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• Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

  - by skiphoppy

  I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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• curl_multi_exec stops if one url is 404, how can I change that?

  - by Rob

  Currently, my cURL multi exec stops if one url it connects to doesn't work, so a few questions: 1: Why does it stop? That doesn't make sense to me. 2: How can I make it continue? EDIT: Here is my code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") ; $mh = curl_multi_init(); $handles = array(); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ //load the urls and send GET data $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 5); curl_multi_add_handle($mh, $ch); $handles[] = $ch; } // Create a status variable so we know when exec is done. $running = null; //execute the handles do { // Call exec. This call is non-blocking, meaning it works in the background. curl_multi_exec($mh,$running); // Sleep while it's executing. You could do other work here, if you have any. sleep(2); // Keep going until it's done. } while ($running > 0); // For loop to remove (close) the regular handles. foreach($handles as $ch) { // Remove the current array handle. curl_multi_remove_handle($mh, $ch); } // Close the multi handle curl_multi_close($mh);

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• Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

  - by JPM

  Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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• Few Basic Questions in Overriding

  - by Dahlia

  I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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• Protecting Content with AuthLogic

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I know this sounds like a really, really simple use case and I'm hoping that it is, but I swear I've looked all over the place and haven't found any mention of any way - not even the best way - of doing this. I'm brand-spanking new to Ruby, Rails and everything surrounding either (which may explain a lot). The dummy app that I'm using as my learning tool requires authentication in order to do almost anything meaningful, so I chose to start by solving that problem. I've installed the AuthLogic gem and have it working nicely to the extent that is covered by the intro documentation and Railscast, but now that I can register, login and logout...I need to do something with it. As an example, I need to create a page where users can upload images. I'm planning to have an ImagesController with an upload action method, but I want that only accessible to logged in users. I suppose that in every restricted action I could add code to redirect if there's no current_user, but that seems really verbose. Is there a better way of doing this that allows me to define or identify restricted areas and handle the authentication check in one place?

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• How to overcome the programmer's block ?

  - by Nicolas Dorier

  How do you do when, during the development of your application, you can't decide yourself what to do next. You have no problem technically speaking, you have no problem to write clean code BUT you have a problem to decide yourself on what to code now. And you spend time thinking and thinking again on your design, in the car, in the shower, and you cannot write a single line of code... I think we call this "analysis paralysis". I hate being in this state ! How can you avoid this ? How do you do to not fall in this state ? I think this occurs when we are writting a big chunk of code with no visible improvement, but I'm not sure... UPDATE Like some of you said, this problem is also what we call the "programmer's block" (analogy with the writer's block). Doing some TDD doesn't help because I'm stuck, I can't decide myself what class to code, what methods to put inside (even a name of method). Though I admit that it helps to break a big chunk of code into smaller ones. Like Talesh said my head becomes full of "what-if".

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• jQuery validation with submit handler

  - by James

  I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

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• Drupal module permissions

  - by Trevor Newhook

  When I run the code with an admin user, the module returns what it should. However, when I run it with a normal user, I get a 403 error. The module returns data from an AJAX call. I've already tried adding a 'access callback' = 'user_access'); line to the exoticlang_chat_logger_menu() function. I'd appreciate any pointers you might have. Thanks for the help The AJAX call: jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/chatlog', success: exoticlangAjaxCompleted, data:'messageLog=' + privateMessageLogJson, dataType: 'json' }); The module code: function exoticlang_chat_logger_init(){ drupal_add_js('misc/jquery.form.js'); drupal_add_library('system', 'drupal.ajax'); } function exoticlang_chat_logger_permission() { return array( 'Save chat data' => array( 'title' => t('Save ExoticLang Chat Data'), 'description' => t('Send private message on chat close') ), ); } /** * Implementation of hook_menu(). */ function exoticlang_chat_logger_menu() { $items = array(); $items['chatlog'] = array( 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, 'page callback' => 'exoticlang_chat_log_ajax', 'access arguments' => 'Save chat data'); //'access callback' => 'user_access'); return $items; } function exoticlang_chat_logger_ajax(){ $messageLog=stripslashes($_POST['messageLog']); $chatLog= 'Drupal has processed this. Message log is: '.$messageLog; $chatLog=str_replace('":"{[{','":[{',$chatLog); $chatLog=str_replace(',,',',',$chatLog); $chatLog=str_replace('"}"','"}',$chatLog); $chatLog=str_replace('"}]}"','"}]',$chatLog); echo json_encode(array('messageLog' => $chatLog)); // echo $chatLog; echo print_r(privatemsg_new_thread(array(user_load(1)), 'The subject', 'The body text')); drupal_exit(); }

