to myself, "struct is a value type. The GC shouldn't get called then, right?" Well, that's why I'm asking here. I only have a very vague idea of what happens to value types. If I create a new struct within a function call, is the struct being created on the stack? Will it simply get pushed and popped and performance not take a hit? Further, would there be some memory limit or performance implications if, say, I need to create many instances in a single call? Take, for instance, this code: spriteBatch.Draw(tex, new Rectangle(x, y, width, height), Color.White); Rectangle in this case is a struct. What happens when that new Rectangle is created? What are the implications of having to repeat that line many times (say, thousands of times)? Is this Rectangle created, a copy sent to the Draw method, and then discarded (meaning no memory getting eaten up the more Draw is called in that manner in the same function)? P.S. I know this may be pre-mature optimization, but I'm mostly curious and wish to have a better understanding of what is happening.

  Read the article

• Creating a simple command line interface (CLI) using a python server (TCP sock) and few scripts

  - by VN44CA

  I have a Linux box and I want to be able to telnet into it (port 77557) and run few required commands without having to access to the whole Linux box. So, I have a server listening on that port, and echos the entered command on the screen. (for now) Telnet 192.168.1.100 77557 Trying 192.168.1.100... Connected to 192.168.1.100. Escape character is '^]'. hello<br /> You typed: "hello"<br /> NOW: I want to create lot of commands that each take some args and have error codes. Anyone has done this before? It would be great if I can have the server upon initialization go through each directory and execute the init.py file and in turn, the init.py file of each command call into a main template lib API (e.g. RegisterMe()) and register themselves with the server as function call backs. At least this is how I would do it in C/C++. But I want the best Pythonic way of doing this. /cmd/ /cmd/myreboot/ /cmd/myreboot/ini.py (note underscore don't show for some reason) /cmd/mylist/ /cmd/mylist/init.py ... etc IN: /cmd/myreboot/_ini_.py: from myMainCommand import RegisterMe RegisterMe(name="reboot",args=Arglist, usage="Use this to reboot the box", desc="blabla") So, repeating this creates a list of commands and when you enter the command in the telnet session, then the server goes through the list, matches the command and passed the args to that command and the command does the job and print the success or failure to stdout. Thx

  Read the article

• How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

  - by 4eburek

  From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

  Read the article

• Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

  - by Elementenfresser

  Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

  Read the article

• Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

  - by Bonswouar

  I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

  Read the article

• How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

  - by ShaneC

  I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

  Read the article

• C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

  - by Doug

  (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

  Read the article

• Page content layout issues

  - by Prupel

  I'm designing a theme for a blog and I'm having some trouble trying to get a layout working. Here's an image of what I want. This diagram represents the individual posts and not the website itself, so it will be contained in a box of it's own, lets call it .container. Also the purple and green are in another box, let's call it .content. The other elements will be called by their color for now. so here's more or less what the CSS looks like: .container { display:block; margin:0 25px; } .gray, .blue, .content { display:block; width:100%; } .purple { display:inline-block; width:125px; height:100%; text-align:center; } .green { display:inline-block; } That's all there is at the moment. I tried float but that made no effect. What's happening is something like this. Here's a few more things you should know: .container's width is NOT set it is auto .purple and .green don't necessarily need to be the same size as long as .green doesn't go to that side. .purple CAN have a set height .green is where the meat is, that's where the actual post goes, keep that in mind. I don't think tables will help, the problem is inside .content.

  Read the article

• Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

  - by ArneRie

  Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

  Read the article

• Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

  - by user169867

  I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

  Read the article

• Specifying both multiple targets and multiple build files with ant or subant in 1.6

  - by Paul Marshall

  I'm trying to unify a build process, running one build to get multiple packages. My first shot at this is just having a central build script call <ant or <subant on each project's build.xml file. I'm using Ant 1.6, and I've run into a funny problem: either I use the <ant task, and I can specify multiple targets but not multiple build files, or I use the <subant task, and I can specify multiple build files but not multiple targets. I realize there's a few solutions here already: Just upgrade to Ant 1.7 already; <antcall can do multiple targets there. Edit the separate project build files to have a variety of top-level targets, so I can call each individual file with just one target, and use <antcall. Copy-paste a lot of <ant tasks, with a little help from <macrodef to help the sanity. Is there something I've missed, that will allow me to do what I want from this single central build.xml without a) editing individual project files, b) writing lots of repetitive code, or c) upgrading Ant, and that d) doesn't require editing every time I add a new project?