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• Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

  - by sonicblis

  I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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• Making it look like the computer is thinking in TicTacToe game

  - by rage

  here is a slice of code that i've written in VB.net Private Sub L00_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles L00.Click, L01.Click, L02.Click, L03.Click, L10.Click, L11.Click, L12.Click, L13.Click, L20.Click, L21.Click, L22.Click, L23.Click, L30.Click, L31.Click, L32.Click, L33.Click Dim ticTac As Label = CType(sender, Label) Dim strRow As String Dim strCol As String 'Once a move is made, do not allow user to change whether player/computer goes first, because it doesn't make sense to do so since the game has already started. ComputerFirstStripMenuItem.Enabled = False PlayerFirstToolStripMenuItem.Enabled = False 'Check to make sure clicked tile is a valid tile i.e and empty tile. If (ticTac.Text = String.Empty) Then ticTac.Text = "X" ticTac.ForeColor = ColorDialog1.Color ticTac.Tag = 1 'After the player has made his move it becomes the computers turn. computerTurn(sender, e) Else MessageBox.Show("Please pick an empty tile to make next move", "Invalid Move") End If End Sub Private Sub computerTurn(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Call Randomize() row = Int(4 * Rnd()) col = Int(4 * Rnd()) 'Check to make sure clicked tile is a valid tile i.e and empty tile. If Not ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 1 And Not ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 4 Then ticTacArray(row, col).Text = "O" ticTacArray(row, col).ForeColor = ColorDialog2.Color ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 4 checkIfGameOver(sender, e) Else 'Some good ole pseudo-recursion(doesn't require a base case(s)). computerTurn(sender, e) End If End Sub Everything works smoothly, except i'm trying to make it seem like the computer has to "think" before making its move. So what i've tried to do is place a System.Threading.Sleep() call in different places in the code above. The problem is that instead of making the computer look like its thinking, the program waits and then puts the X and O together at the same time. Can someone help me make it so that the program puts an X wherever i click AND THEN wait before it places an O? Edit: in case any of you are wondering, i realize that the computers AI is ridiculously dumb, but its just to mess around right now. Later on i will implement a serious AI..hopefully.

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• JSF: Avoid nested update calls

  - by dhroove

  I don't know if I am on right track or not still asking this question. I my JSF project I have this tree structure: <p:tree id="resourcesTree" value="#{someBean.root}" var="node" selectionMode="single" styleClass="no-border" selection="#{someBean.selectedNode}" dynamic="true"> <p:ajax listener="#{someBean.onNodeSelect}" update=":centerPanel :tableForm :tabForm" event="select" onstart="statusDialog.show();" oncomplete="statusDialog.hide();" /> <p:treeNode id="resourcesTreeNode" > <h:outputText value="#{node}" id="lblNode" /> </p:treeNode> </p:tree> I have to update this tree after I added something or delete something.. But whenever I update this still its nested update also call I mean to say it also call to update these components ":centerPanel :tableForm :tabForm"... This give me error that :tableForm not found in view because this forms load in my central panel and this tree is in my right panel.. So when I am doing some operation on tree is it not always that :tableForm is in my central panel.. (I mean design is something like this only) So now my question is that can I put some condition or there is any way so that I can specify when to update nested components also and when not.... In nut shell is there any way to update only :resoucesTree is such a way that nested updates are not called so that I can avoid error... Thanks in advance.

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• W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

  - by ThomasReggi

  Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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• Stop an executing recursive javascript function

  - by DA

  Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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• Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

  - by GV India

  In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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• SpeechRecognizer causes ANR... I need help with Android speech API.

  - by Dondo Chaka

  I'm trying to use Android's speech recognition package to record user speech and translate it to text. Unfortunately, when I attempt initiate listening, I get an ANR error that doesn't point to anything specific. As the SpeechRecognizer API indicates, a RuntimeException is thrown if you attempt to call it from the main thread. This would make me wonder if the processing was just too demanding... but I know that other applications use the Android API for this purpose and it is typically pretty snappy. java.lang.RuntimeException: SpeechRecognizer should be used only from the application's main thread Here is a (trimmed) sample of the code I'm trying to call from my service. Is this the proper approach? Thanks for taking the time to help. This has been a hurdle I haven't been able to get over yet. Intent intent = new Intent(RecognizerIntent.ACTION_RECOGNIZE_SPEECH); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_LANGUAGE_MODEL, RecognizerIntent.LANGUAGE_MODEL_FREE_FORM); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_CALLING_PACKAGE, "com.domain.app"); SpeechRecognizer recognizer = SpeechRecognizer .createSpeechRecognizer(this.getApplicationContext()); RecognitionListener listener = new RecognitionListener() { @Override public void onResults(Bundle results) { ArrayList<String> voiceResults = results .getStringArrayList(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_RESULTS); if (voiceResults == null) { Log.e(getString(R.string.log_label), "No voice results"); } else { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Printing matches: "); for (String match : voiceResults) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), match); } } } @Override public void onReadyForSpeech(Bundle params) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Ready for speech"); } @Override public void onError(int error) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Error listening for speech: " + error); } @Override public void onBeginningOfSpeech() { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Speech starting"); } }; recognizer.setRecognitionListener(listener); recognizer.startListening(intent);

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• jQuery dynamic css loading weired behavior

  - by jimpsr

  The app I am working on requires dynamic loading of css and js, right now the solution is as follows: myapp.loadCss = function(css){ $("head").append("<link>"); cssDom = $("head").children(":last"); cssDom.attr({rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: css }); } myapp.loadJs = funciton(js){ ... //$.ajax call is used in synchronized mode to make sure the js is fully loaded } } When some widgets need to be load, the usual call with be myapp.loadCss('/widgets/widget1/css/example.css'); myapp.loadJs('/wiggets/widget1/js/example.js'); The weired thing is that once a while (1 out of 10 or 20), the newly created dom elements from example.js will not be able to get its css from example.css, it seems however my loadCss method does not load the css in a synchronized mode? I have tried to replace my loadCss with the the following code: myapp.loadCss(css){ $('<link href="' + css + '" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />').appendTo($('head')); } It seems to be OK then (I refreshed the webpage a hundred times for verification :-( ) But unfortunately this method failed in IE(IE7, not tested in IE6, 8) Is there any better solution for this?

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• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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• Start dependent application with eunit

  - by ruslander

  I start lager as a dependent application when I run a unit test but for some reason the code under test does not see it. -module(main_tests). -include_lib("eunit/include/eunit.hrl"). main_test_() -> {foreach, fun distr_setup/0, fun distr_cleanup/1, [ fun must_retain/1 ]}. must_retain(_) -> {"Should do ping pong when is fully initialized", fun() -> ?assertEqual(pong, abuse_counter:ping()) end}. %%------------------------------------------------------------------ distr_setup() -> abuse_counter:start_link(), ok. distr_cleanup(_) -> abuse_counter:stop(), ok. Here is the output of the log which is complaining that lager is not defined {undef,[{lager,info,["up and running"],[]} though in the run output is definitely there. Here is how I run it: erl -pa ebin/ ../../deps/*/ebin -s lager -eval 'eunit:test(main_tests,[verbose]), init:stop().' Fails with the output Eshell V5.10.2 (abort with ^G) 1> 17:13:31.506 [info] Application lager started on node nonode@nohost ======================== EUnit ======================== module 'main_tests' undefined 17:13:31.528 [error] CRASH REPORT Process <0.57.0> with 1 neighbours exited with reason: call to undefined function lager:info("up and running") in gen_server:init_it/6 line 328 *unexpected termination of test process* ::**{undef,[{lager,info,["up and running"],[]}**, {abuse_counter,init,1,[{file,"src/abuse_counter.erl"},{line,37}]}, {gen_server,init_it,6,[{file,"gen_server.erl"},{line,304}]}, {proc_lib,init_p_do_apply,3,[{file,"proc_lib.erl"},{line,239}]}]} ======================================================= Failed: 0. Skipped: 0. Passed: 0. One or more tests were cancelled. Already spent 3-4h hours on google and stack overflow but nothing seems to work. One option is to hide this call behind a ?INFO(Mgs) macro but do not like the idea. Any help will be highly appreciated.