  Read the article

• Fix hard-coded display setting without source (24-bit, need 32-bit)

  - by FerretallicA

  I wrote a program about 10 years ago in Visual Basic 6 which was basically a full-screen game similar to Breakout / Arkanoid but had 'demoscene'-style backgrounds. I found the program, but not the source code. Back then I hard-coded the display mode to 800x600x24, and the program crashes whenever I try to run it as a result. No virtual machine seems to support 24-bit display when the host display mode is 16/32-bit. It uses DirectX 7 so DOSBox is no use. I've tried all sorts of decompiler and at best they give me the form names and a bunch of assembly calls which mean nothing to me. The display mode setting was a DirectX 7 call but there's no clear reference to it in the decompilation. In this situation, is there any pointers on how I can: pin-point the function call in the program which is setting the display mode to 800x600x24 (ResHacker maybe?) and change the value being passed to it so it sets 800x600x32 view/intercept DirectX calls being made while it's running or if that's not possible, at least run the program in an environment that emulates a 24-bit display I don't need to recover the source code (as nice as it would be) so much as just want to get it running.

  Read the article

• How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

  - by Peter

  I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

  Read the article

• Doubts in executable and relocatable object file

  - by bala1486

  Hello, I have written a simple Hello World program. #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("Hello World"); return 0; } I wanted to understand how the relocatable object file and executable file look like. The object file corresponding to the main function is 0000000000000000 <main>: 0: 55 push %rbp 1: 48 89 e5 mov %rsp,%rbp 4: bf 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%edi 9: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax e: e8 00 00 00 00 callq 13 <main+0x13> 13: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 18: c9 leaveq 19: c3 retq Here the function call for printf is callq 13. One thing i don't understand is why is it 13. That means call the function at adresss 13, right??. 13 has the next instruction, right?? Please explain me what does this mean?? The executable code corresponding to main is 00000000004004cc <main>: 4004cc: 55 push %rbp 4004cd: 48 89 e5 mov %rsp,%rbp 4004d0: bf dc 05 40 00 mov $0x4005dc,%edi 4004d5: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 4004da: e8 e1 fe ff ff callq 4003c0 <printf@plt> 4004df: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 4004e4: c9 leaveq 4004e5: c3 retq Here it is callq 4003c0. But the binary instruction is e8 e1 fe ff ff. There is nothing that corresponds to 4003c0. What is that i am getting wrong? Thanks. Bala

  Read the article

• C# async callback on disposed form

  - by Rodney Burton

  Quick question: One of my forms in my winform app (c#) makes an async call to a WCF service to get some data. If the form happens to close before the callback happens, it crashes with an error about accessing a disposed object. What's the correct way to check/handle this situation? The error happens on the Invoke call to the method to update my form, but I can't drill down to the inner exception because it says the code has been optimized. The Code: public void RequestUserPhoto(int userID) { WCF.Service.BeginGetUserPhoto(userID, new AsyncCallback(GetUserPhotoCB), userID); } public void GetUserPhotoCB(IAsyncResult result) { var photo = WCF.Service.EndGetUserPhoto(result); int userID = (int)result.AsyncState; UpdateUserPhoto(userID, photo); } public delegate void UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(int userID, Binary photo); public void UpdateUserPhoto(int userID, Binary photo) { if (InvokeRequired) { var d = new UpdateUserPhotoDelegate(UpdateUserPhoto); Invoke(d, new object[] { userID, photo }); } else { if (photo != null) { var ms = new MemoryStream(photo.ToArray()); var bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(ms); if (userID == theForm.AuthUserID) { pbMyPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } else { pbPhoto.BackgroundImage = bmp; } } } }

  Read the article

• JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

  - by teerapap

  The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

  Read the article

• Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

  - by lobengula3rd

  I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

  Read the article

• .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

  - by Entrase

  The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

  Read the article

• Paste or Drop, copy data and release source?

  - by Harvey

  I have an MFC DocView SDI App that receives data from either the clipboard or drag and drop. The data is in either CF_HDROP or CF_TEXT format. I have a COleDropTarget derived CMyDropTarget member m_dropTarget of my CMainFrame class. I have two member functions of CMyDropTarget; OnDrop(...) and OnPaste() which each call another member function PostData(pDataObject). I want to get a copy of the pDataObject from either CF_... format and PostMessage to my CmainFrame which will call a member of my Doc class. What is a simple way of getting a copy of the global data to pass with the PostMessage() so that I can get the drop source released before I get around to processing the global data? NOTE that they are always treated as a copy of the source data, so there is no need for the source to delete anything when the operation is done. Or perhaps a better way of asking the question is: How can I release the Drop source before processing the global data? Can I pass the HGLOBAL via PostMessage and still release the source without making a copy of it?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300  | Next Page >