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• Event type property lost in IE-8

  - by Channel72

  I've noticed a strange Javascript error which only seems to happen on Internet Explorer 8. Basically, on IE-8 if you have an event handler function which captures the event object in a closure, the event "type" property seems to become invalidated from within the closure. Here's a simple code snippet which reproduces the error: <html> <head> <script type = "text/javascript"> function handleClickEvent(ev) { ev = (ev || window.event); alert(ev.type); window.setTimeout(function() { alert(ev.type); // Causes error on IE-8 }, 20); } function foo() { var query = document.getElementById("query"); query.onclick = handleClickEvent; } </script> </head> <body> <input id = "query" type = "submit"> <script type = "text/javascript"> foo(); </script> </body> </html> So basically, what happens here is that within the handleClickEvent function, we have the event object ev. We call alert(ev.type) and we see the event type is "click". So far, so good. But then when we capture the event object in a closure, and then call alert(ev.type) again from within the closure, now all of a sudden Internet Explorer 8 errors, saying "Member not found" because of the expression ev.type. It seems as though the type property of the event object is mysteriously gone after we capture the event object in a closure. I tested this code snippet on Firefox, Safari and Chrome, and none of them report an error condition. But in IE-8, the event object seems to become somehow invalidated after it's captured in the closure. Question: Why is this happening in IE-8, and is there any workaround?

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• How can I ceil the height of a div that has "display: table-cell"?

  - by eric01

  I am trying to vertically center a div inside another div, regardless of the size of both div's I am doing this: <div id='outer_div'> <div id='inner_div'></div> </div> The CSS is #outer_div { display: table-row; height: 200px; width: 200px } #inner_div { display: table-cell; vertical-align: middle; height: 500px; width: 500px } I put larger dimensions for the inner div on purpose. What happens is that even if I put a width of 1000px, the width of the innerdiv is ceiled at 200px because of the outer div's width (and this is what I want) But for the height, it is not ceiled and I would like it to be ceiled to the height of the outer div. What i want is the innerdiv to remain at the same size as the outer_div, no matter what height I give to outer_div in CSS. I basically want it to be the same size as its parent. EDIT: I only put text inside those div's. So let's say I have an outer div of 200px*200px (it has display: table-row), and the inner div is defined by css as 500px*500px and it has dummy text inside. My expected result is to have the inner div shrunk down to 200px*200px. It is successfully 'shrunk' by the outer div for the width, but NOT for the height. What I want is to have it shrunk on the height as well (so the inner div ajusts automatically in case I change the height of the outer div) How do I go about that?

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• Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

  - by FullmetalBoy

  The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

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• Widget host app with custom view - onClick is not triggered in the app widget.

  - by Dennis K

  I'm writing an app that will host widgets. The app has custom view (which probably is the source of issue). I obtain AppWidgetHostView like this private AppWidgetHostView widget; ... AppWidgetProviderInfo appWidgetInfo = mAppWidgetManager.getAppWidgetInfo(appWidgetId); widget = mAppWidgetHost.createView(this, appWidgetId, appWidgetInfo); widget.setAppWidget(appWidgetId, appWidgetInfo); mView.addWidget(widget, appWidgetInfo); mView.addWidget() basically just remembers this AppWidgetHostView instance and then draws it directly onto canvas. Visually everything is fine - I can see the actual widget. But the issue is with reacting on UI events. Please advise what needs to be done in the parent view in order to correctly trigger handlers in the widgets like onClick(). Notes: I used standard widgets which normally react on click events. None worked. I also created my own test widget with listener (via views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.appwidget_text, pending);) and onClick() is successfully triggered if the widget is added on Homescreen, but doesn't work in my app. mView correctly detects click event and I tried to call widget.performClick() there, which returns false meaning onClickListener is not registered in the widget. But according to source mAppWidgetHost.createView() would call updateAppWidget which would register its onClick listener.. Please advise where to look at. Thanks

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• noncopyable static const member class in template class

  - by Dukales

  I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

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• IE 7 activex object (or xmlhttprequest?) open method using POST takes 20-30 seconds to return

  - by Toddeman

  i have a problem that only shows itself in IE7. its a simple ajax call. i got my object (accounting for the browser) so in 7 i SHOULD have an ActiveXObject. when i call open with POST, it takes 20-30 seconds to return. i am using a TON of GET calls to populate information and all of these work (finally, after some bug fixing), but i am NOT a web developer so much like the other bugs i had to fix, i figured i was just missing another IE anomaly. this is not a consistent bug either, which makes it harder to find for me. most times the POST functions like it does in Firefox or Chrome, but maybe 1 out of 4 or 5 will take 20-30 seconds to return. it DOES return correctly when it returns, it just takes a long time. am i missing something simple? or is there a smarter way for me to find out exactly what is going on (like the equivalent of the firebug 'net' tab for windows?).

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• [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

  - by Luke Mcneice

  Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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